Breast Flashcards

1
Q

The lower pole of the breast can
be constricted in patients with macromastia or mild tuberous breast deformity true or false?.

A

The lower pole of the breast can
be constricted in patients with micromastia or mild tuberous breast
deformity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Symmastia occurs more in subglandular or submuscular ?

A

Symmastia occurs more in subglandular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Different types of selecon rupture can detect with US?

A

Silicone ruptures with cohesive gel implants can be detected on a mammogram
but more often require MRI to confirm a suspected rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Textured devices have lower rates
of capsular contracture, in SUBMASCULAR?

A

Textured devices have lower rates
of capsular contracture when a textured implant is placed in a subglandular or subfascial
plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What the percentage of capsular contracture?

A

Capsular contracture rates from long-term studies
demonstrate variability based on implant manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what the suitable size of areola to do transareolar approach ?

A

Good access if diameter of areola is >3.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what nerve that can injured with transaxlary approach ?

A

Avoid deep dissection in axilla; intercostobrachial and medial brachial cutaneous nerves are vulnerable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

percentage of contracture with breast augmentation ?

A

Subglandular: 32% contracture rate
Subpectoral: 12% contracture rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

I s there is any change in the sensatin of the nipple after breast implant ?

A

15% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what the waterfall deformity in breast augmentation? Double-bubble deformity type A

A

Implant is held high on chest wall by total pectoral coverage or contracture, and loose parenchyma slides off pectoral muscles inferior to axis of the implant
The dual-plane approach helps to prevent this deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The biopurden of BIA-ALCL more with smooth or textured Implants?

A

Textured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nipple sensation is equally likely to be preserved with submuscular or subglandular implant placement.?????

A

Nipple sensation is usually preserved following breast augmentation but it is more likely to be preserved
with submuscular placement because the fourth intercostal nerve runs within the pectoralis fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Peri areolar mastopexies can be used to elevate the nipple

A

no more than 2 cm with an eccentrically designed oval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

can we make breast augmentation with SPAIR MASTOPEXY ?

A

NO but we can use it in hall-findllay technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

mastopexy technique can that reliably leads to
signifi cantly increased upper poll fullness in the long term?

A

This is because there is no mastopexy technique that reliably leads to significantly increased upper pole fullness in the long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the drawback of Periareolar mastopexies?

A

Removing skin in a concentric pattern can, however, flatten and reduce breast projection.
Scar widening and eventual widening of the areola can occur If there is circumferential full thickness violation of the
dermis, decreased nipple sensitivity may occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

vertical mastopexy can used for all grade of breast ptosis?

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what the primary blood supply to the breast?

A

The primary blood supply originates from the internal mammary system and its arteries perforate the breast from deep to superficial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the is the lymphatic drainage of the breast ?

A

cutaneous, internal mammary, posterior intercostal, and axillary routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

After SUCTION-ASSISTED LIPECTOMY the patients alaways need mastopexy?

A

F may include
mastopexy after successful SAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

keloid scarring is a common complication in breast surgery

A

keloid scarring is a rare complication in breast surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nipple sensation precerved with submascula approuch better T or F

A

Nipple sensation is usually preserved following breast augmentation but it is more likely to be preserved with submuscular placement because the fourth intercostal nerve runs within the pectoralis fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many the incidence of revision after augmentation-mastipexy?

A

Augmentation-mastopexy techniques are associated with high revision rates of up to one in five, although this may be reduced to less than 1 in 10 by staging the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What the indication of tow stage AUGMENTATION-MASTOPEXY

A

Breast asymetry
Vertical access mor than 6 cm
SN to NAC more than 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Neurofibromatosis 1 associated with syndromic breast cancer

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Local recurrence rates after SSM are more than to other forms of mastectomy.

A

Local recurrence rates after SSM are similar to other forms of mastectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Smoking was found to be an independent risk factor for implant loss in prosthetic reconstruction.5

A

F large mastectomy specimen weight was found to be an independent risk factor for implant loss in prosthetic reconstruction.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How much the obese patients develop risk of breast implant reconstruction vs no obese ?

A

patients with BMI >30 were almost seven times more likely to experience reconstructive failure following prosthetic reconstruction than their nonobese counterparts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Macromastia contraindication for breast prosthetic reconstructions

A

macromastia is not a contraindication to implant-based reconstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The most important parameter in choosing the expander type is the shape of expander?

