Cortez - Final review Flashcards

1
Q

Baroreceptors what do they control?

A

Pressure change

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2
Q

Chemoreceptors what do they detect?

A

change in chemical

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3
Q

Nociceptors

A

are specialized sensory nerve endings that detect signals related to pain.

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4
Q

are specialized sensory receptors that detect your body’s position, movement, and balance — even without looking.

A

Proprioceptors

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5
Q

Total lung capacity adults?

A

6L, 3L per lung

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6
Q

Tidal volume?

A

Amount exhaled and inhaled

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7
Q

Hepatitis

A

inflammation of the liver

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8
Q

minute volume

A

amount of air inhaled and exhaled in 1 min

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9
Q

external breathing

A

gas exchange between atmosphere and blood

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10
Q

internal breathing

A

cellular level

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11
Q

Anticonvulsants (9) examples

A
  1. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) –
    1. Phenytoin (Dilantin) –
    2. Valproic acid (Depakene) / Divalproex (Depakote) –
    3. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) –
    4. Levetiracetam (Keppra)
    5. Topiramate (Topamax) –
    6. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
    7. Phenobarbital – older med,
    8. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
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12
Q

neuroglia

A

(mitosis) nourish, repair,

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13
Q

rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

is an organelle found in eukaryotic cells and plays a key role in protein synthesis and processing.

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14
Q

how do you size a King LT

A

pt height

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15
Q

how do you size a I gel

A

pt weight

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16
Q

brain tissue dies due to hypoxia after how much time

A

4-6min

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17
Q

Astrocytes

A

Responsible for..

1-Maintain the Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)
2-Regulate the Chemical Environment
3-Nourish Neurons:

are a type of neuroglia (glial cell) found in the central nervous system (CNS).

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18
Q

viral meningitis recovery timeline?

A

7-10 days

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19
Q

What type of muscle are cardiac cells?

A

striated

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20
Q

Diffuse anoxic cerebral injury

A

refers to widespread brain damage caused by a complete lack of oxygen (anoxia) to the brain. It’s a severe and often irreversible form of hypoxic-ischemic brain injury.

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21
Q

Atelectasis

A

Collapsing of aveoli due to surfactant is disrupted or becomes unevenly distributed.

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22
Q

Melanocytes

A

specialized cells in the skin that produce melanin, the pigment responsible for:

Skin color
Hair color
Eye color
And protection against UV radiation

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23
Q

Kyphosis

A

is a spinal deformity characterized by an exaggerated forward rounding of the thoracic spine (upper back). It’s often described as a “humpback” or “roundback” appearance

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24
Q

Scoliosis

A

Definition: Lateral (side-to-side) curvature of the spine, often with rotation

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25
Q

Nicotinic effects

A

This stimulates the postganglionic neuron, which then releases norepinephrine (NE) or epinephrine (EPI) at the target organ.

Organophosphate poisioning

M - Mydriasis
T - Tachycardia
W - Weakness
H - Hypertension
F- Fasciculations - muscle twiches

In the ganglia, where the preganglionic neuron synapses with the postganglionic neuron, acetylcholine (ACh) binds to nicotinic receptors.

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26
Q

Muscarinic receptors

A

activated by acetylcholine (ACh).

When overstimulated — like in organophosphate poisoning (which prevents ACh breakdown) — we see a classic parasympathetic overreaction,

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27
Q

Epistaxis

A

Nose bleed

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28
Q

Nystagmus

A

is the medical term for involuntary, repetitive eye movements, which can be side-to-side (horizontal), up-and-down (vertical), or rotary (circular)

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29
Q

The Bends

A

is a common term for decompression sickness, a condition that occurs when dissolved gases (mostly nitrogen) come out of solution and form bubbles in the body during or after a rapid decrease in pressure

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30
Q

Ataxia

A

is a neurological condition characterized by a lack of muscle coordination that affects voluntary movements

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31
Q

Nitrogen narcosis

A

is a reversible alteration in consciousness that occurs when divers breathe nitrogen at high pressures, typically at depths below 30 meters (100 feet).

