Exam 2 - Introduction to Food Animal Respiratory Disease Flashcards
1
Q
what animals are predisposed to developing mycotic or bacterial granulomas?
A
no age, breed, or seasonal predilections - cases appear sporadically
2
Q
what is the pathogenesis of mycotic/bacterial granulomas?
A
inoculation of eroded nasal mucosa with fungal spores or filamentous bacteria from the environment
3
Q
what are some common differentials for mycotic/bacterial granuloma?
A
allergic rhinitis
foreign bodies
tumors
nasal actinobacillosis
oestrus ovis - small ruminants
4
Q
what is the prevention for mycotic/bacterial granulomas?
A
there is none - animals breath in things from the dirt
5
Q
what may accentuate clinical signs associated with mycotic/bacterial granulomas?
A
heat & dust in the environment
6
Q
what is the treatment for mycotic/bacterial granulomas?
A
surgical excision & long term sodium iodine therapy
7
Q
what is the prognosis of mycotic/bacterial granulomas?
A
decent to good
8
Q
what do mycotic/bacterial granulomas look like?
A
single to multiple, unilateral
anywhere in the nasal cavity
yellow/green, red, nodules or polyps
9
Q
how are mycotic/bacterial granulomas diagnosed?
A
endoscopy, biopsy, culture
10
Q
what do mycotic/bacterial granulomas look like on histopath?
A
granulation tissues with eosinophils, mononuclear cells, sporangia, +/- hyphae, +/- filamentous bacteria
11
Q
what are the clinical signs associated with mycotic/bacterial granulomas?
A
stridor, dyspnea, mucopurulent nasal discharge, epistaxis, rubbing nose, reduced airflow & open mouth breathing in advanced cases
12
Q
what breed/age of cows are predisposed to allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
channel island & friesians - familial association reported
6 months to 2 years old
13
Q
what animals are typically affected by allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
cattle & possible sheep
14
Q
what is usually the inciting antigen of allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
fungal spore
or plant pollen
15
Q
what is the pathogenesis of allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
inciting antigen of pollen or fungal spore - homocytotropic antibody develops & re-exposure causes localized, ongoing type 1 hypersensitivity
16
Q
what happens with chronic allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas? what is it indicative of?
A
hyperplasia, metaplasia, mucosal hypersecretion, & granulomatous inflammation of nasolacrimal tissues
type IV hypersensitivity reaction
17
Q
what type of year will you see more problems with allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
warm, moist conditions
18
Q
how is allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas diagnosed?
A
eosinophil counts in nasal secretions correlate with susceptibility of the animal & activity of the disease
use endoscopy, biopsy, cultures, antigen detection (viruses, bacteria, fungi), & serology to rule out
19
Q
what is the end stage clinical sign associated with allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
enzootic granulomas diffusely disseminated in the nasal cavity - constant clinical signs that get worse with warm/moist seasons
20
Q
what are the clinical signs associated with allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
sneezing, nasal pruritus, acute dyspnea, stertorous inspiration, profuse nasal discharge, head shaking, & facial swelling
21
Q
what are the clinical signs of severe cases of allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
tachypnea, hyperpnea, nasal mucosal ulceration, & may result in foreign bodies from so much face rubbing
22
Q
what do the granulomas look like in enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
multiple, firm, white, raised nodules, 1-2mm in diameter
23
Q
what is the major differential to consider for allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
fungal granulomas
24
Q
other than fungal granulomas, what other differentials should be considered for allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
A
foreign bodies, respiratory viruses, actinomycosis/actinobacillosis, tumors, o. ovis in small ruminants, or chemical irritants
25
what is the prevention for allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
unknown - don't expose the animal to potential allergens
26
what is the treatment for allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
remove the animal from the allergen, block hypersensitivity reaction, antihistamines, & steroids (daily anti-inflammatory doses)
27
what is the impact on production when treating an animal with steroids for allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas?
