Aesthetics

Question 1

An isolated upper blepharoplasty performed in the presence of brow ptosis can over time worsen that problem,why?

Answer 1

as frontalis tone decreases with the elimination of the compensatory stimulus provided by hanging upper lid skin, resulting in increased brow ptosis

Question 2

fashion, it may be more desirable for the brow to reach its vertical peak closer to the lateral canthus

Answer 2

T

Question 3

the temporal branch of the facial nerve, and this is the only motor nerve at risk during a brow lifting procedure

Answer 3

T

Question 4

Staying in the subcutaneous plane while dissecting the forehead avoids any possibility of motor nerve injury

Answer 4

T

Question 5

The supratrochlear nerve plays a far more significant role in brow innervation than the nerve supraorbital

Answer 5

F. supraorbital

Question 6

Fat play major role in brow aesthetic T or F

Answer 6

f. There is minimal adiposity in the brow. Therefore, fat plays little role in the aging process of the brow

Question 7

Temporal hollowing can indeed play a significant role in aging the face,

Answer 7

T

Question 8

the sentinel vein, a structure that lies 1.5 cm superior and lateral to the lateral canthus

Answer 8

T. resents an important landmark, as it can be used to establish the position of the temporal branch of the facial nerve (1 cm lateral and inferior to the sentinel vein) as well as the temporal line of fusion at the temporal crest.1

Question 9

The presence of compensated brow ptosis must also be ruled out prior to performing an upper blepharoplasty.

Answer 9

T

Question 10

Neuromodulators are indicated in the treatment of isolated static rhytids of the brow.

Answer 10

Neuromodulators are indicated in the treatment of isolated dynamic rhytids of the brow.

Question 11

efficacy is more rapidly lost in males.regarding botox

Answer 11

T

Question 12

endoscopic brow lift effectively addresses central forehead and glabellar rhytids, lateral ptosis and crow’s feet are not as readily addressed with this procedure

Answer 12

T

Question 13

a high hairline or an acutely sloped forehead can considered an aesly approached with endoscope

Answer 13

a high hairline or an acutely sloped forehead can make this procedure technically difficult to perform

Question 14

Which potion of the orbiculares responsible for brow ptosis in upper eyelid and festoon in the lower eyelid

Answer 14

The orbital portion of the orbicularis can cause brow depression in the upper lid, and attenuation of this muscle can contribute to festoons in the lower lid

Question 15

What the analogue in lower eyelid to the levator and Muller muscle of the upper eyelid?

Answer 15

The lower eyelid retractors include the capsulopalpebral fascia and inferior tarsal muscle,

Question 16

The tear trough ligament is an osteocutaneous ligament between the palpebral and orbital portions of the orbicularis oculi muscle

Answer 16

T

Question 17

The lacrimal sac located between anterior and posterior limp of the lateral canthus

Answer 17

F. Medial canthus

Question 18

Patients with unrealistic self-image or who are not capable of understanding the limitations of the procedure are poor surgical candidates in blepharoplasty

Answer 18

T

Question 19

lower eyelid blepharoplasty is generally reconstractive in nature

Answer 19

F lower eyelid blepharoplasty is generally cosmetic.

Question 20

A safe rule of thumb is that skin resection should preserve a brow to margin distance of at least 10 mm

Answer 20

A safe rule of thumb is that skin resection should preserve a brow to margin distance of at least 20 mm

Question 21

Central orbital fat pad typically requires debulking more often than the medial pad

Answer 21

medial orbital fat pad typically requires debulking more often than the central pad

Question 22

If patient’s has significant lower lid laxity they are at higher risk for ectropion with any skin resection and a lateral canthal tightening procedure should be performed

Answer 22

T. Skin

Question 23

We need to make lateral canthal support even in case of transconjectival approach

Answer 23

F. Lateral canthal support is generally not needed in a transconjunctival approach, as the orbicularis is not weakened by division

Question 24

In case of subseptal hematoma after blepharoplasty high-dose IV steroids should be initiated to maximize visual recovery

Answer 24

F. Steriod should be given only in case of vision loss to maximize the vision recovery

Question 25

Chronic UVA exposure, smoking, radiation, and chronic diseases are extrinsic factors that accelerate skin aging

Answer 25

T

Question 26

Facelifting techniques have big effect on skin texture, elasticity, and discoloration, but they improve folds resulting from tissue shifting and descent.