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32
Q

The pneumotaxic center (Upper pons)

A

the rate and pattern of respiration, Helps prevent lungs from over-inflating

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33
Q

Apneustic center (Lower Pons)

A

it plays a key role in controlling the depth and duration of breathing — especially inhalation

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34
Q

Hypercapnia

A

(also called hypercarbia) refers to an abnormally high level of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the blood, usually due to inadequate ventilation

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35
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

is a general term used to describe the thickening, hardening, and loss of elasticity of the arterial walls.

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36
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

is a specific type of arteriosclerosis where fatty deposits (plaques) build up on the inner walls of arteries, leading to narrowing and stiffening of those arteries

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37
Q

HPA axis

A

| P = Pituitary gland → “Master gland” that signals the adrenal gland

| A = Adrenal glands → Sit on top of kidneys; produce stress hormones

H = Hypothalamus → Brain region that initiates the response

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38
Q

QRS should not exceed?

A

0.12 sec

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39
Q

PRI should not exceed ?

A

0.2sec

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40
Q

Functional unit of the kidney

A

Nephron

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41
Q

Peds BVM size

A

150-240cc

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42
Q

Approx adult bladder size

A

700-800ml

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43
Q

Hepatocytes

A

are the primary functional cells of the liver, making up about 80% of the liver’s mass.

They perform most of the liver’s essential functions, including detoxification, metabolism, storage, and bile production

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44
Q

The renal hilus (also called the renal hilum)

A

Where important structures enter and exit the kidney.

Renal Vein
Renal Artery
aorta
Ureter
Lymphatic vessels & nerves

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45
Q

Cardiac output equation

A

CO=SVxHR

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46
Q

Stroke Volume equation

A

SV=preload-afterload

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47
Q

3 salivary glands

A

1- parotids
2- Submandibular Glands
3-Sublingual Glands

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48
Q

Bulbourethral glands(Cowper’s gland)

A

Are part of the male reproductive system and play an important role in sexual function and fertility.

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49
Q

How do you size a LMA?

A

Pt weight

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50
Q

What is resting potential?

A

-70 mV

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51
Q

What is Depolarization?

A

A stimulus causes sodium (Na⁺) channels to open. Na⁺ rushes into the cell, making the inside more positive.

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52
Q

What is Repolarization?

A

Potassium (K⁺) channels open, K⁺ moves out, and the cell starts to return to a negative state.

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53
Q

What is Threshold potential?

A

-55mV

The threshold potential is the critical voltage level that a membrane must reach to trigger an action potential.

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54
Q

What type of transport is used during action potentials?

A

Active transport

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55
Q

what is required for active transport?

A

ATP

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56
Q

Function of the cerebellum?

A

1.Balance and posture
2.Coordination – Smooths out your movements
3.Fine motor control – Lets you do precise movements
4.Motor learning – Helps you learn new physical skills

Minor role in RR & HR

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57
Q

Function of the Medulla oblongata

A

Controls breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.

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58
Q

Function of the Pons (means bridge)

A

Breathing Regulation
-Works with the medulla oblongata to control the rhythm of breathing.
-the pons helps fine-tune and smooth out breathing patterns.

Relay Messages
-Sends information between the cortex (thinking brain) and cerebellum (movement coordination).
-Essential for movement, posture, and balance coordination.

Sleep and Arousal
-Plays a role in regulating sleep cycles, especially REM sleep.
-Helps you wake up or stay alert.
Facial Sensation and Movement
Houses cranial nerves V–VIII, which are involved in:

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59
Q

Functions of the Medulla Oblongata

A

1-Respiratory Control
-Regulates breathing rate and rhythm.
-Works with the pons to adjust depth and speed of breathing.

2-Cardiovascular Control
-Controls heart rate and blood pressure.
-Adjusts blood vessel diameter (vasodilation/constriction).

3-Reflex Centers

Swallowing
Coughing
Sneezing
Vomiting
Hiccupping

4-Motor and Sensory Pathways
Contains nerve tracts that pass signals between the brain and spinal cord.
Decussation (crossing over) of motor fibers happens here — this is why the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body and vice versa.