decreases milk production & potentially induces abortion or parturition
28
what food animals are more commonly affected by nasal foreign bodies between cattle & small ruminants?
cattle
29
what is the pathogenesis of nasal foreign bodies?
scratching from irritation of other disease processes or due to bovine aggressive eating habits
30
what is the prognosis for nasal foreign bodies?
typically good
31
what is the treatment for nasal foreign bodies?
remove the foreign body & secondary wound care
32
what are the diagnostics used for nasal foreign bodies?
visual exam of the nasal cavities with a good light source +/- endoscopy for removal
33
what are some differentials to consider for nasal foreign bodies?
fungal granuloma, allergic rhinitis, tumors, nasal actinomycosis, actinobacillosis, & o. ovis in small ruminants
34
what are the clinical signs of nasal foreign bodies?
head shaking, sneezing, snorting, frequent nose licking, unilateral airflow obstruction, foul odors, & serous/mucopurulent/hemorrhagic discharge
35
what is the pathogenesis of nasal trauma/fractures?
trauma to facial/sinus/turbinate bones due to fighting, inappropriate restraint, machinery accidents, malicious humans, & passive of excessively large NG tubes
36
what are the clinical signs of nasal trauma/fractures?
severe facial swelling, SQ emphysema, airflow obstruction, stertor, epistaxis
secondary infection resulting in foul odors & mucopurulent nasal discharge
37
what are some differentials to consider for nasal trauma/fractures?
snakebite - head swelling & stertor
actinobacillosis, actinomycosis, & phlegmon (fusobacterium & clostridium spp.)
38
how is nasal trauma/fractures diagnosed?
radiographs to confirm & determine extent of injury
39
what is the treatment used for nasal trauma/fractures?
antibiotics - penicillin, to prevent infection/sinusitis
anti-inflammatories
surgery for removal of sequestra of depression fractures that obstruct airflow
40
what is the prognosis for nasal trauma/fractures?
typically good
41
how is nasal trauma/fractures prevented?
minimize fighting, appropriate restraint, careful with machinery, & use orogastric tubes or appropriately sized NG tubes
42
what age of animal is typically affected by tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity?
6-9 year old animals
43
what are the most commonly reported tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity?
osteomas, osteosarcomas, SCC, neuroblastomas, adenocarcinomas (ethmoid mucosa)
44
what is the pathogenesis of tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity?
ethmoid carcinomas suspected to have a viral component due to the endemic pattern of some cases - typically unilateral, metastasis to lymph nodes & lungs can occur
45
what are the clinical signs of tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity?
mixed/inspiratory dyspnea, stridor, nasal discharge, epistaxis, foul breath odors, unilateral airflow obstruction, open-mouth breathing, & facial bone distortion
46
what are some differentials for tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity?
fungal granulomas, atopic granulomas, foreign bodies, sinusitis, fractures, & nasal actinobacillosis/actinomycosis
47
what are the diagnostics used for tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity?
imaging & biopsy to determine extent & type & rule out differentials
48
what is the treatment for tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity?
typically not pursued
49
what is the breed/sex predilection of tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants?
no breed or sex predilection - typically young adults
50
what is the pathogenesis of tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants?
lesions typically start as small nodules that become benign, locally expansive tumors that enter the sinuses & erode overlying bone - necrosis & secondary infections may occur leading to associated clinical signs
51
what are the most common tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants?
adenopapillomas, adenomas, & adenocarcinomas
52
enzootic nasal adenocarcinoma occurring in sheep & goats is associated with what?
ovine & caprine nasal adenocarcinoma virus
53
what is the treatment for tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants?
surgical management is an option
54
what are some differentials for tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants?
nasal fungal/bacterial granuloma, actinobacillosis, actinomycosis, o. ovis, & sinusitis
55
what diagnostics are used for tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants?
endoscopy & radiology used to establish diagnosis of nasal mass - antemortem punch biopsy/exfoliative cytology usually non-diagnostic
56
why is PCR used in tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants?