A

Among these, base width is the most important parameter for intraoperative device selection

matching the device base mdth to the mdth of the breast footprint on the chest wall eliminates dead space and skin redundancy while optimizing the final expansion pocket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

All currently available anatomic-shaped implants are also textured T or F

A

T All currently available anatomic-shaped implants are also textured to limit unwanted implant movement/ rotation;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

capsular contracture and reconstructive failure appear to be two to three times more likely in previously irradiated patients. T or F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The ADM can be used before prosthetics reconstraction for irradated tissue to decrease the complication rate?

A

the use of ADM in previously irradiated patients is not protective against reconstructive failure and may increase the rate of skin flap and infectious complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Undergoing chemotherapy treatment increase the incidence complication rates in patients undergoing prosthetic reconstruction

A

there is no clear evidence that either neoadjuvant or adjuvant chemotherapy increases complication rates in patients undergoing prosthetic reconstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Preoperative imaging may elucidate vessel anatomy, but is not always critical. in breast autologus reconstraction

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The need of radiation after mastectomy is absolute contraindication for early reconstruction of the breast?

A

The need for PMRT, though not an absolute contraindication to immediate reconstruction, tends to be the predominant reason to consider delayed reconstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Active smoking would be a absolute contraindication for performing any autologous flap procedure with increased risk for wound dehiscence and delayed wound healing

A

F. Active smoking would be a relative contraindications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Perfusion of flaps based on the SIEA/SIEV is reliable across the midline.

A

Perfusion of flaps based on the SIEA/SIEV is not reliable across the midline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Preoperative imaging may elucidate vessel anatomy, but it is always critical for brest flap reconstruction

A

Preoperative imaging may elucidate vessel anatomy, but is not always critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Clinical exam remains the standard for postoperative flap monitoring. T or F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

history of h ypercoagulable conditions would be a contraindication to performing a free tissue and pedicled flap options ,

A

history of h ypercoagulable conditions would be a contraindication to performing a free tissue transfer with an increased risk for vessel thrombosis; pedicled flap options would be possible in this context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Studies have shown that CTA may reduce operative time in abdomenal based breast reconstruction T or F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the deep inferior epigastric artery system is the more dominant blood supply to the abdominal skin and fat,and muscle

A

F. the deep inferior epigastric artery system is the more dominant blood supply to the abdominal skin and fat,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Free abdominal based flap for breast has short pedicle with similar caliper for IMA

A

a long pedicle with similar caliber to recipient vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Perfusion of flaps based on the SIEA/SIEV is reliable across the midline.

A

Perfusion of flaps based on the SIEA/SIEV is not reliable across the midline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

primary closure without mesh is often possible with DIEP flap and free TRAM flap harvests

A

F. primary closure without mesh is often possible with DIEP flap and free ms-TRAM flap harvests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Free TRAM harvests tend to include wide sections of anterior rectus fascia and always require mesh placement, particularly in cases with bilateral flaps.

A

F. Free TRAM harvests tend to include wide sections of anterior rectus fascia and may require mesh placement, particularly in cases with bilateral flaps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Vertical upper gracilis (VUG) has more reliable skin peddle

A

transverse upper gracilis (TUG) has more reliable skin peddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The pedicles of upper thigh flap is identified in the interval between the gracilis and adductor magnus muscles

A

The pedicles of upper thigh flap is identified in the interval between the gracilis and adductor magnus muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The pedicles of posterior thigh flap located 10 cm below to the gluteal crease

A

Perforators from the pedicle are located roughly 5 to 6 cm below the5gluteal crease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The flap is designed as a horizontal ellipse with superior incision at the gluteal crease

A

The flap is designed as a horizontal ellipse with superior incision at or immediately below the gluteal crease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A contralateral composite nipple graft can be considered for patient who has a nibble projection of 10 to 15 mm

A

This technique is most effective in patients with a large contralateral nipple where projection exceeds 5 to 6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

composite nipple grafting can provide sensation and erectile function in the reconstructed nipple in some cases

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The breast is not functional after birth to puberty. Is it true or false?