5-Cranial Nerve Functions
Several cranial nerves (like IX, X, XI, and XII) arise from or pass through the medulla

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60
Q

Give me 3 examples of Hypovolemic Shock

A

Fluid loss

1-Bleeding
2-Burns
3-Dehydration
4-Metabolic shock (also considered dsitributive)

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61
Q

2 Examples of Cardiogenic Shock

A

1- MI
2-Arrhythmias

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62
Q

4 Examples of Obstructive Shock

A

1-PE
2-Tamponade
3- Pericarditis
4-Tension Pneumothorax

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63
Q

3 examples Distributive Shock

A

1- Sepsis
2- Anaphylaxis
3- Neurogenic

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64
Q

Function of the Diencephalon?

A

Contain two major parts

1. Hypothalamus
Body temperature regulation
Hunger and thirst
Sleep-wake cycles
Hormone control via the pituitary gland
Emotional responses (like fear, anger, pleasure)

2.Thalamus
Sensory Relay
Receives sensory information (except smell)
Example: Touch, pain, temperature, vision, hearing — all go through the thalamus.

Motor Signals Relay
Helps relay motor signals between the cerebellum, basal ganglia, and motor cortex

Consciousness and Alertness

Pain Perception
Processes and relays pain signals to the cortex for interpretation.

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65
Q

Characteristics of the Cerebrum

A

1-Largest part of the brain
2- Contains 4 lobes
-Frontal Voluntary movement (motor control) , Decision-making, Problem-solving, Personality & behavior, Speech production (Broca’s area)
-Parietal Processing touch (pain, temperature, pressure), Body position awareness (proprioception), Understanding spatial relationships
-Temporal - Hearing, Language comprehension (Wernicke’s area),Memory storage, Emotion processing
-Occipital - vision

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66
Q

Can you give me 4 examples of Benzodiazepines?

A
  1. Diazepam- Valium
  2. Lorazepam - Ativan
  3. Alprazolam - Xanax
  4. Midazolam - Versed
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67
Q

how do Benzodiazepines act on the body?

A

Enhancing the effect of GABA (a calming neurotransmitter), helping to reduce anxiety, relax muscles, and promote sleep. They’re CNS depressants

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68
Q

What are Sympathomimetics?

A

Drugs that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system — also known as the “fight or flight” system

Alpha receptors – cause vasoconstriction (raises BP)
Beta-1 receptors – increase heart rate & contractility
Beta-2 receptors – relax bronchioles (open airways)

Epinephrine Cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis
Norepinephrine Shock, hypotension
Albuterol Asthma, bronchospasm
Dopamine Shock, heart failure
Phenylephrine Nasal decongestant, hypotension

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69
Q

Sympathomimetics -Which receptors do they specifically bind to?

A

Mu (μ) – Most pain relief & euphoria, but also slows breathing

Kappa (κ) – Pain relief, some sedation

Delta (δ) – Less understood, may help mood and pain

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69
Q

What are opioids?

A

Drugs that act on the nervous system to relieve pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other parts of the body.

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70
Q

Polysaccharides

A

Long chains of sugar molecules

— specifically, they’re complex carbohydrates made up of many monosaccharides (simple sugars like glucose) linked together.

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71
Q

Monosaccharide

A

Is the simplest form of carbohydrate — it’s a single sugar molecule that serves as a basic building block for more complex sugars like disaccharides and polysaccharides

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72
Q

Via what process of metabolism is Polysaccharides broken down?

A

Catabolism

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73
Q

What is Catabolism?

A

crushes molecules to create energy

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74
Q

What is Anabolism?

A

assembles molecules using energy

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75
Q

What occurs to patients with Multiple Sclerosis?

A

immune system mistakenly attacks the myelin sheath — the protective covering around nerve fibers (axons).

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76
Q

What is Meningitis?

A

Infection & inflammation of the meningeal mebrane

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77
Q

What is the approximate systolic blood pressure at the radial?

A

80

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78
Q

What is the approximate systolic blood pressure at the brachial?

A

70

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79
Q

What is the approximate systolic blood pressure at the carotid pulse point?