differentiate ovine nasal adenocarcinoma virus, caprine nasal adenocarcinoma, & jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus
57
multiple animals in a herd affected with clinical signs of tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants is supportive of what disease process?
enzootic nasal adenocarcinoma
58
what are the clinical signs of tumors/polyps of the nasal cavity of small ruminants?
progressive inspiratory dyspnea, stridor, exercise intolerance, mouth breathing, mucoid/mucopurulent nasal discharge, tachypnea, decreased airflow, facial asymmetry
59
what is the etiology of oestrus ovis?
parasite of the nasal passages & sinuses of sheep (way more than goats because they are kind of resistant)
typically in warmer climates
60
what is the pathogenesis of oestrus ovis?
larvae cause direct irritation to the nasal passages & sinuses leading to secondary bacterial rhinitis, sinusitis, +/- pneumonia - occasionally interstitial pneumonia due to parasitic antigens & inflammatory mediators
61
what is the pathogenic stage of oestrus ovis?
larval stage
62
what is the life cycle of oestrus ovis?
1. 1st instar larvae deposited near nostrils by adult female fly
2. larvae migrate to nasal & ethmoid turbinates
3. larvae molt to 2nd instar that migrate to the sinuses
4. molt again to become 3rd instar (yellow-white color with dark dorsal stripe) that return to the nasal passage
5. sneezed onto the ground where they pupate & develop to adult flies
6. adults are active during warm months
7. over winter as 1st instar larva in host or pupa in the ground
63
how is oestrus ovis infestation prevented?
treat animals after the 1st hard freeze because adult flies will be killed & 1st instar larva will die
component of herd management & strategic deworming practices
64
what is the treatment for oestrus ovis?
ivermectin by mouth after the first hard freeze
65
what diagnostics are used for oestrus ovis?
presumptive based on common clinical signs/physical exam, larvae in radiographs, or endoscopy
66
what are some differentials for oestrus ovis?
nasal foreign body, allergic rhinitis, nasal adenocarcinoma, fungal rhinitis, trauma, sinusitis, actinobacillosis, or actinomycosis
67
what are the clinical signs associated with oestrus ovis?
mucoid/mucopurulent nasal discharge, sneezing, nose rubbing, inspiratory stridor, facial annoyance from adult flies, decreased productivity from reduced grazing, sinusitis, & pneumonia may occur
68
what age of animal is typically affected by cystic nasal turbinates of cattle?
neonates
69
what is the pathogenesis of cystic nasal turbinates of cattle?
congenital, development anomaly - nasal conchae lack normal communication with the nasal cavity & then become filled with thick, white fluid
70
what are the clinical signs of cystic nasal turbinates in cattle?
evident at/near birth, progressive stridor, tachypnea, decreased airflow, exercise intolerance, mouth breathing, & short convex nasal bones
71
what are some differentials for cystic nasal turbinates in cattle?
foreign bodies, trauma, & tumors
72
what diagnostics are used for cystic nasal turbinates in cattle?
digital palpation, radiographs, & endoscopy
73
what would be seen on endoscopy in cystic nasal turbinates in cattle?
large, smooth, bilateral cystic ventral conchae
74
what is the treatment for cystic nasal turbinates in cattle?
surgical removal of the conchae, bilateral dorsolateral nasal bone flaps
trans-nasal removal with obstetric wire
75
of our food animals, which are most commonly affected by sinusitis between cattle, sheep, & goats?
cattle - inflammation of the paranasal sinuses
76
what sinuses are typically affected in sinusitis?
frontal or maxillary
77
what are the most common causes of sinusitis?
dehorning or trauma - frontal sinuses
infected teeth - maxillary sinuses
any age affected
78
what are the acute clinical signs of sinusitis?
typically one sinus affected, anorexia, lethargy, reluctance to move, fever, & purulent discharge at fresh dehorn site
79
what are the chronic clinical signs of sinusitis?