A

At birth, the neonatal mammary tissue is functional. Seventy percent may secrete colostrum because of rise in prolactin. The nipples evert soon after birth because of proliferation of the underlying mesoderm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The lactiferous tissue tissue will be completed at eight week. Is it true or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

There is no genetic relationship in bilateral absence of the breast

A

Genetically inherited bilateral absence of the breast has been described

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mandrekas expanded on this with a ring theory regarding tuberous breast, result from thickening of deep facia of the deep fascia

A

Fals superficial fascial not deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How many patients with tuberous breast require breast expansion

A

8% of total or 30% of Groleau type III tuberous breast required expansion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Poland syndrome most common in female commonly left side ?

A

Male 3:1 female commonly right side in female it equal in right and left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

how much is the percentage of Poland syndrome in female breast aplasia?

A

Poland syndrome is involved in 14% of
breast aplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How much the percentage of poland syndrome patients whom has hand anomalies?

A

The frequency of hand abnormalities with Poland syndrome is 13.5% to 56%; in turn, 10% of syndactyly is a result of Poland syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many the percentage of chest anamoly in poland syndrom ?

A

Aplasia of the ribs and cartilage involving rib segments two to five often leads to severe chest depression in 11% to 25% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Percentage of patients whom hase lung hernaition in poland

A

Eight percent of patients may have lung herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Renal ultrasounds are recommended for all patients with aplasia of the pectoralis

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Breast cancer does not appear in poland syndromes apatients on the effected side ?

A

breast cancer has been reported to occur in patients with Poland syndrome and therefore standard monitoring is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Lipofilling in poland syndrom can be used without any implants with sufficient result

A

Lipofilling can also be used to camouflage chest abnormalities and may obviate the need for custom silicone devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

There is a role to use ADM with breast implant in poland ?

A

there have been no descriptions of use of ADM to secure the implant and to reduce the incidence of capsular contracture in Poland syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The most common form of breast reconstruction in poland syndrom is using prosthetic device?

A

The pedicled latissimus dorsi flap in combination with a prosthetic device has been the most common form of reconstruction in women with Poland syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When correction of the infraclavicular territory was necessary, an ipsilateral free gracilis flap was anastomosed to the internal mamary vessel’s

A

F. When correction of the infraclavicular territory was necessary, an ipsilateral free gracilis flap was anastomosed to the thoracodorsal vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

No need for imaging modality before operation in free flap reconstruction of poland syndrom

A

F. Because of the incidence of vascular anomalies in the recipient vessels, preoperative angiography should be strongly considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Rohrich described the most utilitarian method for classifying gynecomastia, based on the amount and character of breast h yp ertrophy and degree of ptosis

A

T Rohrich described the most utilitarian method for classifying gynecomastia, based on the amount and character of breast h yp ertrophy and degree of ptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The risk of breast cancer increases with gynicomastai patients

A

The risk of breast cancer in patients with gynecomastia remains equivalent when compared with the normal male population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is saucer-type deformity in gynicomastia?

A

Overzealous subareolar resection may lead to a saucer-type deformity under the areola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Augmentation-mastopexy techniques are associated with high revision rates of up to one in five, although this may be reduced to less than 1 in 10 by staging the procedure.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what the primary goal of augmentation mastopexy ?

A

The primary goal of the surgery is to
increase the size of the breast,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

now BA can be
performed almost exclusively with silicon implant if desired

A

now BA can be performed almost exclusively with a patient’s own tissue i
if desired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

BA affect the size of
the breast, but also the overall gland shape and position of the NAC.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The breast mound should reside
completely or largely above the inframammary fold (IMF) regardless the age of the patients.

A

The breast mound should reside
completely or largely above the inframammary fold (IMF) although
this can vary with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the Standard measurements before BA?

A

Standard
measurements before BA include base width (BW), sternal notch
to nipple distance (SN-N), nipple to inframammary fold (N-IMF),
NAC diameter, and internipple distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

2 cm of pinch thickness is considered the minimum necessary for placement of an implant in the subpectoral plane

A

2 cm of pinch thickness is considered the minimum necessary for placement of an implant in the subglandular or subfacial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

why the width of sternum is importent?

