Exam 2 - Ruminant Lower Respiratory Tract Flashcards

1
Q

what is bronchial pneumonia?

A

invasion of pathogenic organisms that gain access to the lung through the pulmonary tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the typical clinical signs of bronchial pneumonia?

A

lethargy, fever, & indications of sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the typical distribution of bronchial pneumonia?

A

cranioventral localization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is interstitial pneumonia?

A

diverse group of diseases - typically non-infectious

interstitial reaction that usually results from ingestion/inhalation of toxins/allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the clinical signs of interstitial pneumonia?

A

abnormal lung sounds, not as ill-appearing as bronchial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the typical distribution of interstitial pneumonia?

A

diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is metastatic pneumonia?

A

septic embolization of lungs or other body locations - commonly liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the clinical signs of metastatic pneumonia?

A

septic with widespread abnormal lung sounds that eventually lead to hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the bronchopneumonias complex made up of?

A

multi-factorial disease complexes with no single etiologic agent, compromised host defense scenarios, contributing environmental factors, & management decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is BRDC?

A

bovine respiratory disease complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the pathogenesis of bovine herpesvirus-1?

A

direct contact with infected cattle or aerosol transmission

epithelial cells of respiratory tract are initial target - direct injury in upper respiratory tract & bronchi leading to inflammation/increased susceptibility because of dysfunction of neutrophils, lymphocytes, & macrophages

virus spreads by intracellular bridges between cells

lymphocytes & monocytes are susceptible to infection leading to extra-respiratory site transport to spleen, esophagus, & liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the pathogenesis of bovine herpesvirus-1 in latent infections?

A

latent infection in neural tissues - trigeminal gangli & tonsils, not actively produced/shedding

can be reactivated by stress & glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the etiology of bovine herpesvirus-1?

A

enveloped DNA virus, subfamily alphaherpesvirinae, varicellovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are some diseases in which bovine herpesvirus-1 is the causative agent?

A

IBR, conjunctivitis, pustular vulvovaginitis, abortion, mastitis, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is ‘red nose’ in bovine herpesvirus-1 infections?

A

hyperemic & reddening of muzzle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the clinical signs of bovine herpesvirus-1?

A

rhinitis, tracheitis, pyrexia, reduced milk production, coughing, & open mouth breathing as mucopurulent debris accumulates in the upper respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how is bovine herpesvirus-1 prevented?

A

vaccinations, reduce stress, minimize co-mingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the treatment used for bovine herpesvirus-1 infections?

A

supportive care - reduce stress, maintain feed/water intake

NSAIDS

no steroids

vaccinate in outbreaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when are bovine herpesvirus-1 infections most common?

A

when large groups of cattle come together - more severe in feedlot cattle

adults serve as reservoirs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what diagnostics are used for bovine herpesvirus-1?

A

virus isolation - IFA, PCR of nasal swabs or conjunctival scrapings, or paired serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the etiology of bovine respiratory syncytial virus?

A

enveloped RNA virus, family paramyxoviridae - very similar to human RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the pathogenesis of bovine respiratory syncytial virus?

A

contact with infected animals/aerosols/fomites

incubation of 3-5 days

bronchitis/alveolitis/interstitial pneumonia

affects epithelial cells from nasal passages to alveoli

epithelial cells fuse to multinucleated cells = syncytia

aggressive invasion, attack, & destruction of tracheal/bronchial to alveolar epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the treatment for bovine respiratory syncytial virus?

A

supportive care to limit inflammatory response in bronchioles & alveoli & to prevent secondary bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how is bovine respiratory syncytial virus prevented?

A

vaccine, IM/SQ/IN - reduces morbidity & mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is bovine respiratory syncytial virus diagnosed?

A

virus ID of nasal secretions, tracheal aspirates, or lung lavage fluid - difficult to isolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when is the best time to try and diagnose bovine respiratory syncytial virus?

A

first 7 days of infection - easier to find virus in the infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with bovine respiratory syncytial virus?

A

fever, dullness, anorexia, tachypnea, ptyalism, discharge, cough, SQ emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is seen on necropsy of an animal with bovine respiratory syncytial virus?

A

acute, interstitial edema & expanded lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the etiology of bovine viral diarrhea virus?