unilateral or bilateral nasal discharge, mild stridor, airflow abnormalities, foul breath, abnormal head carriage, blepharospasm, frontal bone distortion, exophthalmos, & potential neuro signs
80
what clinical signs are associated with sinusitis in the maxillary sinus?
unilateral facial swelling, mucopurulent discharge, septal deviation observable on radiographs
81
what diagnostics are used for sinusitis?
clinical signs typically enough
percuss the sinus - dull, full sound with potential pain, gas in the sinus due to thin bone may cause a hyper-resonant sound
rads - septal deviation in maxillary sinus, fractures, masses, dental disease
sinus centesis - close skin unless sinusitis confirmed
82
what is the treatment for sinusitis?
trephination for sinusotomy if frontal sinusitis post dehorning - surgical prep & entry into sinus, sites remain open to drain
maxillary sinus - trephine over affected tooth roots
chronic cases - two sites needed ingress & egress of lavage
remove affected teeth
lavage daily - betadine preferred
83
why is sinusitis harder to treat in small ruminants?
sinuses are highly compartmentalized in adult/mature animals, so achieving drainage may be difficult
84
how is sinusitis prevented?
dehorn as a neonate using a closed method - cautery/hot iron
adult dehorn - aseptic surgical procedure with primary closure of skin
don't dehorn when raining, windy, dusty, or without fly control
85
what are the cons of dehorning mature sheep & goats?
can leave significant wounds that have to heal by secondary intention - may take 4-6 weeks to heal or may never fully heal
dehorn them early in life
86
what agents are typically involved in pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas?
t. pyogenes, actinobacillus spp., & fusobacterium necrophorum
87
what are some differentials for pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas?
pharyngeal tumors, lymphosarcoma, rabies, botulism, & necrotic laryngitis
88
what is the pathogenesis of pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas?
hematoma or wound commonly results in abscess formation & diffuse cellulitis may occur
89
what is the etiology of pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas?
careless/aggressive use of balling guns, dose syringes, calcium preparations, specula, & stomach tubes
rough, stemmy feeds, foreign bodies, & migrating foreign objects
90
what clinical signs are seen in severe cases of pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas?
fever, anorexia, depression, dehydration, forestomach stasis, & aspiration pneumonia
91
what clinical signs are associated with pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas?
inspiratory dyspnea with stertorous inspiratory sounds with prolonged inspiration
extension of the head & neck, ptyalism, pain when swallowing
nasal regurgitation - pharyngeal paresis
mucopurulent/bloody bilateral nasal discharge, bad odors, cough, bloat, & visible swelling of the pharynx
possible megaesophagus due to pharyngeal trauma
92
what diagnostics are used for pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas?
physical/oral speculum exam with light source typically confirmative of swelling & often reveals puncture wound & draining pus
endoscopy/rads
aspiration - differentiate abscess, granuloma, hematoma, cellulitis, or tumor
CBC
93
what is the treatment for pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas?
small abscesses - drained in standing un-sedated but well restrained animal with head lowered to facilitate draining & protect cough reflex
antibiotics
NSAIDS
severe disease - may require tracheostomy
94
how is pharyngeal trauma, hematoma, abscesses, cellulitis, & granulomas prevented?
limit aggressive/careless use of balling guns/dose syringes/calcium preparations/specula
non-stemmy foods
magnets placed to reduce metallic foreign bodies
95
what is the etiology of necrotic laryngitis?
acute to chronic infection of laryngeal mucosa & cartilage typically in feedlot cattle
96
what is the pathogenesis of necrotic laryngitis?
laryngeal contact ulcers allow fusobacterium necrophorum (ubiquitous in the environment) to penetrate mucus membranes
97
what are the 3 ways that contact ulcers occur in necrotic laryngitis?