A

width of the sternum is
a nuance that can help the surgeon talk to a patient about expected
superomedial fullness and interbreast distance that will likely persist
after augmentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

ultrasound (US) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is better than mammogram in monitering of beast augmented patients

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Patients who seek
BA who have no visible breast skin below the NAC on a frontal view
(grade i ptosis)

A

Patients who seek
BA who have no visible breast skin below the NAC on a frontal view
(grade III ptosis) ikely need a mastopexy as well to reposition the
NAC on the breast mound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

normal positins of IMF atthe middle of humerous?

A

IMF at the middle of the humerus may be considered “high” breasted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what factors influence the tissue integration of implants with breast tissue ?

A

Surface area, pore size, and distribution may
play a role in soft tissue integration with the breast implant surface,
the organization of myofibroblasts and matrix proteins, and potential for accumulation of bacterial biofilms.*-

86
Q

MRI is recommended to visualize a suspicious seroma or mass after breast implant .

A

A PET-CT scan is recommended to visualize a suspicious seroma or mass.

87
Q

Capsular contracture rates based on plane of implant only

A

Capsular contracture rates from long-term studies
demonstrate variability based on implant manufacturer.

88
Q

Saline implants has risk of rupture more than silicon

A

Implant rupture can occur regardless of implant fill material

89
Q

removal of one or both implants and any
ruptured material in the case of silicone rupture with capsulectomy

A

removal of one or both implants and any
ruptured material in the case of silicone rupture with or without capsulectomy or capsulotomy

90
Q

Inmastopexy the discrepancy between the skin and breast tissue can be reduced

A

T

91
Q

what the draw back of Periareolar mastopexies?

A

flatten and reduce breast projection.
Scar widening and eventual widening of the areola can occur
If there is circumferential full thickness violation of the
dermis, decreased nipple sensitivity

92
Q

Vertical mastopexies can be used to address grade 1.2 ptosis

A

all grades of breast ptosis

93
Q

verical mastopexy can be used with implant placement?

A

This technique is not
typically complemented with implant placement but can do it with wise pattern technique

94
Q

the percentage of revision rate in periareolar mastopexy approach?

A

50%

95
Q

The revision rate in one step augmentation mastopexy WAS

A

revision rates between ‘
8.6% and 23.2%,

Meta-analyses of reports of single-stage
mastopexy-augmentation have found an overall complication rate of
13% with a reoperation rate of 11

96
Q

There is no consensus of whether augmentation or mastopexy should be
performed in a two-staged plan

A

T

97
Q

The lymphatic drainage of the breast includes the supraclavicular?

A

F. Lymphatic pathways parallel the venous drainage and include cutaneous, internal mammary, posterior intercostal, and axillary routes.

98
Q

Preoperative mammography is mandatory for all patients will underwent breast reduction

A

Preoperative mammography is not necessary for elective breast reduction before the age at which screening mammography is generally recommended

99
Q

The exact position of NAC ?

A

This mark should be very close to a hypothetical line that
connects laterally to ~2 cm below the midpoint of the upper arm. t should be ~2 cm above the projected IM fold

100
Q

in the inferior pedicle flap some surgeons prefer to elevate the upper flaps first. is it true ?

A

We found that elevating the inferior pedicle initially works best for us

101
Q

In superomedial pedicle with vertical skin excision we use only supra medial pedicle? True

A

If the NAC is positioned high in the superior aspect of the keyhole pattern, the surgeon may want to consider using a superior pedicle

102
Q

What is the percentage of hematoma in Breast reduction, and breast implant/

A

In breast implant 1% in breast reduction 4%

103
Q

The breast bud beneath the nipple areolar
complex should be palpated, and is often tender to the patient with
drugs induced gynecomastia

A

The breast bud beneath the nipple areolar
complex should be palpated, and is often tender to the patient with
idiopathic gynecomastia

104
Q

In patients with Klinefelter syndrome, their risk of
developing breast cancer is almost 60 times greater than the female

A

In patients with Klinefelter syndrome, their risk of
developing breast cancer is almost 60 times greater than the general
male population,

105
Q

the main composition of pseudo gynecomastia are glandular tissue

A

pseudo gynecomastia composed of fat only

106
Q

the percentage of gynecomastia patients whom responded to tamoxifen

A

83.3% no FDA approved

107
Q

what is the prophylactic indication approach in patient taking biclutumide for prostate cancer ?

