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SHB > Exam 4 - Part 2 > Flashcards

Exam 4 - Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four divisions of the diencephalon?

A
  1. Epithalamus
  2. Dorsal thalamus
  3. Subthalamus
  4. Hypothalamus
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2
Q

What are the three parts of the epithalamus?

A
  1. Pineal gland
  2. Habenular
  3. Stria medullaris
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3
Q

What are the three parts of the dorsal thalamus and what divides it into these parts?

A

Anterior, medial, and lateral division nuclei; divided by internal medullary lamina

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4
Q

What are the two parts of the subthalamus?

A
  1. Subthalamic nuclei

2. Zona incerta

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5
Q

What is embedded in the internal medullary lamina?

A

Intralaminar nuclei

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6
Q

What covers the ventricular surface of the thalamus?

A

Midline nuclei

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7
Q

What partially surrounds/overlies the thalamus?

A

Thalamic reticular nuclei

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8
Q

What are the three functional groups of the thalamus?

A
  1. Specific or relay nuclei
  2. Association nuclei
  3. Non-specific nuclei
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9
Q

___ nuclei have well-defined inputs and projections.

A

Specific or relay

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10
Q

___ nuclei are reciprocally connected to the association cortex.

A

Association

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11
Q

___ nuclei are diffuse and function in arousal.

A

Non-specific nuclei

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12
Q

List the 7 specific/relay nuclei.

A
  1. Anterior
  2. Ventral anterior
  3. Ventral lateral
  4. Ventral posterior
  5. Lateral dorsal
  6. Medial geniculate
  7. Lateral geniculate
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13
Q

List the 3 association nuclei.

A
  1. Lateral posterior
  2. Pulvinar
  3. Medial dorsal
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14
Q

Lis the 2 non-specific nuclei.

A
  1. Intralaminar nuclei

2. Thalamic reticular nuclei

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15
Q

Where does the thalamic reticular nucleus receive information from and project information to?

A

From frontal cortices and thalamic nuclei to other thalamic nuclei (not to the cortex)

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16
Q

What is the input and projection of the VA/VL nuclei?

A

Input: basal ganglia, cerebellum
Output: motor areas

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17
Q

What is the input and projection of the VPL nuclei?

A

Input: medial lemniscus, spinothalamic tract (spinal components)
Output: somatosensory cortex

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18
Q

What is the input and projection of the VPM nuclei?

A

Input: medial lemniscus, spinothalamic tract (trigeminal components)
Output: somatosensory cortex

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19
Q

What is the input and projection of the medial geniculate?

A

Input: brachium of the inferior colliculus
Output: auditory cortex (transverse temporal gyri)

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20
Q

What is the input and projection of the lateral geniculate?

A

Input: optic tract
Output: visual cortex (occipital lobe)

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21
Q

What is the input and projection of the anterior nuclei?

A

Input: mammillothalamic tract
Outpu: cingulate gyrus

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22
Q

Compare and contrast S-units, FR-units, and FF-units with respect to size, type of muscle fiber, number of mitochondria and capillaries, twitch, force, and fatigue.

A

S-unit: small, type I, red fibers, lots of mitochondria and capillaries, slow twitch, small force, resistant to fatigue
FR-unit: medium, type IIa, white fibers, medium mitochondria and capillaries, fast twitch, moderate force, resistant to fatigue
FF-unit: large, type IIb, white fibers, few mitochondria and capillaries, fast twitch, large force, can be fatigued

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23
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

All muscle fibers innervated by a lower motor neuron

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24
Q

What is the size principle?

A

LMNs are recruited in order of size and force; slow/small units recruited first

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25
Q

What are upper motor neurons?

A

Corticospinal and corticobulbar neurons

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26
Q

What NT is released by lower motor neurons?

A

Acetylcholine

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27
Q

Describe the organization of lower motor neurons into groups (medial, lateral, dorsal, ventral).

A

Medial: trunk muscles
Lateral: distal limb muscles
Doral: flexor muscles
Ventral: extensor muscles

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28
Q

What are the 4 major control systems of the spinal cord LMNs?

A
  1. Reflex and pattern generators in the SC
  2. Descending pathways
  3. Cortical centers
  4. Basal ganglia/cerebellum
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29
Q

What are the 4 descending pathways and what do they control?

A
  1. Corticospinal tract (lateral): excitatory, release glutamate
  2. Vestibulospinal tract: postural adjustments/head movements
  3. Reticulospinal tract: locomotion and postural control
  4. Tectospinal tract: reflex turning of head to visual/auditory stimuli
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30
Q

What are the 4 cortical centers involved in controlling lower motor neurons?