1. acute upper respiratory tract infection
2. increased reflex coughing & swallowing (increase laryngeal contact)
3. erosion of swollen membranes of vocal processes & medial angles of arytenoid cartilages
98
what age of cattle are typically affected by necrotic laryngitis?
calves 3-18 months old, up to 24 months old
99
what clinical sign is almost pathognomic for necrotic laryngitis?
goose honking cough
100
what is seen on laryngoscopic exam of a necrotic laryngitis?
diphtheritic membrane
101
what are some differentials for necrotic laryngitis?
pharyngeal/laryngeal trauma, severe viral laryngitis, actinobacillosis, laryngeal tumors, paralysis, abscesses, & edema
102
what are the clinical signs associated with necrotic laryngitis?
acute, moist, painful cough, ptyalism, extended head & neck, systemic disease
reportedly dead within 2-7 days if untreated
103
when diagnosing necrotic laryngitis, what should you avoid?
don't stress the animal out - could kill the patient
104
what diagnostics are used for necrotic laryngitis?
clinical signs, laryngoscopic/endoscopic exam
CBC - shows chronicity of disease & severity of septic process
105
what is the prognosis for necrotic laryngitis?
typically rewarding if detected & treated early
106
what is the prevention for necrotic laryngitis?
control other respiratory infections & prevent laryngeal trauma
107
what is the treatment used for necrotic laryngitis?
antibiotics - oxytetracycline, PPG, macrolides
NSAIDS or steroids - don't give steroids beyond 2 doses
tracheostomy may be required in severe cases
108
what animals are most commonly affected by laryngeal abscesses?
calves & sheep
rams > ewes
109
what is the pathogenesis of laryngeal abscesses?
t. pyogenes abscessation of the arytenoid cartilages
suspect grass awns, trauma, inherited condition, or developmental abnormality causes or predisposes to abscess formation
110
what clinical signs are seen with laryngeal abscesses?
tachypnea, head & neck extension to ease breathing, progressive dyspnea, cyanosis, & severe stertor
111
what diagnostics are used for laryngeal abscesses?
rads - soft tissue swelling of the larynx
endoscopy - hyperemic mucosa & edema
necropsy - purulent & necrotic material of arytenoid cartilage
112
what is the treatment for laryngeal abscesses?
PPG
nsaids
tracheostomy
113
what is the prognosis for laryngeal abscesses?
guarded - except when treated early & aggressively
114
what is the pathogenesis of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
unknown
115
what are the two recognized forms of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
acute dyspnea & chronic cough
116
what are the possible causes of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
upper respiratory pathogens - p. multocida, h. somni, & viruses
trauma, passive congestion from excess fat accumulation in thoracic inlet, mycotoxins, & hypersensitivity reactions
117
what animals are affected by the acute form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
feedlot cattle, acute form - heavy cattle last 2/3 of feeding period in southern planes, sporadically typically in the summer months
118
what are the clinical signs of the acute form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
acute death without observable signs
dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, loud guttural breathing, open mouth breathing, cyanosis
recumbency -> asphyxiation
119
what are the diagnostics used for the acute form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
endoscopy or necropsy - up to 5cm thick edematous thickening of the submucosa & mucosa of the dorsal trachea at the level of mid-cervical to thoracic inlet
mucosal/submucosal/peritracheal edema/hemorrhage (agonal component)
120
what is the treatment used for the acute form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
steroids, nursing care, & potential tracheostomy
antibiotics - controversial
121
what animals are affected by the chronic form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
feedlot cattle, chronic form in light weight cattle (300-900 lbs), in western plains feedlots
sporadic, non-seasonal
typically have a history of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis or pneumonia
122
what are the clinical signs of the chronic form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
continuous frequent deep non-productive cough - typically normal appearance but can be unthrifty
123
what are some differentials for the chronic form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
necrotic laryngitis or mild pneumonia
124
what is the treatment for the chronic form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
no effective treatment known
125
how is the chronic form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle prevented?
