Company Officer 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The ____ was created by congress in 1996 as a national disaster relief compact to link the resources of each state. Designed to provide rapid and flexible deployment of aid to the stricken area.

A

EMAC

Emergency management assistance compact

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2
Q

Reciprocal assistance from one fire and emergency service agency to another during an emergency based upon a prearranged agreement.

A

Mutual aid

** upon request

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3
Q

Written agreement between two or more agencies to automatically dispatch predetermined resources to any fire or other emergency in the area covered by the agreement.

A

Automatic Aid

Dispatched without request

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4
Q

Assistance from agencies, industries or FD’s that are not part of the agency having jurisdiction.

A

Outside Aid

*generally involves payment for services provided.

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5
Q

Volunteer firefighters staff approximately ____% of fire and emergency services organization.

A

70%

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6
Q

Private emergency service organizations generally fall into one of 3 categories______

A

Industrial Fire brigades

For profit fire

Private, non profit

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7
Q

Generally ____ emergency fire suppression companies are organized for forest, wildland, and urban interface.

A

State/Provincial

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8
Q

The term given to an area that lies outside of taxpayer supported or funded jurisdictions_______

A

No man’s Land

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9
Q

Political subdivision of a state, province, or territory for admin purposes and public safety. Also known as a Parish.

A

County

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10
Q

Functional division of the lowest level of local government?

A

Municipal

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11
Q

Work groups may be created based on the following elements?

A

Type of task

Georgraphical area

Time of year

Available resources

skill specification

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12
Q

_______consists of dividing large jobs into smaller task to be assigned to specific individuals

A

Division of labor

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13
Q

_____ refers to the number of subordinates and or functions that one individual can effectively supervise.

A

Span of control

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14
Q

_____ supervision is often useful when the distinction between line and staff functions become blurred.

A

Functional Supervision

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15
Q

____ is an organizational principle that allows workers to report to more than one supervisor

A

Functional Supervision

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16
Q

Notifying one’s supervisor that one whishes to take an issue to the supervisor’s supervisor.

A

skip level Notification

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17
Q

The process of going around a link in the chain of command to deal with an issue.

A

Side stepping

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18
Q

_____ is the path of responsibility from the top of the organization to the bottom and vice versa

A

Chain of command

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19
Q

_____ states that each subordinate must have only one supervisor

A

Unity of command

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20
Q

Decisions are made at a lower level (basically delegation of authority)

A

Decentralized

to work effectively, all members must understand direction, values and goal of the organization.

Decision making authority should be delegated to the lowest possible level.

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21
Q

Decisions are made by one person at the top of the structure.____

A

Centralized

Works well in small organizations

accountability for decisions is almost always centralized.

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22
Q

What are the two types of decision making models?

A

Centralized Authority

Decentralized Authority

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23
Q

_____ refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable.

A

Authority

*relates to the empowered duties of an official to perform certain tasks

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24
Q

Order of rank and authority in the fire and emergency services

A

Chain of command

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25
Q

Fire and Emergency services follow certain basic principles of organizational structure based on theory, research and practice. These principles include:

A

Scalar structure

line and staff personnel

Decision making authority

unity of command

span of control

division of labor

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26
Q

Examples of municipal fire and emergency services organizations include?

A

Traditional

and

Public Safety

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27
Q

NFPA 1021 standard for fire officer professional qualifications uses the designation ____ to describe the first level supervisor.

A

Fire Officer 1

Lieutenant, engineer, captain

Fire Officer II

Captain, Senior Captain

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28
Q

Company officers must be knowledgeable in the following areas:_________

A

Concepts of management, leadership

Basic admin duties

Community risk, awareness

Emergency response duties

teaching of skills/knowledge

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29
Q

The fire and emergency services organization is based on________

A

A scalar structure that assigns rank in a hierarchy of authority that is pyramid shaped.

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30
Q

_____ is instruction that emphasizes job specific learning objectives and traditional skill based training.

A

Training

Education is knowledge based and not tied to a specific job

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31
Q

Provides services to the line units (internal customers) based on the objectives established to attain the organizations goals

A

Staff/support function

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32
Q

Provide services directly to external customers based on the organizations mission statement and goals.

A

Line functions

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33
Q

The International association of fire chiefs also divide fire officer ranks into 4 levels they vary slightly from NFPA

A

Level 1 Supervising fire officer
(all company officers)

Level 2 Managing fire officer
(Battalion, district and assistant chiefs)

Level 3 Administrative fire officer
(chief in charge of divisions)

Level 4 Executive fire officer
(Department Chief)

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34
Q

NFPA places fire officers in 4 categories or levels based on __________

A

Their assigned duties

Level 1 First line supervisor

Level 2 Mid level supervisor

Level 3 First line manager

Level 4 Department manager?Chief

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35
Q

Extinguishers with a gross weight no exceeding 40 pds should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than _________ft above the floor.