A
  1. Association cortex (decides a movement is needed)
  2. Supplementary motor area (planning/learning complex movements)
  3. Premotor cortex (devise a plan for movements)
  4. Motor cortex (origin of commands to motor neurons)
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31
Q

What do the basal ganglia and cerebellum do?

A

Select/adjust movements to match intention

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32
Q

The CST passes through the ___ of the internal capsule.

A

Posterior limb

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33
Q

Which cranial nerves receive no direct corticobulbar innervation?

A

3, 4, and 6

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34
Q

What are the major divisions of the basal ganglia?

A
  1. Striatum (cadauate nucleus, nucleus accumbens, putamen)
  2. Globus pallidus (internal segment, external segment)
  3. Subthalamic nucleus
  4. Substantia nigra (compact part, reticular part)
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35
Q

What are the four basal ganglia circuits and what do they do?

A
  1. Motor loop: learned movements
  2. Cognitive loop: motor intention
  3. Limbic loop: emotional aspects of movement
  4. Oculomotor loops: voluntary saccades (fast eye movements)
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36
Q

Describe the direct motor pathway of the basal ganglia.

A
  1. Globus pallidus (internal segment) tonically inhibits VA/VL complex of thalamus with GABA.
  2. Association cortex excite the striatum with glutamate.
  3. Striatum inhibits globus pallidus
  4. VA/VL activated, stimulates premotor cortex
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37
Q

What is the basic circuity of the basal ganglia?

A

Thalamus -> Cortex -> Striatum -> GPi + SNr -> Thalamus

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38
Q

Describe the indirect motor pathway of the basal ganglia.

A
  1. Globus pallidus (external segment) tonically inhibits the subthalamic nucleus.
  2. Cortex excites striatum
  3. Striatum inhibits Globus pallidus (external segment)
  4. Subthalamic nucleus is disinhibited (it excites globus pallidus, internal segment)
  5. Thalmaus is inhibited
  6. Cortical activity is suppressed
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39
Q

How does substantia nigra affect the pathways of the basal ganglia?

A

D1 excites the striatum; D2 inhibits the striatum

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40
Q

What type of afferent information enters the cerebellar cortex?

A

Vestibular, proprioceptive, skin receptor, sensorimotor cortex, auditory/visual systems

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41
Q

Where do the outputs of the cerebellum travel to?

A

Motor systems (vestibular nuclei, thalamus, red nucleus/reticular formation)

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42
Q

True or false - there is no direct connection between the cerebellum and the spinal cord.

A

True

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43
Q

Describe the general flow of information through the cerebellum.

A

Inputs travel through mossy/climbing fibers to the cerebellar cortex, to Purkinje cells, to deep nuclei, out to motor systems

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44
Q

Describe the flow of information through the middle cerebellar peduncle.

A
  1. Information from cerebral cortex synapses on pontine nuclei.
  2. DECUSSATION occurs, then information travels to the middle cerebellar peduncle
  3. Information reaches the cerebellar cortex
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45
Q

Describe the flow of information through the inferior cerebellar peduncle.

A
  1. Information from the vestibular/cochlear nuclei, inferior olive, and dorsal spineocerebellar/cuneocerebellar tracts travels to the inferior peduncle. Only the information from the inferior olive DECUSSATES prior to reaching the peduncle.
  2. Information reaches the cerebellar cortex
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46
Q

Where do climbing fibers come from?

A

Inferior olive

47
Q

The majority of fibers in the cerebellum are ___ (mossy or climbing).

A

Mossy

48
Q

What are some of the deep cerebellar nuclei?

A

Dentate nucleus, interposed nucleus, fastigial nucleus

49
Q

The superior cerebellar peduncle receives afferent information from the ___.

A

Anterior spinocerebellar tract

50
Q

The middle cerebellar peduncle receives afferent information from the ___.

A

Cerebral cortex

51
Q

The inferior cerebellar peduncle receives afferent information from the ___.

A
  1. Inferior olivary nucleus
  2. Vestibular nuclei
  3. Spinal cord
  4. Trigeminal nuclei
  5. Reticular formation
52
Q

The only axons that leave the cerebellar cortex are from the ___ cells.

A

Purkinje

53
Q

Where do axons from basket cells synapse? Stellate cells?

A

Basket cells synapse on the Purkinje cell body; Stellate cells synapse on the Purkinje cell dendrites

54
Q

Granular cells send their axons into the molecular layer as ___ fibers.