A

enveloped RNA virus, flavivirus - causes immunosuppression & persistent infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what age of animal is affected by bovine viral diarrhea virus?

A

any age can become infected**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the pathogenesis of bovine viral diarrhea virus?

A

co-infection with m. hemolytica, BHV-1, BRSV - exacerbates disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with bovine viral diarrhea virus?

A

mild pneumonia, fever, tachypnea, increased lung sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what diagnostics are used for bovine viral diarrhea virus?

A

IHC, virus isolation, PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how is bovine viral diarrhea virus prevented?

A

vaccination & biosecurity practices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the etiology of parainfluenza-3?

A

enveloped RNA virus, paramyxoviridae - widespread infection in small ruminants & cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what animals are typically affected by parainfluenza-3?

A

mostly young animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the pathogenesis of parainfluenza-3?

A

predisposes the respiratory tract to other agents, inhibits the mucociliary apparatus, & reduces alveolar macrophage function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the clinical signs of parainfluenza-3?

A

subclinical mild symptoms - cough, nasal/ocular discharge, fever, tachypnea, & lung sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what diagnostics are used for parainfluenza-3?

A

virus isolation, rt-PCR - easy to isolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the treatment for parainfluenza-3?

A

supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the prevention for parainfluenza-3?

A

vaccination in cattle

none labelled for sheep/goat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the etiology of bovine coronavirus?

A

enveloped RNA - affects calves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with bovine coronavirus?

A

mild & unnoticed or confounded by other pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what diagnostics used for bovine coronavirus?

A

rt-PCR, & antigen capture enzyme linked immunoassay (ACE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the etiology of malignant catarrhal fever?

A

lymphoproliferative disease due to gamma herpesvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what age of animals are affected by malignant catarrhal fever?

A

over 4 weeks old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the pathogenesis of malignant catarrhal fever?

A

inhalation of aerosolized virus or direct contact

infiltrates the lymphocytes

dysregulation of cytotoxic t-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what diseases must malignant catarrhal fever be differentiated from?

A

BVD, rinderpest, foot & mouth, & blue tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with malignant catarrhal fever?

A

acute inappetence, fever, ocular/nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, & gi lesions

coronitis - hoof/horns may shed, scabs on muzzle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the most common bacteria identified in feedlot cattle?

A

mannheima haemolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the etiology of mannheima haemolytica?

A

gram negative aerobe bacteria - pasteurellaceae family

52
Q

what age of animals are typically affected by mannheima haemolytica?

A

calves - young ruminants

53
Q

what is the pathogenesis of mannheima haemolytica?

A

endotoxin release - typically become infected early in life & carry long term

stress/transport allows for proliferation

54
Q

what are the clinical signs of mannheima haemolytica?

A

severe, lobar necrotizing fibrinous pleuropneumonia - diffuse hemorrhage

dullness, anorexia, cough, thoracic pain, harsh lung sounds, tachypnea, & tachycardia

55
Q

what diagnostics are used for mannheima haemolytica?

A

culture from lungs, ultrasound, radiography, TTA, BAL, swab, thoracocentesis

56
Q

what is the treatment used for mannheima haemolytica?

A

antimicrobials & nsaids

57
Q

how is mannheima haemolytica prevented?

A

vaccination, prophylactic antimicrobials, & minimize stress

58
Q

what is the etiology of pasteurella multocida?

A

gram negative aerobic bacteria, pasteurellaceae family - causes multiple diseases

59
Q

what animals are most commonly affected by pasteurella multocida?

A

calves, young ruminants, dairy cows

60
Q

what is the pathogenesis of pasteurella multocida?

A

shorter and less severe than M. haemolytica

we know very little about the mechanism

endotoxin produced

61
Q

what is seen on necropsy in an animal with pasteurella multocida?

A

plum-colored lung

62
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with pasteurella multocida?

A

fever, tachypnea, dullness, nasal discharge, coughing, & increased lung sounds

63
Q

what are the diagnostics used for pasteurella multocida?

A

culture, ultrasound

64
Q

what is the treatment of pasteurella multocida?

A

longer term therapy of antimicrobials & nsaids

65
Q

how is pasteurella multocida prevented?