A

Tamoxifen 10 -20 mg or anastrozole or radiotherapy

108
Q

when you can proceed with the surgical option of gynecomastia?

A

after one year

109
Q

Suction-assisted lipectomy is an excellent option for patients with
minimal to moderate tissue and skin excess. Ifthe breast enlargement
is predominantly adipose T OR F

A

T

110
Q

IMF should be preserved in liposuction of gynecomastia patients

A

The surgeon should intentionally disrupt the inframammary fold, because such dermoglandular attachment is feminizing . Instead, the
lower pole may be contoured via liposuction to emphasize the inferior border of the pectoralis major muscle and create more masculine
definition

111
Q

Most
patients in grade II b gynicomastia will exhibit adequate skin retraction, and do not elect further surgery with us liposuction T OR F

A

T

112
Q

The average diameter of a male nipple is

A

2.8 cm

113
Q

the best surgical approuch for bodybuilders, the gynecomastia is usually glandular and fibrotic, as these patients have a paucity of body fat.

A

Direct excision of the enlarged gland via a pullthrough technique is often indicated

114
Q

in morbid obesity patient with gynicomastia with excess skin and adipose tissue, an open approach with skin
excision is always necessary.

A

F excess skin and adipose tissue, an open approach with skin
excision is often necessary.

115
Q

Compression garments post op should the patients wear it for 1 month post op

A

F . 3month

116
Q

What is the indication of radiotherapy in breast cancer patients?

A

Patients with large tumors (>5 cm),
four or more involved lymph nodes,
positive or close margins,
and those with locally advanced breast cancer.

117
Q

Nipple-sparing mastectomy indications?

A

Oncologic factors suggestive of suitable cases for nipple-sparing mastectomies include tumors >2 cm from the nipple
and no clinical involvement of the skin or nipple

118
Q

Hereditary breast cancer accounts for up to 20% T OR F

A

T

119
Q

BRCA 1 and
2 gene mutations account for 20% to 40% of the hereditary breast
cancers. T OR F

A

T

120
Q

What is teh most common type of breast cancer?

A

The most common types of breast cancer include ductal carcinoma
in situ (DCIS)

121
Q

ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and lobular carcinoma in situ can transform into invasive cancer T OR F

A

DCIS can transform into invasive cancer.
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) does not transform into invasive
disease but instead increases one’s risk by 7 to 12 times for developing
invasive cancer in either breast

122
Q

regular clinical breast examinations for breast cancer are recommended for average-risk women at any age

A

no regular clinical breast
examinations for breast cancer are recommended for average-risk
women at any age

123
Q

Using MRI in breast cancer detection can improve over all survival.

A

Although breast MRIs are generally more sensitive than mammography or
ultrasonography, they have not been found to improve overall survival outcomes or improve locoregional recurrence rates.

124
Q

Is breast conservative therapy show result inferior to radical mastectomy?

A

BCT is appropriate for early stage
breast cancer and has been shown to provide equivalent overall survival rates compared to total mastectomy

125
Q

smoking considered an absolute contraindications for skin-sparing mastectomy

A

smoking (relative contraindication

126
Q

Local recurrence rates after
SSM is worse than other forms of mastectomy.2

A

Local recurrence rates after
SSM are similar to other forms ofmastectomy.2

127
Q

in skin-sparing mastectomy the nipple is preserved T OR F

A

F the nipple removed also

128
Q

the contralateral mastectomy increase the over all survival in high risk patients?

A

Rates of contralateral prophylactic mastectomy are increasing without
evidence ofsubstantial improvement of overall survival

129
Q

the percentage of lymodema after axilary lymphnode disection ?

A

An axillary lymph node
dissection (ALND) has a 16% risk of the development of lymphedema at 5 years

130
Q

Acellular dermal matrix used to cover part of implant. T or F

A

Acellular dermal matrix used to cover all the implant

131
Q

What are the Risk factors for complications in implant reconstruction

A

Smoking

■ Obesity (BMI >30)

■ Large breasts

■ Diabetes (Hgb AlC >6.5%

132
Q

stoping smoking abouy 1 month considred enoupg before breast reconstraction

A

there is some evidence that the rate of complications in former smokers, those who stopped smoking I month or more
before surgery, is similar to the rate of complications in active smokers.