none known because we don't know the etiology
126
what diagnostics are used for the chronic form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
endoscopy & necropsy - hyperemia of mucosa of caudal 3rd of the trachea, thin layer of mucopurulent exudate
cobblestone appearance, large fiber-like projections & polyps noted
127
what is the treatment & prevention for the chronic form of tracheal edema syndrome of feedlot cattle?
no effective treatment & no prevention because we don't know the etiology
128
T/F: the dorsal displacement of the soft palate has similar clinical signs, diagnosis, & treatment in both food animals & horses
true
129
what animals are affected by tracheal collapse & stenosis in texel-cross lambs?
texel-cross lambs associated with inherited chondrodysplasia
130
what is the pathogenesis of tracheal collapse & stenosis in texel-cross lambs?
can appear normal at birth & up to 1 week after
lambs - exercise intolerance early in life & is potentially fatal
lambs born to ewes that eat veratrum californicum days 31-33 of gestation can cause stenosis
131
what is the treatment & prevention for tracheal collapse & stenosis in texel-cross lambs?
no successful treatment
don't breed affected individuals
132
how is tracheal collapse & stenosis in texel-cross lambs diagnosed?
hemogram reflective of associated pneumonia/stress
endoscopy & rads most useful
133
what can be seen on necropsy of an animal with tracheal collapse & stenosis in texel-cross lambs?
often flaccid & flattened trachea with sometimes irregularly kinked segments
diffuse pulmonary edema & congestion
multiple other organs affected
134
what are the clinical signs associated with tracheal collapse & stenosis in texel-cross lambs?
fatal respiratory compromise - may see stunted/delayed growth
135
T/F: c. veratrum ingestion lambs die within 5 minutes after birth because of respiratory distress
true
136
what animals are typically affected by tracheal collapse & stenosis?
cattle, lambs, & goats
typically calves & adult goats
137
what is the pathogenesis of tracheal collapse & stenosis?
unknown - may result from dystocia (breech/chest compressions), congenital defects, tracheotomies, et cuff injury
dorsoventral flattening or caudal cervical/cranial cervical thoracic trachea & sometimes lateral compression
138
what are the clinical signs of tracheal collapse & stenosis?
fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, hyperemia, cyanosis, or completely normal
stertor, dyspnea, coughing, & traumatic lesions
no response to antibiotics, nsaids, or steroids
139
what are some differentials for tracheal collapse & stenosis?
tracheal foreign bodies, neoplasia, extra-tracheal space-occupying lesions, & necrotic laryngitis
140
what are the best diagnostics to use for tracheal collapse & stenosis?
endoscopy & rads - avoid respiratory embarrassment with restraint, sedation, & passage of the endoscope
hemogram reflective of associated pneumonia/stress
141
what is the treatment for tracheal collapse & stenosis?
mild cases recover with confinement & finished for slaughter
surgical correction reported in other species with 30% success rate
142
what is the prevention for tracheal collapse & stenosis?
don't breed affected individuals or cause etiologies
143
what is the pathogenesis of laryngeal obstructions?
sporadic - foreign bodies, roping injury, restraint events, inappropriate et tube placement, noxious chemical exposure, anaphylactic event
144
what are the clinical signs associated with laryngeal obstructions?
swelling on palpation of the larynx, dyspnea, open mouth breathing, stertor, ptyalism, cyanosis, & head/neck extension
145
what diagnostics are used for laryngeal obstructions?
endoscopy & rads
cbc - infection or stress leukogram
146
what is the treatment for laryngeal obstructions?
remove the foreign object +/- surgery to correct defect
nsaids for swelling/edema
corticosteroids for anaphylaxis
147
what 7 disease processes are discussed for upper respiratory diseases in ruminants?
1. granulomas
2. allergic rhinitis & enzootic nasal granulomas
3. nasal foreign body
4. nasal trauma/fractures
5. tumors & polyps
6. oestrus ovis
7. cystic nasal turbinates of cattle
148
what is shown here?
ovine/sheep bot
oestrus ovis