A

60

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80
Q

Cranial nerve I

A

Olfactory - Smell

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81
Q

Cranial nerve II

A

Optic - vision

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82
Q

Cranial nerve III

A

Oculomotor - Eye movement, pupil constriction

83
Q

Cranial nerve IV

A

Trochlear - Eye movement

84
Q

Cranial Nerve V

A

Trigeminal - Facial Sensation & chewing

85
Q

Cranial Nerve VI

A

Abducens - Eye movement

86
Q

Cranial Nerve VII

A

Facial - Facial expression, taste, tears saliva

87
Q

Cranial Nerve VIII

A

Vestibuloccochlear(Auditory) - Hearing + Balance

88
Q

Cranial Nerve IX

A

Glossopharyngeal - Taste, swallowing, salivation

89
Q

Cranial Nerve X

A

Vagus - Heart, lungs, digestion:swallowing, voice

90
Q

Cranial Nerve XI

A

Accessory - Shoulder and neck movement

91
Q

Cranial Nerve XII

A

Hypoglossal - Tougue movement

92
Q

Give me 3 examples of TCAs

A

1.Amitriptyline - Elavil
2.Nortriptyline - Pamelor, Aventyl
3. Imipramine - Tofranil

93
Q

What is distinct characteristic of metabolic process of TCAs

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are metabolised 3 times by the liver, resulting in wide QRS complex.

94
Q

In a 4 lead placement which leads are negative and which are positive?

A

Right Arm (RA) – White = Negative

Left Arm (LA) – Black = Positive & Negative

Right Leg (RL) – Green (ground)

Left Leg (LL) – Red = Positive

95
Q

Where is Lead I

A

(RA) – White = Negative -> (LA) – Black = Positive

96
Q

Where is Lead II

A

Right Arm (RA) – White = Negative -> Left Leg (LL) – Red = Positive

97
Q

Where is Lead III

A

Left Arm (LA) – Black = Negative -> Left Leg (LL) – Red = Positive

98
Q

S/S of TCA overdose

A

Eyes->Dilated pupils (mydriasis), blurred vision
Mouth->Dry mouth
Skin ->Flushed, hot, dry skin
GI/Bladder ->Urinary retention, decreased bowel sounds

Tachycardia (fast heart rate) – most common initial sign
Hypotension (low BP)
Prolonged QRS complex on ECG (>100 ms)
Ventricular arrhythmias
Cardiac arrest (in severe cases)

99
Q

4 situations in which you would withhold resuscitation?

A
  1. DRIED
  2. Drowning longer than 90min
  3. DNR Goals of Care
  4. MCI
100
Q

Normal Breathing drive triggered by what?

A

is triggered by high levels of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the blood.

101
Q

COPD breathing drive?

A

Body begins to rely more on low oxygen (O₂) levels to stimulate breathing.

This is called the hypoxic drive.

They often have chronically high CO₂ levels (hypercapnia), so their brain becomes less sensitive to CO₂.

102
Q

How will these following types of shock present?

Hypovolemic Shock (e.g. hemorrhage, dehydration, burns)
Distributive Shock (includes septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic types)
Cardiogenic Shock (e.g. heart attack, arrhythmia)

A

Decreased blood pressure (BP)

Increased heart rate (HR)

Increased respiratory rate (RR)

103
Q

Becks Triad (Cardiac tamponade)

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. JVD
  3. Muffled heart sounds
104
Q

Cushing’s triad(TBI)

A
  1. Increased BP
  2. Decreased HR
  3. Absent or Irregular respirations(Cheyne Stokes)
105
Q

Give me the points associated with LAMS score

A

Facial Droop 0 or 1 0 = Absent, 1 = Present

Arm Drift 0 to 2 0 = Normal, 1 = Drifts down, 2 = Falls rapidly

Grip Strength 0 to 2 0 = Normal, 1 = Weak, 2 = No grip

106
Q

Why do we hyperventilate a patient with cerebral herniation?

A

Cerebral herniation to rapidly lower CO₂, which causes cerebral vasoconstriction, temporarily reducing brain swelling and IC.

107
Q

Normal ICP

108
Q

ICP in head injury

A

10-15 mmHg

109
Q

What is the equation for Cerebral perfusion Pressure

A

CPP=MAP-ICP

110
Q

High grade fever Vs. Low grade fever

A

High grade = Bacterial
Low grade = generally viral/early bacteria

111
Q

Epiglottis vs Croup

A

Epiglottitis “Drooling and dying” – sudden, serious, no cough
Croup “Coughing and croaking” – barking cough, stridor, milder onset

112
Q

Malaria S/S

viral or bacterial?