133
Q

well control diabetes decrease the incidence of wound-healing problem in prosthetic breast implant reconstraction

A

even well-controlled diabetes (average preoperative blood glucose 137 mg/
dL) increases the I-year rate of wound healing problems following
prosthetic but not autologous reconstruction

134
Q

The weight t of the patients does not affect the outcome of the prosthetic breast reconstruction?

A

F patients with BMI >30 were almost seven times more likely to experience reconstructive failure following prosthetic reconstruction than their nonobese counterparts

135
Q

macromastia is not a contraindication
to implant-based reconstruction,

A

T

136
Q

the complications rate between immediate and delay breast reconstruction are comparable

A

delayed prosthetic reconstruction
have argued that this approach results in a lower rate of complications including mastectomy skin flap necrosis, capsular contracture, and need for device removal

137
Q

quality mastectomy is a major determinant ofthe success of
direct-to-implant reconstruction T or F

A

T

138
Q

Is their are difference in complication rate between single vs staged breast reconstruction?

A

Basta et al. found a significantly increased risk of skin flap necrosis, need for reoperation,
and reconstructive failure in patients undergoing direct-to-implant
reconstruction. The overall
absolute rate of implant loss was 14.4% for single- and 8.7% for two-stage reconstruction

139
Q

Acellular Dermal Matrix can improve lower pole projection T OR F

A

T

140
Q

Benefits of ADM?

A
  • ADM can help maintain the device in the optimal position on the chest wall,
  • add definition to the inframammary fold and lateral breast border,
  • improve lower pole projection
  • higher intraoperative fill volume and shorter time to optimal expansion.
  • ADM is useful in both the primary prevention and secondary treatment of capsular contracture
  • ADM may ameliorate some of the
    negative sequelae associated with radiation treatment.
141
Q

the most important parameter for breast implant is projectoin T OR F

A

Base width

142
Q

Expander capacity is important

A

Expander capacity is less important as many expander devices
maybe filled well beyond their stated maximum volumes

143
Q

Silicon implant has lower risk of rapture than Normal saline implant T OR F

A

Rates of rupture and capsular contracture
may be slightly higher in silicone implants than in saline

144
Q

patients with silicone implants are more likely to develop rare neurologic or connective tissue diseases

A

There is no evidence to support the idea
that patients with silicone implants are more likely to develop rare
neurologic or connective tissue diseases

145
Q

Textured implant decreases lower pole stretch over time T OR F

A

T

146
Q

all anatomic-shaped implants are textured T or F

A

T

147
Q

Shaped implants may result in improved upper
pole shape and volume, especially in reconstruction of breasts that are
taller than they are wide T OR F

A

T

148
Q

In case of falp skin viability is a concern in breast reconstraction with implant if viability or skin
quality is a concern, placement of a device is abslute contraindicated and may be deferred to a later time

A

F placement of a device is relatively contraindicated and may be deferred to a later time

149
Q

The sternal origin of pectoralis major should never be compromised.

A

muscle origin along the most inferior
portions of the sternum may be divided further if increased lower
pole projection is needed or desired

150
Q

Radiation of a prosthetic device can lead to increased rates of early
complications such as hematoma

A

F Radiation of a prosthetic device can lead to increased rates of early
complications such as infection, seroma, and mastectomy flap necrosis

151
Q

Radiation of the permanent implant
was associated with a higher rate of capsular contracture and subsequently worse aesthetic outcomes.

A

T

152
Q

In Radiation of the tissue expander, increasing the interval of time between completion of radiation and exchange to permanent implant appears to improve outcomes, with intervals ranging from 3 to 8 months.