A

Parallel mossy

55
Q

Describe how information travels to the Purkinje cells.

A

Climbing fibers from the contralateral inferior olivary nucleus travel directly to the Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers from everywhere else travel through granular cells; these bifurcate into parallel fibers that run to the cerebellar cortex and Purkinje cells. Purkinje cells inhibit. deep nuclei

56
Q

Describe the somatotopic maps of the cerebellum.

A

Vermal portion: trunk

Paravermal portion: limbs

57
Q

Describe the input and output of the flocculonodular lobe.

A

Input: vestibular afferents-> Fastigial nucleus of cerebellum -> vestibular nuclei -> ascending MLF & Descending MLF, lateral vestibulospinal tract

58
Q

Information travels from the medial hemisphere of the cerebellum to the ___ nucleus, then to the ___ nucleus, and finally through the ___ tract.

A

Globose-emboliform; red; rubrospinal tract; note the decussation from globose to red

59
Q

Information travels from the lateral hemisphere of the cerebellum to the ___ nucleus, then to the ___, then to the cerebral cortex.

A

Dentate; ventrolateral thalamic

60
Q

What are the 6 layers of the cortex?

A 
I: molecular layer
II: external granular layer
III: external pyramidal layer
IV: internal granular layer
V: internal pyramidal layer
VI: polymorphic layer
61
Q

What are the efferents and afferents of layers II and III?

A

Efferents: corticocortical
Afferents: other cortical

62
Q

What are the efferents and afferents of layer IV?

A

Efferent: Layer I
Afferent: Thalamic relay nuclei

63
Q

What are the efferents and afferents of layer V?

A

Efferent: brainstem, SC, corticostriate
Afferent: none

64
Q

What are the efferents and afferents of layer VI?

A

Efferent: Thalamus
Afferent: Intralaminar nuclei

65
Q

How are layers IV and V seen on myelin stains?

A

IV: outer band of Baillarger
V: inner band of Baillarger

66
Q

Describe pyramidal cells.

A
  • Long apical dendrite and a basal dendrite
  • Dendritic spines
  • Axons leave cortex (excitatory - glutamate)
67
Q

Describe non-pyramidal cells.

A
  • Various shapes
  • Interneurons of the cerebral cortex
  • Axons don’t leave cortex (inhibitory - GABA)
68
Q

What is the distribution of pyramidal cells and non-pyramidal cells?

A

80% pyramidal, 20% non-pyramidal

69
Q

What are the 4 parts of the corpus callosum and where are they located?

A
  1. Genu (frontal)
  2. Anterior body (frontal)
  3. Posterior body (parietal)
  4. Splenium (occipital and temporal)
70
Q

What is the anterior commissure?

A

Interconnects temporal lobe and components of olfactory system

71
Q

What are association bundles (fasciculi)?

A

Corticocortical connections in the same hemisphere; none are discrete point-to-point; fibers travel in both directions

72
Q

What are primary neocortical areas?

A

Direct link to the world; inputs from thalamic nuclei, outputs to brainstem and SC

73
Q

Where is the primary motor neocortical area?

A

Precentral gyrus (4)

74
Q

Where is the primary somatosensory neocortical area?

A

Postcentral gyrus (312)

75
Q

Where is the primary visual neocortical area?

A

Calcarine (17)

76
Q

Where is the primary auditory neocortical area?

A

Transverse temporal gyrus (41)

77
Q

Where is the primary gustatory neocortical area?

A

Anterior insula?

78
Q

Where is the primary vestibular neocortical area?

A

Posterior insula?

79
Q

What are unimodal association areas?

A

More complex response functions; adjacent to primary cortical areas; less precise

80
Q

Injury to unimodal association areas causes ___.

A

Agnosia

81
Q

Where is the premotor unimodal association area and what does it do?

A

6; involves larger groups of muscles in an activity

82
Q

Where is the supplementary motor association area and what does it do?

A

6; assumption of posture or using muscles on both sides of the body

83
Q

Where is the somatosensory unimodal association area?

A

5, 7

84
Q

Where is the visual unimodal association area?

A

18, 19, others?

85
Q

What are multimodal association areas?

A

Deal with high level intellectual functions; association areas send converging inputs here

86
Q

Injury to multimodal association areas can cause ___ (motor) or ___ (sensory).

A

Apraxis; neglect

87
Q

What are the three major multi-modal association areas?