A

Protozoa (single-celled parasites)

General -> Fever (often cyclical), chills, sweating

Constitutional -> Fatigue, weakness, malaise

GI Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain

Neurological Headache, confusion, dizziness (especially in severe cases)

Musculoskeletal Muscle aches, joint pain

Respiratory Cough, difficulty breathing (in severe cases)

Hematologic Anemia, jaundice (due to red blood cell destruction)

113
Q

Influenza S/S

viral or bacterial

A

Virus

fever, chills, headache, sore throat, cough, GI upset, muscle ache, fatigue

114
Q

Meningitis S/S

viral or bacterial

A

Both viral and bacterial
fever, headache, neck stiffness, confusion,** photophobia, phonophobia**

Kernig’s Sign - lift leg
Brudzinski’s Sign - lifting head

115
Q

Healthy female on birth control C/C of chest pain what should you suspect?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

116
Q

DOPE nemonic

A
  1. Displacement
  2. Obstruction
  3. Pneumothorax
    4.Equipment
117
Q

Analgesia

A

Relief from pain

118
Q

Anesthesia

A

Loss of sensation, may include loss of consciousness Used in surgeries to block all sensation, possibly render unconscious

119
Q

Amnesia

A

Loss of memory (partial or complete) Often a side effect or intended effect of sedatives or anesthesia

120
Q

Hypoglycaemia , fast or slow onset?

121
Q

Hyperglycaemia, fast or slow onset?

122
Q

Empathy

A
  • The ability to identify and understand another person’s feelings, ideas, and circumstances.
123
Q

Sympathy

A
  • Sharing the feelings of others (especially feelings of sorrow or anguish)
124
Q

Imminent Delivery Criteria(5)

A
  • Contractions 2-4 min
  • Crowning
  • Perineal bulge
  • Urge to bare down
  • Mom says so
125
Q

Obsetrics - 4 M’s

A

Meconium
Medication
Multipara
Maturity

126
Q

ECGs bigeminy

A

Every other beat is a PVC

127
Q

ECGs Trigeminy

A

Every third beat is a PVC

128
Q

ECGs Couplets

A

Two PVCs in a row

129
Q

ECGs Salvo

A

Three or more PVCs in a row (short VT run)

130
Q

ECGs PRI should not exceed?

A

0.2 secs = 5 mini squares of .04secs

131
Q

ECGs QRS should not exceed?

132
Q

ECGs P wave is caused by what?

A

DEPOLARIZATION of the atria

133
Q

ECGs QRS is caused by what?

A

DEPOLARIZATION of the ventricles

134
Q

ECGs ST is caused by what?

A

Ventricular REPOLARIZATION

135
Q

Inverted T wave represents?

136
Q

Depressed T wave represents?

137
Q

Elevated T wave represents?

A

Infarction

138
Q

Definitions - Sagittal

A

a plane that divides the body into
unequal portions

139
Q

Definitions - Frontal

A

The front half of an object

140
Q

Definitions - Tranverse

A

a line that divides an object into halves (up and down)

141
Q

Solvent

A

something that has something else dissolved in it

Substances that does the dissolving

142
Q

Solute

A

substance dissolved in a solution

143
Q

96% of the human body is made of what 4 elements

A

Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon, and Nitrogen

144
Q

A major branch of the left coronary artery (LCA).Runs down the front (anterior) of the heart between the left and right ventricles in the interventricular groove

Often coined as the “widow maker”

A

LAD (Left Anterior Descending Artery)

145
Q

Alberta Colleges of Paramedics what do they do?

A

registration, examination, competency, continuing education

146
Q

Preload

A

Preload is the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole (filling phase).

147
Q

Afterload

A

The resistance the heart must overcome to eject blood during systole (contraction)

148
Q

What is GAS?

A

General Adaptation Syndrome

3 phases
1. Alarm SNS releases Epi and NE
2. Resistance Release cortisol
3. Exhaustion - eventually catabolism leads to failure of body system -> death

149
Q

Contraindication for BIAD

A

Airway burns
ingestion of caustic substances
esophageal varices

150
Q

Diffuse anoxic injury

A

= brain injury caused by complete or near-complete absence of oxygen (anoxia) to the entire brain, typically lasting more than a few minutes.

151
Q

Epidural Hematoma

A

Most commonly from a skull fracture that tears the middle meningeal artery.