A

5 feet

40obs = 3 1/2 ft

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36
Q

Clearance between bottom of the extinguisher and the floor never less than ____ inches.

A

4 inches

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37
Q

Portable fire extinguishers use different methods to expel the extinguisher agent and can be broadly classified according to the method used. These include:

A

Stored pressure

cartridge operated

pump operated

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38
Q

All portable fire extinguishers must be installed and maintained according to NFPA:

A

NFPA 10

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39
Q

NFPA 2001 defines a ____ as an electrically non-conducting, volatile, or gaseous fire extinguishing agent that does not leave a residue upon evaporation.

A

Clean agent

Halotron
FM-200
Inergen

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40
Q

In portable fire extinguishers what two Halons are still in use?

A

Halon 1211 ***** most common

Halon 1301

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41
Q

List an example of an exemption of the ban on Halon use _____

A

Aircraft engine fire suppression systems

42
Q

The Halogenated agents are principally effective on Class____ and Class___ fires.

A

Class B

and

Class C

43
Q

What are the two main types of dry chemical systems?

A

Local application (most common)

Total flooding (paint booth)

44
Q

These systems are designed to be installed in commercial range hoods, plenums and ducts_______

A

Wet chemical systems

45
Q

Wet chemical systems use a mixture of water and __________

A

Potassium carbonate

or

potassium acetate

46
Q

Suppression system used in areas where a rapid extinguishment of the fire is required but reignition is unlikely__________

A

Dry chemical systems

These systems are either engineered or pr engineered

47
Q

Fire suppression system, consists of closed sprinklers filled with air under pressure and a secondary detection system. Both must operate before the extinguishing agent is release_______

A

Preaction system

48
Q

Fire suppression system that consists of closed sprinklers attached to piping containing air under pressure. When activated air is released, activating the water control valve and filling the pipe.

A

Dry pipe system

49
Q

What are the 3 types of dry sprinkler systems?

A

Dry Pipe systems

Preaction systems

Deluge systems

50
Q

NFPA 14 classifies standpipe systems as ____ _____ ____

A

Class I For FF’s 2 1/2 outlet, no hose

Class II Building Occupants 1 1/2 w/hose

Class III FF’s and occupants 1 1/2 and 2 1/2 outlet

51
Q

What are the 2 types of public alarm systems?

A

Type A
manual, operator must transmit to station

Type B
Automatically transmitted from street box to all Fire stations in Jurisdiction

52
Q

Stationary fire pumps are almost always electrically driven centrifugal pumps with a discharge capacity from ______ to _____gpm.

A

500 to 4500 Gpm

53
Q

NFPA 20 requires stationary fire pumps to run for at least ____min per week.

A

30 minutes per week

54
Q

these are supplementary systems installed in properties in addition to another type. Provide detailed into to occupants_______-

A

Emergency Voice/alarm comminciation

55
Q

Individual who accomplishes organization objectives through effective and efficient handling of material and human resources

A

Manager

56
Q

A person who is responsible for directing the performance of other people or employees______

A

Supervisor

57
Q

The categories listed in NFPA 1021 are_______

A

HR

Community relations

admin

Investigation

Emergency services delivery

Health and safety

58
Q

IFSTA produces _____manuals to meet the training objectives of NFPA 1021

A

2 manuals

Level 1 and Level 2
Fire and emergency services Company officer

Level 3 and level 4
Fire and emergency services chief officer

59
Q

A person who leads or directs a unit

A

leader

60
Q

what are the NFPA 1021 requirements for fire officer 1?

A

FF II

Fire instructor 1

Chapter 3 job performance requirements of NFPA 1021

61
Q

The _____creates the organization, establishes the job performance criteria, develops promotion systems.

A

AHJ

Authority having Jurisdiction

62
Q

What two types of systems are connected directly to the fire and emergency services organization communications/ dispatch center

A

Auxiliary

Remote station

63
Q

A central station system differs from a proprietary system in two ways:

A

The receiving point is not on the protected premises.

The owner of the protected premise does not employ the person receiving the alarm.

64
Q

A _____ system is used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, highrise buildings and groups of commonly owned buildings in a single location, such as a college campus or industrial complex.

A

Proprietary system

65
Q

Connected directly to fire and EMS

Transmit alarm usually over a telephone line

Used in communities not served by a central station system.

Coded or non coded

One remote station can servie up to 5 buildings

A

Remote station system

66
Q

These systems are used only in communities that have municipal alarm box systems. Installed within a building and connected directly to a municipal alarm box located on the street adjacent tot he building.

A

Auxiliary alarm systems

67
Q

____ alarm systems may be activated manually. Sensors that may be activated manually. Sensor that detect heat, smoke or flame can also activate them. They share on common feature. They initiate an alarm signal only on the premises.