A

prevent respiratory insult & viral infections - less stress, immunity

66
Q

what is the etiology of histophilus somni?

A

gram negative aerobe, pasteurellaceae family

67
Q

what is the pathogenesis of histophilus somni?

A

commensal in healthy ruminants - vasculitis & vascular thrombi formation

68
Q

what clinical signs are seen with histophilus somni?

A

depends on the organ system affected

respiratory - fever, tachypnea, nasal discharge, dullness, cough, increased lung sounds

69
Q

what diagnostics are used for histophilus somni?

A

necropsy - abscesses, edema, fibrin, & hemorrhage

difficult to isolate on culture

70
Q

what is the treatment for histophilus somni?

A

antimicrobials

71
Q

what is the prevention for histophilus somni?

A

vaccination

72
Q

what is the major disease that mycoplasma bovis causes?

A

chronic pneumonia

73
Q

what age of animal is typically affected by mycoplasma bovis?

A

young, under 2 years old

74
Q

what is the pathogenesis of mycoplasma bovis?

A

opportunistic infection, exact mechanism unknown, evades immune system

75
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with mycoplasma bovis infections?

A

tachypnea, fever, inappetence, respiratory distress, & can see CNS signs

76
Q

what is seen on necropsy that is supportive of mycoplasma bovis infection?

A

dark red nodules on the lungs

77
Q

how is mycoplasma bovis diagnosed?

A

culture or IHC

78
Q

what is the treatment for mycoplasma bovis infections?

A

tilmicosin

multiple antibiotics labelled to treat

79
Q

how is mycoplasma bovis infection prevented?

A

vaccines - not proven

80
Q

what agent is associated with significant mortality in kids & does?

A

mycoplasma mycoides

81
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with mycoplasma mycoides infections?

A

acute/sub-acute syndrome of high fever, swollen joints, pneumonia

82
Q

what diagnostics are used for mycoplasma mycoides infections?

A

necropsy - isolate organism

83
Q

what is the treatment for mycoplasma mycoides?

A

antimicrobials don’t work - unsuccessful treatment

animals rarely recover

84
Q

how is mycoplasma mycoides infection prevented?

A

don’t bring it into the herd

85
Q

what is the etiology of trueperella pyogenes?

A

gram positive rod-shaped anaerobic bacteria

86
Q

what age of animal is typically affected by trueperella pyogenes?

A

any age

young animals typically get pneumonia

87
Q

what is the pathogenesis of trueperella pyogenes?

A

cytolytic toxin & other virulence factors

88
Q

what are the clinical signs of trueperella pyogenes infections?

A

chronic respiratory disease

89
Q

what are the diagnostics used for trueperella pyogenes?

A

necropsy & culture

90
Q

what is the treatment for trueperella pyogenes infections?

A

prevent primary causes of pneumonia & don’t treat the pathogen

91
Q

what is the etiology of bibersteinia trehalosi?

A

gram negative aerobe, pasteurellaceae family

92
Q

what age of animals are typically affected by bibersteinia trehalosi?

A

young

93
Q

what is the pathogenesis of bibersteinia trehalosi?

A

produces severe leukotoxin

94
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with bibersteinia trehalosi?

A

they typically die before clinical signs are seen

95
Q

what diagnostics are used for bibersteinia trehalosi?

A

culture & PCR

96
Q

what treatment is used for bibersteinia trehalosi?

A

none - they die

97
Q

what prevention is used for bibersteinia trehalosi?

A

vaccines for mannheima haemolytica may be helpful

98
Q

why are chlamydial agents such a problem?

A

there are so many, and they infect the animal early in life where they become chronic carriers

99
Q

what are some other names for interstitial pneumonias?

A

bovine pulmonary emphysema, atypical interstitial pneumonia (AIP), fog fever, pulmonary adenomatosis, farmer’s lung, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

100
Q

what is acute interstitial pneumonia?

A

any respiratory condition characterized by a sudden onset of dyspnea, typically severe, with gross and histopathologic findings consistent with AIP

101
Q

what is seen on necropsy of an animal with acute interstitial pneumonia?

A

heavy, firm, textured lungs that don’t collapse

102
Q

what is seen on histopathology of an animal with acute interstitial pneumonia?