Leads to arterial bleeding, which accumulates rapidly.

152
Q

subdural hematoma

A

is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater (two layers of the meninges surrounding the brain). It’s usually due to venous bleeding and can be acute or chronic depending on the speed of onset

153
Q

BVM no reservoir or supplied O2, how much O2 is being delivered

154
Q

BVM with with reservoir no supplied O2, how much O2 is being supplied?

155
Q

BVM with O2 and reservoir, how much O2 being supplied?

156
Q

Langerhans cells

A

are a type of immune cell found mainly in the skin and other epithelial tissues.

157
Q

smooth Endoplasmic reticulum

A

is the cell’s lipid factory and detox center, helping make fats, break down toxins, and regulate calcium — especially active in liver and muscle cells

158
Q

Schwann cells

A

Are a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system (PNS). They play a critical role in nerve function.

Wrap around axons to form the myelin sheath, which increases the speed of nerve impulse conduction

159
Q

Merkel cells

A

are specialized sensory cells found in the epidermis (outer layer of the skin), particularly in areas that are highly sensitive to touch, like the fingertips, lips, and face.

160
Q

Mitosis

A

results in two genetically identical diploid cells with 46 chromosomes each — used for normal body cell growth and repair.

161
Q

Meiosis

A

creates 4 genetically different haploid gametes, each with 23 chromosomes — critical for maintaining the correct chromosome number after fertilization.

162
Q

What are the 4 phases of mitosis?

A

Interphase – DNA replicates (not part of mitosis proper)

Prophase – Chromosomes condense, spindle forms

Metaphase – Chromosomes align in the middle

Anaphase – Sister chromatids pulled apart

Telophase – Two new nuclei form

Cytokinesis – Cell splits into two identical diploid cells

163
Q

The Health Professions Act (HPA)

A

is a provincial law in Alberta that governs how regulated health professionals, including paramedics, are licensed, monitored, and held accountable to ensure public safety and quality care.

164
Q

What is the distinction between the CNS and PNS?

A

The CNS is the brain and spinal cord — the control center.

The PNS includes all nerves outside the CNS — the messengers that connect the CNS to the rest of the body.

165
Q

What is the main distinction between Autonomic and Somatic?

A

Somatic = Voluntary
Autonomic = Involuntary

166
Q

What is the distinction between Absolute & Relative shock ?

A

Absolute Shock = Actual loss of intravascular fluid of blood volume

i.e Hemorrhage, Severe dehydration, Burns

Relative Shock = No actual fluid loss, but the blood is redistributed or pooled, reducing effective circulation

i.e Sepsis, Anaphylaxis, Neurogenic

167
Q

Beta 1 effects

A

Inotropic
Chrontropic
Dromotropic
Lusitropic

167
Q

Stable angina
VS.
Unstable angina
VS.
Prinzmetal angina

A

Stable angina = Predictable chest pain with exertion, relieved by rest/nitro.

Unstable angina = Unpredictable, worse chest pain at rest; a warning sign of impending MI.

Prinzmetal angina = Chest pain at rest due to arterial spasm, not plaque; shows transient ST elevation but normal troponins.

168
Q

Give me 4 Isotonic solutions?

A

1- 0.9% Sodium Chloride
2- Ringer’s Lactate
3- Ringers Solution
4- D5W when in the bag -> becomes hypo in the body

169
Q

Give me examples of Hypertonic solutions

A

1- anything above .9% NS
2- D10W
3- D50W

170
Q

Give me 3 examples of hypotonic solutions

A

1- anything below .9% NS
2- 2/3 1/3
3- D5W in the body

171
Q

Cor Pulmonale

A

is right-sided heart failure due to chronic lung disease — most often seen in COPD — and results from long-term pulmonary hypertension

172
Q

8 other reason RCHF can occur?