Answer 26

F. Facelifting techniques have little effect on skin texture, elasticity, and discoloration, but they improve folds resulting from tissue shifting and descent.

Question 27

Why the retaining ligaments is considered important?

Answer 27

Retaining ligaments are landmarks for facial rejuvenation procedures as they separate facial fat compartment, are intimately related to the branches of the facial nerve,

Question 28

The branches of the facial nerve exit after getting out form parotid gland

Answer 28

F. With in parotid gland

Question 29

The main blood supply to the soft tissues of the face comes from branches of the external carotid artery and external jugular vein

Answer 29

F.internal jugular vein

Question 30

The infraorbital artery, another branch of the external carotid artery (from the facial artery)

Answer 30

The infraorbital artery, another branch of the external carotid artery (from the maxillary artery)

Question 31

The volume and position of tissues will define the need for asymmetrical undermining and SMAS elevation, or a combination of a facelift with fat grafting

Answer 31

T

Question 32

Perioperative pneumatic compression pump and early ambulation are useful for all facelift patients.

Answer 32

T.

Question 33

In short scar face lift the laxity of the neck can be addressed

Answer 33

F , not addressed

Question 34

The elevation vector of the SMAS is usually posterolateral.

Answer 34

The elevation vector of the SMAS is usually superolateral, and the vector of the skin redraping is usually posterolateral

Question 35

In SMAS flap at least partial transection of the zygomatic and masseteric-cutaneous ligaments for full mobilization of the cheek and jaw line.

Answer 35

T

Question 36

Nanofat is a fat grafting derivate from emulsification of macrofat

Answer 36

F. Nanofat is a fat grafting derivate from emulsification of microfat

Question 37

Some facelift procedures will have some effect on the neck

Answer 37

F. all facelift procedures will have some effect on the neck

Question 38

The facial artery and vein and the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve crosses the gland superficially inside its capsule.

Answer 38

F. The facial artery and vein and the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve crosses the gland superficially outside its capsule.

Question 39

the anterior belly of the digastric can be partially or totally excised without noticeable loss of function

Answer 39

T

Question 40

In an anterior neck, the superficial and deep planes of the neck can be resected

Answer 40

T

Question 41

Drains have shown to prevent hematomas or seromas but are advocated by many authors to help decrease the amount of swelling and bruising after a facelift and help the patient return quickly to social activitie

Answer 41

F. Drains have not shown to prevent hematomas or seromas but are advocated by many authors to help decrease the amount of swelling and bruising after a facelift and help the patient return quickly to social activitie

Question 42

quilting sutures is a strategy in prevention of hematoma in the face by reducing the rate of hematoma to zero

Answer 42

T

Question 43

Rohrich shows that at least 4 weeks of abstinence from smoking reduces respiratory and wound-healing complications.in face lift

Answer 43

T

Question 44

What the difference between the nasl vien and other system ?

Answer 44

The nasal veins do not have valves □ The nasal venous system has direct communication to the cavernous sinus, thus making nasal infections potentially a life-threatening event

Question 45

The vestibule is lined by hair-bearing squamous epithelium up to the level of the upper lateral cartilage,

Answer 45

F. The vestibule is lined by hair-bearing squamous epithelium up to the level of the caudal margin of the alar cartilage,

Question 46

What is the scroll area in the nose ?

Answer 46

Scroll area: The area where the cephalic edge of the lower lateral cartilage interlocks with the caudal edge of the upper lateral cartilage.

Question 47

more anterior position of the nasal frontal angle can make the nasal tip look less projecting while a more posterior or deeper position for the nasal frontal angle can make the nasal tip look relatively more projecting

Answer 47

T

Question 48

The degree of rotation of the nasal tip is assessed by evaluating the nasolabial angle.

Answer 48

T

Question 49

The alar-columellar relationship can relay on for collemular show evaluation

Answer 49

T

Question 50

modern rhinoplasty techniques they prefer to do nose before tip. T. F

Answer 50

T

Question 51

the revision surgeon must be prepared to use all tools available to make the anatomical structures as normal as possible to achieve satisfactory appearance and function

Answer 51

T

Question 52

Most otoplasty procedures are best performed e:3 years old when most ear growth is completed.

Answer 52

T

Question 53

All of newborns have an auricular deformity that persists in 33% by 1 month old ; 1 as many as 84% of deformities continue to improve over the first year of life

Answer 53

About 50% of newborns have an auricular deformity that persists in 33% by 1 month old ; 1 as many as 84% of deformities continue to improve over the first year of life

Question 54

Half of children have a bilateral ear deformity, and when deformity is unilateral, the right and left sides are affected equally.