A

T

153
Q

despite a higher rate of complications, prosthetic reconstruction can be effectively accomplished in
the previously irradiated breast T OR F

A

T

154
Q

The uses of ADM in previously irradiated patients is not protective against reconstructive failure

A

the use of ADM in previously irradiated patients is not
protective against reconstructive failure and may increase the rate
of skin flap and infectious complications, perhaps due to its inability to incorporate into a poorly vascularized, irradiated mastectomy
flap

155
Q

Delay the time from radiation to the definitive breast reconstruction more than 1 year can significantly decrease

A

Although increasing tl1e time interval between previous irradiation and salvage mastectomy beyond 1 year does not appear to
improve the rate of complications,

156
Q

performing the reconstruction in
a delayed rather than immediate fashion may result in a lower rate of
reconstructive failure. T OR F

A

T

157
Q

there is no clear evidence that either neoadjuvant or adjuvant chemotherapy increases complication rates in patients undergoing prosthetic reconstruction

A

T

158
Q

all breast hematomas require return to
the operating room for evacuation,

A

most hematomas require return to
the operating room for evacuation,

159
Q

implant salvage is possible in case of infection with staph aureus

A

elevated white blood cell count at admission and methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) infection as predictors of salvage failure

160
Q

Rates of capsular contracture following implant-based reconstruction at 3 years are estimated at between 10% and 13%

A

T

161
Q

Clinical exam remains the standard for postoperative flap
monitoring.

A

T

162
Q

In case of autologous breast reconstruction the need for post mastectomies radiotherapy is absolute contraindications for breast immediately reconstruction

A

The need for PMRT, though not an absolute contraindication to immediate reconstruction, tends to be the predominant reason to consider delayed reconstruction

163
Q

Hypercoagulable conditions would be a contraindication to performing a free tissue transfer pedicled flap options would be possible in this context

A

T

164
Q

imaging is absolutely needed in patients planned for autologous reconstruction of the the breast

A

imaging is not absolutely needed in patients without a surgical history

165
Q

LD muscle harvested with a skin paddle
typically does not provide sufficient volume for breast reconstruction.

A

T

166
Q

The percentage of the abdominal flap wich are superficially SIEA dominant?

A

10%

167
Q

THE PERCISE ;OCATION OF SUPERFICAIL INFERIOR EPIGASTRIC ART ?

A

superficial to the Scarpa fascia and within 5 to IO cm lateral from
the midline

168
Q

Perfusion of flaps based on the SIEA/SIEV is
not reliable across the midline. T OR F

A

T

169
Q

perforators required for DIEP flap elevation are
located within a 10 cm radius from the umbilicus T OR F

A

T

170
Q

primary closure without mesh is
often possible with DIEP flap and free ms-TRAM flap harvests.

A

T

171
Q

TRAM harvests tend to include wide sections of anterior rectus
fascia and may require mesh placement, particularly in cases with
bilateral flaps.

A

T

172
Q

BLOOD SUPPLY OF Medial thigh flaps?

A

The medial circumflex femoral artery, a branch of the profunda femoris artery

173
Q

The TUG does not provide as much skin or fat as the VUG T OR F

A

T

174
Q

vertical upper gracilis (VUG) flap provide a
more reliable skin paddle. T OR F

A

F TUG FLAP PROVIDE RELIABLE SKIN PADDDLE

175
Q

At the level of the third rib, the IMA generally
lies medial to the IMV. F OR T

A

F LATERAL

176
Q

At the third and fourth intercostal spaces. The left IMV
bifurcates at a higher level than the right IMV

A

T(third rib on the left
vs. fourth rib on the right)

177
Q

At the level of the third intercostal space,
the left IMV is on average smaller than the right (2.5 mm vs. 3 mm) T OR F

A

T

178
Q

Grafting remains a favorable option in patients who have thick skin and subcutaneous tissues

A

Grafting remains a favorable option in patients who have thin skin and subcutaneous tissues following alloplastic breast reconstruction

179
Q

Centrally based flaps such as the quadrapod flap are subject to the highest degree to preserve the nipple projection

A

Centrally based flaps such as the quadrapod flap are subject to the highest degree of postoperative retraction

180
Q

Tattooing is generally performed 10 weeks after reconstruction of the nipple

A

Tattooing is generally performed 6 to 8 weeks after reconstruction of the nipple

181
Q

milk line that extends ventrally along the embryo, from the axilla to the groin roughly medial to the midclavicular line

A

milk line that extends ventrally along the embryo, from the axilla to the groin roughly lateral to the midclavicular line

182
Q

There are no genetic inheritance in bilateral absence of the breast?

A

Genetically inherited bilateral absence of the breast has been described

183
Q

It is important to ask about the cancer history in fat graft patients?

A

Careful consideration of familial breast cancer history is mandatory when employing fat transfer techniques.