A

1-Left-Sided Heart Failure Most common cause overall — fluid backs up into the lungs → increases pressure → strains the right side
2-Valvular Heart Disease Especially tricuspid or pulmonary valve disease (e.g., stenosis, regurgitation)
3-Pulmonary Embolism (PE) Sudden blockage of a pulmonary artery increases right heart pressure
4-Myocarditis Inflammation of the heart muscle (viral, autoimmune) can affect the right ventricle
5-Right Ventricular MI Heart attack involving the right ventricle weakens its function
6-Congenital Heart Disease E.g., atrial or ventricular septal defects causing volume overload on the right side
7-Chronic Volume Overload From renal failure or excessive IV fluids (increasing venous return)
8-Pericardial Disease E.g., constrictive pericarditis can restrict right heart filling

173
Q

What the difference between Assault and battery

A

Assault = “I’m going to hit you!” (Threat)

Battery = Actually hitting someone (Action)

Assault Threatening to treat a patient without consent

Battery Performing a procedure without the patient’s permission or consent

174
Q

Gross negligence vs. negligence

A

Negligence Failure to act with reasonable care, resulting in unintended harm

Gross Negligence A severe or reckless disregard for safety, showing a lack of concern for consequences

175
Q

functional unit of the liver?

A

Hepatocytes

176
Q

Co2 dilator or constrictor ?

177
Q

O2 dilator or constrictor?

A

Constritor

178
Q

Virchows Triad

A
  1. Hyper-coagulability
  2. Blood Stasis
  3. Vessel damage (Endothelial injury)
179
Q

Anterior Pituitary Gland - 7 hormones

A

FLAT PEG

F – FSH Follicle-Stimulating Hormone Stimulates egg/sperm production in ovaries/testes
L – LH Luteinizing Hormone Triggers ovulation; stimulates testosterone in males
A – ACTH Adrenocorticotropic Hormone Stimulates adrenal cortex → cortisol production
T – TSH Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone Stimulates thyroid to release T3 and T4
P – Prolactin — Promotes milk production in mammary glands
E – (Ignored) — (Used as a spacer in the mnemonic)
G – GH Growth Hormone (Somatotropin) Stimulates growth, protein synthesis, fat metabolism

180
Q

Posterior Pituitary Gland - 2 Hormones

A

ADH Antidiuretic Hormone (Vasopressin) Promotes water reabsorption in kidneys → ↓ urine output, ↑ blood pressure

Oxytocin — Stimulates uterine contractions during labor and milk ejection during breastfeeding

181
Q

Dementia

A

progressive loss of intellectual function.

182
Q

Distinction between Heat Exhaustion & Heat Stroke

A

Heat Exhaustion Moderate Sweaty, tired, alert, normal temp

Heat Stroke Severe emergency Hot, altered mental status, ≥ 40°C

183
Q

Umbilical cord has how many arteries and veins

A

2 arteries
1 vein

184
Q

Do you wait on scene to deliver placenta?

185
Q

Bartholin’s glands

A

in females are the embryological and functional counterparts to the male bulbourethral glands, both providing lubrication during sexual arousal.

186
Q

TID

A

3x per day

187
Q

QID

A

4x per day

188
Q

BID

A

2x per day

189
Q

Paresthesia

A

Numbness

Tingling

Pins and needles

Burning

Prickling

190
Q

GI tract AKA

A

Alimentary Canal

191
Q

Determining Flow rate

A

gtt/min=Volume x gtt/min
__________________
time

192
Q

Parkland Formula

A

4cc x BSA% x Weight(kg)
_________________________
2

193
Q

Why are Beta blockers prescribed?

A

Keeps HR & BP down

+ bronchoconstriction

194
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do?

A

reduce blood pressure and heart workload by relaxing blood vessels and slowing cardiac conduction

195
Q

What is TKVO?

A

To keep the vein open

150ml/hr

10 drop set = 25 drops per min
60 drop set = 150 drops per min

196
Q

What % of oxygen will a patient get on a NRB?

197
Q

What % of oxygen will a patient get on a nasal cannula flowing at 1L/min?

198
Q

outer layer of the heart?

A

Epicardium also part of the pericardium

199
Q

middle layer of the heart?

A

myocardium - muscle layer

200
Q

innermost layer of the heart?

A

Endocardium

201
Q

outer layer of the pericardium?

A

fibrous - anchors and protects

202
Q

inner lining of the pericardium sac?

A

Parietal serous layer

203
Q

inside layer of the pericardium?

A

Visceral serous layer

204
Q

Cardiac Reserve

A

The ability of the heart to increase CO due to increased demand.

205
Q

Corpus Callosum

A

is a thick band of nerve fibers that connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain, allowing them to communicate and share information.