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EMT > Chapter 3 > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

a health care provider usually avoids legal exposure if he or she acts: in good faith, according to an appropriate

A

standard of care

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2
Q

EMTs are the first link in the chain of

A

prehospital care

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3
Q

… is permission to render care

A

consent

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4
Q

if the patient is conscious and rational, and capable of making informed decisions, he/she has the legal right to …

A

refuse care

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5
Q

the foundation of consent is … capacity: the patient can understand and process info given, the patient can make an … choice regarding medical care

A

decision-making; informed

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6
Q

… is the patient’s right to make decisions about his/her health

A

patient autonomy

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7
Q

factors related to patient’s decision-making capacity:
mental … or …
if the patient is of legal age
if the patient is intoxicated, on drugs, impaired by a serious injury/illness
if the patient is experiencing sig pain
if patient has sign injury that could … them from more serious injury
hearing/visual problems
… barrier
if the patient understands/ is rational

A

limitation; dementia; distract; language

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8
Q

…: the patient acknowledges that he/she wants you to provide care/transport

A

expressed consent

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9
Q

to be valid, the patient must provide … consent, which means you have explained the treatment being offered, along with the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives, as swell as potential consequences of refusing

A

informed

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10
Q

always document when a patient provides informed consent, or have someone … the patient’s consent

A

witness

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11
Q

implied consent applies to patients who are:
…
otherwise incapable of making a …, … decision about care

A

unconscious; rational; informed

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12
Q

implied consent applies only when a serious medical condition exists and should never be used unless there is a threat ot … or …

A

life; limb

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13
Q

the principle of implied consent is known as the

A

emergency doctrine

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14
Q

it is a good idea to try to get consent from a …/… before treating a patient based on implied consent

A

spouse; relative

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15
Q

involuntary consent applies to patients who are:’
… ill
in a … (psychological) crisis
…. delayed

A

mentally; behavioral; developmentally

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16
Q

in cases of involuntary consent: obtain consent from the … or …–> It is not always possible to obtain such consent, so understand your local provisions. For example, many states have protective custody statutes that allow such a person to be taken, under law enforcement authority, to a medical facility.

A

guardian; conservator

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17
Q

for minors, the … or … gives consent: in every state, when a parent cannot be reached to provide consent, health care providers are allowed to give emergency care

A

parent; legal guardian

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18
Q

in some states, a minor can give consent. depends on … and …

A

age; maturity

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19
Q

emancipated minor: a person under legal age but is legally considered an …, occurs primarily when minors are …, if they are members of the .., or if they are …

A

adult; married; armed services; parents

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20
Q

teachers ands chool officals may act in place of parents (…) and provide consent for treatment to injuries that occur in a school/camp

A

in loco parentis

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21
Q

If a true emergency exists and no consent is available, the consent to treat the minor is .., just as with an adult.

A

implied

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22
Q

Necessary with a patient who is in need of medical treatment and transportation but is combative and presents a significant risk of danger to self or others: …

A

forcible restraint

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23
Q

forcible restraint is legally permissible: consult … for authorization, in some states, only a … may forcibly restrain an individual

A

medical control; law enforcement officer

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24
Q

restraint without legal authority exposes you to potential … and … penalties

A

civil; criminal

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25
Q

If restraint is utilized, it is essential to protect the patient’s …and monitor the patient’s … status to avoid asphyxia, aspiration, and other complications.

A

airway; respiratory

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26
Q

adults who are conscious, alert, and appear to have decision-making capacity: can … from treatment at any time, even if the result is death/serious injury

A

withdraw

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27
Q

a patient, parent, or caregiver’s decision to accept/refuse treatment should be based on info that you provide:
your assessment of what might be …
a description of the … you feel is necessary
any possible … of treatment
the availability of .. treatments
the possible consequences of … treatment: all of this information should be included in the patient care report

A

wrong; treatment; risks; alternative; refusing

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28
Q

when treatment is refused, you must assess the patient’s ability to make an informed decision:

  1. ask and repeat ..
  2. assess the patient’s …
  3. observe the patient’s …
A

questions; answers; behavior

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29
Q

if the patient appears confused or delusional, you cannot assume that the decision to refuse is an

A

informed refusal

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30
Q

patients who have attempted suicide or conveyed suicidal intent should not be regarded as having

A

normal mental capacity

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31
Q

when in doubt, providing … is a much more defensible position than failing to treat a patient

A

treatment

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32
Q

in most states, records may be released only:
if the patient signs a …
if a legal … is presented
if they are needed by …

A

release; subpoena; billing personnel

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33
Q

confidential info includes:
patient …
assessment …
… provided

A

history; findings; treatment

34
Q

if you inappropriately release information, you may be liable for …, which is the disclosure of information without proper authorization

A

breach of confidentiality

35
Q

HIPAA contains a section on patient privacy that strengthens privacy laws. safeguards patient confidentiality. provides guidance on: which types of information are …, the responsibility of health care providers regarding that protection, … for breaching that protection

A

protected; penalties

36
Q

HIPAA considers all patient info you obtain in the course of providing medical treatment to a patient to be … (PHI); PHI includes medical info and any info that can be used to …

A

protected health information; identify the patient

37
Q

there are certain situations when you may be legally mandated to report you findings, such as in the case of … or when you receive a …: only the min amount of info necessary should be released

A

child abuse; subpoena

38
Q

A DNR order (also known as a “do not attempt resuscitation” order) gives permission …: “Do not resuscitate” does not mean “do not treat” even in the presence of a DNR order, you are still obligated to provide … (oxygen, pain relief, and comfort) to a patient who is not in cardiac arrest, whenever possible

A

not to resuscitate; supportive measures

39
Q

an … specifies treatment should the patient become unconscious or unable to make decisions

A

advance directive

40
Q

other names for advance directives: … and ..

A

living ill; health care directive

41
Q

to be valid, DNR orders must meet the following requirements:
clear statement of the patient’s …
signature of the … or …
signature of one or more … or other licensed …
DNR orders with expiration dates must be dated in the preceding … to be valid

A

medical problems; patient; legal guardian; physicians; health care providers; 12 months

42
Q

you may encounter … (POLST) and … (MOLST) forms when caring for patients with terminal illnesses

A

physician orders for life-sustaining treatment; medical orders for life-sustaining treatment

43
Q

POLST and MOLST orders explicitly describe acceptable interventions for the patient, such orders must be signed by an authorized … to be valid, if you encounter these documents, contact … for guidance

A

medical provider; medical control

44
Q

some patients may have named … to make decisions for them when they can no longer make their own:

  1. durable … for health care
  2. also known as …
A

surrogates; powers of attorney; health care proxies

45
Q

determination of the cause of death is the medical responsibllity of a

A

physician

46
Q 
in the absence of physician orders, the general rule is "if the body is still ... and ..., initiate emergency medical care" 
cold temperature (...) emergencies are an exception to this rule. the patient should not be considered dead until he or she is ... and ...
A

warm; intact; hypothermia; warm; dead

47
Q

presumptive signs of death:

  1. unresponsiveness to … stimuli
  2. lack of a … or …
  3. absence of chest … and …
  4. no deep … or .. reflexes
  5. absence of … reactivity;
  6. no … blood pressure
  7. profound …
  8. lowered or decreased …
A

painful; carotid pulse; heartbeat; rise; fall; tendon; corneal; pupillary; systolic; cyanosis; body temperature

48
Q 
definitive signs of death: 
obvious mortal injury (...) 
dependent .. (blood ...) 
... (...)
... (...)
A

decapitation; lividity; settling; rigor mortis; stiffening; putrefaction; decomposition

49
Q

rigor mortis occurs between … and … hours after death

putrefaction, depending on temps, occurs between … and … hours after death

A

2; 12; 40; 96

50
Q 
medical examiner/coroner must be notified in following cases: 
patient is ... on arrival/on scene
patient died without previous ..., or when physician is unable to state the ... of death
cases  of ... 
... death
..., known or suspected
death from ...
suspicion of a ... act
... and ... deaths
A

dead; medical care; cause; suicide; violent; poisoning; accidents; criminal; infant; child