184
Q

In tuberous breast there is thickening of penetrating suspensory ligaments in

A

T

185
Q

How many percentage of tuberous breast patients need expansions ?

A

In Kolker and Collins’ series, 8% of total or 30% of Groleau type III tuberous breast required expansion

186
Q

In inverted T tuberous breast correction The success of these internal rearrangement techniques is contingent on the presence of enough tissue to augment the h ypoplastic lower pole.

A

T

187
Q

In tuberous breast we sho not remoce any prenchymal tissue T or F

A

F. remove excess gland from the deepest aspect of the subareolar gland to keep the implant size similar and prevent future herniation.

188
Q

In dual plane of tuberous breast prepectoral undermining beyond the upper edge of NAC

A

prepectoral undermining to the upper edge of the NAC,

189
Q

In familiar predisposition of poland syndrom ocuures mor common in male T or F

A

F. Familial cases have equal incidence in sexes and laterality.

190
Q

The percentage of poland syndrom in breast hypopalsia

A

Poland syndrome is involved in 14% of breast aplasia.

191
Q

Why there is prominant posterior fold in axila of poland syndrom patient?

A

compensatory hypertrophy of the teres major that simulated the normal contraction of the latissimus dorsi muscle.

192
Q

10% of syndactyly is a result of Poland syndrome. Tor F

A

T

193
Q

The percentage of the patients who developed aplsia of the rips ?

A

Aplasia of the ribs and cartilage involving rib segments two to five often leads to severe chest depression in 11% to 25% of patients.

194
Q

Eight percent of patients may have lung herniation.in poland syndrom

A

T

195
Q

Dextrocardia is present in 5.6% of patients, which rises to 9.6% when the deformity was on the left side.

A

T

196
Q

In poland Lipofilling can also be used to camouflage chest abnormalities and may obviate the need for custom silicone devices

A

T

197
Q

there have been no descriptions of use of ADM to secure the implant and to reduce the incidence of capsular contracture in Poland syndrome.

A

T

198
Q

Because of the incidence of vascular anomalies in the recipient vessels, preoperative angiography should be strongly considered in poland syndrom

A

T

199
Q

Because of the incidence of vascular anomalies in the recipient vessels, preoperative angiography should be strongly considered

A

T

200
Q

The defense between ANTERIOR THORACIC HYPOPLASIA and poland syndrom

A

a normal pectoralis major and sternum position

201
Q

ANTERIOR THORACIC HYPOPLASIA All the patients treated with subglandular implant. T or F

A

F. All patients in his series were treated with a partial submuscular anatomical implant.

202
Q

demonstrated that recurrence of breast growth is sevenfold higher following a reduction mammaplasty compared with mastectomy

A

T

203
Q

With careful preservation of the subareolar gland, most studies have indicated the rates of breast feeding in patients with breast hypertrophy with and without reduction mammaplasty to be equivalent ( ~60%

A

T

204
Q

Giant fibroadenoma refers to when the tumor is larger than 5 cm in diameter and/or weighs more than 100 g. F. or T

A

F. Giant fibroadenoma refers to when the tumor is larger than 5 cm in diameter and/or weighs more than 500 g

205
Q

Pathologically, fibroadenoma is difficult to distinguish from phyllodes tumor

A

T

206
Q

All cases of polythelia cases are generally sporadic;

A

F. cases of familial inheritance patterns have been reported. They may be associated with nephrourologic abnormalities and therefore a urinalysis and renal ultrasound is necessary

207
Q

breast cancer can occur with the accessory tissue at an equal rate to the natural breast.

A

T

208
Q

The incidance of polythelia is less common than poly mastia ?

A

F poly thelia 5.6% polymastia. 1-2%

209
Q

Although most cases of gynecomastia during adolescents are idiopathic, the most common cause in those >40 years old is most often drug induced.

A

T

210
Q

Webster described a classification of gynecomastia. depend on the shape of the breast

A

Webster described a classification based on tissue type

211
Q

The risk of breast cancer in patients with gynecomastia is more when compared with the normal male population

A

The risk of breast cancer in patients with gynecomastia remains equivalent when compared with the normal male population

212
Q

he incidence of breast cancer is 60 times higher in patients with gynecomastia associated with klienfelter syndrom

A

T