A

alveolar hyaline membrane formation, fibrin deposition, interstitial edema

103
Q

what animals are commonly affected by acute bovine pulmonary edema?

A

cows changed from dry, sparse forage to lush green pastures

typically over 2 years old

104
Q

what is the pathogenesis of acute bovine pulmonary edema? what plants is it seen with?

A

cell damage, degeneration, necrosis

alfalfa, rape, kale, turnip top

105
Q

what are the clinical signs seen with acute bovine pulmonary edema?

A

dyspnea, expiratory grunt, frothing at mouth, mouth breathing, head and neck extension – drastically improve after 3 days if survive

106
Q

what is seen on necropsy of an animal with acute bovine pulmonary edema?

A

ecchymoses or petechial hemorrhage, congestion, edema

107
Q

what is seen on histopathology of an animal with acute bovine pulmonary edema?

A

eosinophilic hyaline membrane, history of lush green pasture

108
Q

what is the treatment for acute bovine pulmonary edema?

A

stress can exacerbate, antihistamines, corticosteroids

109
Q

how is acute bovine pulmonary edema prevented?

A

management strategies

110
Q

what is the etiology of feedlot acute interstitial pneumonia?

A

unknown - likely multifactorial

111
Q

what clinical signs are seen in feedlot acute interstitial pneumonia?

A

dead in pen, dyspnea, tachypnea, open mouth breathing, cyanosis, SQ emphysema

112
Q

what is found on necropsy in an animal with feedlot acute interstitial pneumonia?

A

identical to acute bovine pulmonary edema - dark & light-colored lobules

113
Q

how is feedlot acute interstitial pneumonia diagnosed?

A

histopathologic evaluation is definitive

114
Q

what is the treatment for feedlot acute interstitial pneumonia?

A

supportive - nsaids, antimicrobials, & diuretics

115
Q

what is the etiology of 4-ipomeanol (moldy sweet potato toxicity)?

A

infestation of toxin in response to infestation with fusarium solani (fungi)

116
Q

what age of animals are affected by 4-ipomeanol toxicity?

A

nursing cows unaffected even if the cow is affected

117
Q

what is the pathogenesis of 4-ipomeanol toxicity?

A

toxin is absorbed in rumen & travels to the lungs in the blood

118
Q

what are the clinical signs of 4-ipomeanol toxicity?

A

acute tachypnea, tachycardia, hyperpnea, dyspnea, expiratory grunting, frothing at the mouth, head/neck extension, cough, harsh lung sounds

119
Q

how is 4-ipomeanol toxicity diagnosed?

A

based on the history of finding sweet potatoes in the feed, clinical signs

120
Q

what is seen on necropsy of an animal that died from 4-ipomeanol toxicity?

A

lungs are firm, wet, fail to collapse, hemorrhage, yellow gelatinous edema

121
Q

what is the treatment for 4-ipomeanol toxicity?

A

nothing specific - similar to acute bovine pulmonary edema

diuretics, nsaids, & antimicrobials

122
Q

what is the prognosis of 4-ipomeanol toxicity?

A

grave if severe case

123
Q

how is 4-ipomeanol toxicity prevented?

A

don’t feed mold-damaged sweet potatoes

124
Q

An 18 month old beef steer is presented for evaluation of severe cough that has
persisted after 2 treatments for pneumonia. Physical examination leads you to a diagnosis of calf
diphtheria. What is the best treatment strategy?

A) sinocentesis and antibiotic impregnated bead placement
B) systemic antibiotics and NSAID therapy
C) tracheal lavage with 3 liters of sterile saline for 5
consecutive days
D) sedated abscess drainage
E) tracheal stent placement via endoscopy

A

B) systemic antibiotics and NSAID therapy

125
Q

A 5 year old horned bull presents with a
slight head tilt, copious mucopurulent
nasal discharge, and halitosis. Which of
the following is an appropriate
diagnostic and treatment plan for this
bull?

A) endoscopy with a one time local infusion of
oxytetracycline
B) radiographs to determine affected sinus(es)
trephination and lavage
C) no diagnostics needed, dehorn the bull and let
the flies clean up the infection
D) percuss the sinuses, use the nasolacrimal duct to
lavage Nal into the affected sinus
E) None of the above

A

B) radiographs to determine affected sinus(es) trephination and lavage