A
  1. Parieto-occipital-temporal region
  2. Prefrontal area
  3. Limbic area
88
Q

Injury to the right inferior parietal lobule can cause ___ (ispilateral, contralateral) neglect.

A

Contralateral

89
Q

Injury to the left parietal area can cause an ___.

A

Apraxia

90
Q

The ___ prefrontal area is more important for working memory, attention, and logical aspects of problem solving. The ___ prefrontal area has extensive limbic connections and are more important for emotional aspects of planning and decisions.

A

Dorsolateral; ventromedial

91
Q

All cortical areas receive corpus callosum commissural fibers except for three areas. What are they?

A
  1. Hand area of somatosensory and motor cortex
  2. Area 17
  3. Temporal lobe (connections pass through anterior commissure)
92
Q

What is the reticular formation?

A

Coordination network for the brainstem nuclei

93
Q

What are some of the functions of the reticular formation?

A
  1. Pattern generator (chewing, swallowing, coughing, etc.)
  2. Centers for respiratory/cardiovascular/micturition control
  3. Nociception
94
Q

What are the three main hypothalamic inputs?

A
  1. Fornix (hippocampus)
  2. Stria terminalis (amygdala)
  3. Medial forebrain bundle (amygdala)
95
Q

What are the four main hypothalamic outputs?

A
  1. Cortex
  2. Midbrain
  3. Spinal cord
  4. Amgydala
96
Q

The ___ function in recollective memory and may also aid in spatial memory.

A

Mammillary bodies

97
Q

What are the two groups of fiber projections from the mammillary bodies?

A
  1. Mammillothalamic tract (to anterior thalamic nucleus)

2. Mamillotegmental tract (to midbrain tegmentum)

98
Q

Describe the Papez circuit, which describes the limbic system.

A

Main circuit: Cingulate gyrus -> Hippocampus -> Mammillary body of hypothalamus -> Anterior nucleus of thalamus -> Cingulate gyrus

*See powerpoint picture

99
Q

Direct release of hormones occurs via the ___ pituitary, or neurohypophysis. Indirect release of hormones occurs via the ___ pituitary, or adenohypophysis.

A

Posterior; anterior

100
Q

Biologic rhythms are characterized by what four factors?

A
  1. Period (time to complete one full cycle)
  2. Frequency (# cycles/time unit)
  3. Phase (point of reference from a standard/average value)
  4. Amplitude (magnitude of variation from mean)
101
Q

What are the four types of biologic rhythms?

A
  1. Ultradian
  2. Circadian
  3. Infradian
  4. Circannual
102
Q

The medial nuclei of the amygdala are interconnected with the ___ system.

A

Olfactory

103
Q

The central nuclei of the amygdala are interconnected with the ___ and related brainstem nuclei; important in emotional responses.

A

Hypothalamus

104
Q

The basolateral nuclei are extensively interconnected with ___ areas.

A

Cortical

105
Q

What are the inputs to the amygdala?

A

Olfactory information (from bulb and cortex) arrives at the medial nuclei; thalamic and unimodal association area information reaches the basolateral nuclei. Visceral sensory inputs reach the central nuclei from the hypothalamus and brainstem.

106
Q

Fibers leave the amygdala through the ___ and ___.

A

Stria terminalis; ventral amygdalofugal pathway

107
Q

Outputs from the amygdala include the following: …

A

Unimodal sensory cortex, anterior limbic cortex, ventral striatum, thalamus (dorsomedial nucleus), hypothalamus, brainstem visceral nuclei, hippocampus

108
Q

What causes Kluver-Bucy syndrome?

A

Bilaateral lesions to the tips of the temporal lobes

109
Q

What are the 5 symptoms of Kluver-Bucy?

A
  1. Docility
  2. Dietary changes/hyperphagia
  3. Hyperorality
  4. Hypersexuality
  5. Visual agnosia
110
Q

What are the components of the hippocampus?

A
  1. Dentate gyrus
  2. Hippocampus proper
  3. Subiculum
111
Q

What is the major interface between the hippocampus and vast areas of the association cortex?

A

Parahippocampal gyrus

112
Q

Bilateral damage to the hippocampus causes ___.

A

Anterograde amnesia

113
Q

What are the major inputs to the hippocampus?

A

Unimodal, multimodal, and limbic cortical areas; septal nuclei (backward through fornix), amygdala

114
Q

What are the major outputs to the hippocampus?

A

Unimodal, multimodal, and limbic cortical areas, mammillary bodies through fornix

SHB (36 decks)

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