51
Q

wish to donate organis expressed on … and/or the person’s …
your priority is still to save the patient’s life

A

organ donor card; driver’s license

52
Q

organs need

A

oxygen

53
Q

medical id insignia: bracelet, necklace, keychain, or card indicating …, …, or other serious medical condition hat may be helpful in assessing and treating this patient
some patients wear a medical bracelet with a …

A

DNR order; allergies; USB flash drive

54
Q

… outlines the care you are able to provide and is usually defined by state law

A

scope of practice

55
Q

medical director further defines the scope of practice by developing … or …
exceeding your scope of practice may be considered …

A

protocols; standing orders; negligence

56
Q

…: the manner in which you must act or behave–> what a reasonable EMT in a similar situation would do

A

standards of care

57
Q 
standards of care established by: 
... custom 
... 
... or ... standards
... 
standards imposed by ..
A

local; law; professional; institutional; textbooks; states

58
Q

Medical Practices Act: in some states, the EMt is exempt from the … requirements of the Medical Practices Act

A

licensure

59
Q

…is an established process to determine the qualifications necessary tob e allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization

A

credentialing

60
Q

Duty to act is an individual’s responsibility to provide …
an Emt has a duty to act: once your ambulance …. and when treatment is …

A

patient care; responds to a call; begun

61
Q

… is failure to provide standard of care.
all four elements must be present for negligence to apply:
…
…
…
…

A

negligence; duty; breach of duty; damages; causation

62
Q

abandonment: unilateral termination of care by EMT without the patient’s … and without making … for continuing care

A

consent; provisions

63
Q

abandonment may take place at the … or in the …

always obtain a signature on the patient care record when transferring care

A

scene; emergency department

64
Q

…: unlawfully placing person in fear of immediate bodily harm

A

assault

65
Q

…: unlawfully touching a person

A

battery

66
Q

seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away by force: …

A

kidnapping

67
Q

unauthorized confinement of a person: …

A

false imprisonment

68
Q

…; communication of false info that damages the reputation of a person
written form: …
spoken form: …
the run report should be accurate, relevant and factual

A

defamation; libel; slander

69
Q 
Good Samaritan actions: 
acted in ... 
no expectation of ... 
within ... 
did not act in grossly ... manner
A

good faith; compensation; scope of practice; negligent

70
Q

gross negligence is conduct that constitutes … or .. disregard for duty/standard of care

A

willful; reckless

71
Q

courts consider:
an action that was not recorded was not …
incomplete or untidy reports are evidence of …

A

performed; poor emergency medical care

72
Q 
special mandatory reporting requirements: child/older person ... 
injury during a ... 
...-related injuries
... 
attempted ... 
... bites
certain ... diseases
... 
... violence
sexual ... or ... 
exposures to .. disease
... patient
... scene
...
A

abuse; felony; drug; childbirth; suicides; dog; communicable; assaults; domestic; assault; rape; infectious; restrained; crime; deceased

73
Q

philosophy of right and wrong, moral duties, ideal professional behavior: …

A

ethics

74
Q

code of conduct affecting character, conduct, and conscience: …

A

morality

75
Q

addresses issues that arise practice of health care:

A

bioethics

76
Q

whenever called to testify, notify your … and …

A

service director; legal counsel

77
Q

as a witness: remain …, review the … before court

A

neutral; run report

78
Q 
as a defendant, an ... is required
potential defenses: 
... of ..
governmental ... 
contributory ...
A

attorney; statute; limitations; immunity; negligence

79
Q

… allows both sides to obtain more information through:
…–> written requests/questions
…–> oral requests/questions

A

discovery; interrogatories; depositions

80
Q

damages that may be awarded in court: … or …

A

compensatory; punitive

EMT (45 decks)

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