A

Local alarm systems

Primary purpose to alert building occupants.

Not monitored

68
Q

The most common types of systems are

A

Local

Auxiliary

Remote station

Proprietary

Central station

Emergency voice/alarm conn

69
Q

Marks safety information signage, such as labels or markings indicating the type of required PPE______

A

Blue

70
Q

Marks safety equipment, such as first Aid stations, safety showers and exit routes_______

A

Green

71
Q

Means Caution, solid yellow, yellow and black stripes, yellow and black checkers used to indicate physical hazards such as tripping hazards. Also used on corrosive containers

A

Yellow

72
Q

Means warning; is used on hazardous machinery with parts that can crush cut or injure

A

Orange

73
Q

_____ color

Means danger or stop, is used on containers of flammable liquids, emergency stop bars and fire protection equipment.

A

Red

74
Q

What is a limitation of NFPA 704 system

A

An NFPA diamond doesn’t state exactly what chemical or chemicals may be present in specific quantities

Does not tell where the hazard is

75
Q

There are _____ occupancy classifications.

A

9

76
Q

What are the 9 occupancy classifications

A
  1. assembly
  2. Business
  3. Education
  4. Factory/institutional
  5. Occupancy Institutional (care and detention)
  6. Mercantile
  7. Residential
  8. storage
  9. utility
77
Q

What are the 3 contents hazard classifications?

A

Low Hazzard
Fiberglass, or minerals

Ordinary Hazard
Paper, cardboard

High hazard
Flammable liquids, reactive

78
Q

The means of egress consist of 3 parts?

A

Access to the exit

The exit itself

The exit discharge

79
Q

In all occupancies, there are certain general fire and life safety items that must be inspected, what are they?

A

Means of egress (most important)

Housekeeping
Processes

Storage

Waste management

Fire protection

80
Q

Most fire codes require each building or facility to be inspected at least _________

A

once a year

81
Q

In type III construction exterior bearing walls must have a ____hour fire resistance rating.

A

2 hr.

Type III A = 1 hr fire resistance construction throughout the structure

Type III B = Lacks the 1 hr. requirement

82
Q

According to the model codes who is responsible for ensuring that buildings and facilities are inspected?

A

The fire Chief

who delegates to the fire marshal

83
Q

Type III construction consists of structural elements made of ______

A

any material that the code permits

84
Q

What type of construction is often referred to, although not entirely accurately, as 1 hour building?

A

Type II

85
Q

NFPA 220 classifications designate 5 major building construction classifications. The classifications range from ____ to ______

A

Type 1 (most fire resistive)

Type 5 ( least fire resistive)

86
Q

Type I construction

Type I A ____hr rating frame and walls

          \_\_\_\_\_hr rating floors

            \_\_\_\_hr rating roofs
A

Type I A 3 hr rating frame and walls

                2 hr rating floors

                 1 1/2  hr rating roofs

Type I B 2 hr rating frame and walls

                2 hr rating floors

                1   hr rating roofs
87
Q

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of ________

A

Type IV

88
Q

Basically, construction classifications are based upon___________

A

Materials used in construction

Hourly fire resistance rating

89
Q

What are the two major organization that develop model building codes?

A

NFPA

ICC (international code council)

90
Q

For exigent circumstances to apply one of these 3 conditions must be present_________

A

People may be imminent danger

Evidence may face imminent destruction

a suspect may escape

91
Q

________circumstances are conditions that allow emergency responders and law enforcement officers to enter a structure without a warrant.

A

Exigent

92
Q

Under common law and most statutory law the existence of an emergency constitutes implied permission to enter a structure. What are the 2 exceptions to this rule of law?

A

Military emergency responders on a military base.

Members of industrial fire brigades on company property.

93
Q

Fire and life safety inspections have a two fold purpose___________

A

Ensuring that fire and life safety code requirements are adhered to

Providing safety education materials and info

94
Q

Diversity classifications

A

Politics

age

education

ethnicity

socioeconomic level

race

religion

gender

sexual orientation

95
Q

Sources for demographic data on the nation, state, and local levels in the U.S. include_______

A

US census bureau

US dept of Labor

Us Dept of health

State, regional and local government agencies

Local school board

96
Q

What is the recommended instructor to student ratio

A

one to five

97
Q

Four step method of instruction

A

Prepare

Present

apply

evaluate

98
Q

The most learning takes place during the ____step of the 4 step method.

A

application step

99
Q

The two primary types of repeater systems include:

A

Apparatus mounted

those prepositioned in specific geographical area

100
Q

A _______ defines the needs of the organization and allows manufacturer’s to decide if they can meet bid specifications.

A

RFP

Request for proposal