Answer 54

T

Question 55

A helical anomaly/constricted ear is the most common disorder at birth (15%)

Answer 55

T

Question 56

The ears are particularly not tolerance to asymmetry.

Answer 56

The ears are particularly tolerant of asymmetry because of their lateral position over the temporal bones.

Question 57

Ideally, molding is started between 4 and 6 weeks

Answer 57

F. Ideally, molding is started between 1 and 3 weeks

Question 58

After 6weeks old, ear molding is not effective

Answer 58

F. After 12 weeks old, ear molding is not effective

Question 59

The ear deformity that is most amenable to molding is a stahl ear.

Answer 59

F. The ear deformity that is most amenable to molding is a prominent ear.

Question 60

Simple excisions of excess of abnormal ear structures can be performed during infancy with local anesthesia at 4-6 week

Answer 60

T

Question 61

The best time to do surgical correction for otopalsty is at 7 years

Answer 61

F. Above 3 years because the ear has reache dher 85%. Of it growth

Question 62

long-term memory and self-esteem begin to form at approximately 4 year old

Answer 62

T

Question 63

Approximately 15% of the population has a prominent ear

Answer 63

F. Approximately 5% of the population has a prominent ear

Question 64

Most patients will require recreation of the antihelical fold and setback of the concha. Rarely, a patient will have a normal antihelix and only require a procedure on the concha

Answer 64

T

Question 65

all patients will need to have the upper and/or middle third of the ear and lobule set pack as well

Answer 65

F. all patients will need to have the upper and/or middle third of the ear setback, 25% of patients in my practice will benefit from having their lobule set � ack as well

Question 66

Three-fourths of patients in my experience undergo bilateral setback otoplasty, whereas one-fourth of individuals have prominence of only one ear.

Answer 66

T

Question 67

skin excision in prominent ear is preferred because it facilitates the procedure by enhancing exposure

Answer 67

T

Question 68

scapha-concha sutures because it gives greater control and more predictability compared to scoring the cartilage

Answer 68

T. scoring the cartilage can cause damage to the cartilage and contour abnormalities

Question 69

On front view, the antihelix should have a gentle curve and the helix should be visible behind the antihelix

Answer 69

T

Question 70

It preferable to make cartilage excision because it reduces the risk of recurrence and weakens the area to facilitate the antihelix contour provided by the scapha-concha sutures in correction of the middle third of the ear

Answer 70

T

Question 71

An approximately 2.0 to 2.5 cm long piece of superior conchal cartilage is removed just above the scapha-concha sutures

Answer 71

An approximately 2.0 to 2.5 cm long piece of superior conchal cartilage is removed just below the scapha-concha sutures

Question 72

If more than a 7 mm width of cartilage is removed, then it is possible that the excess skin anteriorly might be bothersome to the patient and require excision

Answer 72

T

Question 73

Stahl ear can cause cause psychosocial morbidity. F. Or. T

Answer 73

F. does not cause psychosocial morbidity.

Question 74

Always , stahl patients have a prominent ear deformity

Answer 74

Occasionally, stahl ear patients may have a prominent ear deformity

Question 75

In cleft lope The scar can be repierced 3 months later when it has achieved its maximal strength.

Answer 75

T

Question 76

After rcsccting the keloid, the patient wears a pressure earring beginning immediately following the procedure at night

Answer 76

F. After rcsccting the keloid, the patient wears a pressure earring beginning 2 weeks following the procedure at night

Question 77

Rarely, a skin abrasion or full-thickness wound can occur with ear molding;

Answer 77

T

Question 78

The most common problem is an unfavorable "cosmetic" outcome. Infection, hematoma, extrusion of sutures, or wound dehiscence is uncommon

Answer 78

T

Question 79

The most common problem is an unfavorable "cosmetic" outcome. Infection, hematoma, extrusion of sutures, or wound dehiscence is uncommon

Answer 79

T

Question 80

The sub muscular plane is typically preferred for implant placement.

Answer 80

F. The subperiosteal plane is typically preferred for implant placement.

Question 81

Skeletal augmentation can be viewed as a substitute for soft tissue suspension

Answer 81

Skeletal augmentation should not be viewed as a substitute for soft tissue suspension

Question 82

An ideal implant material is one that is biocompatible and has minimal interaction with the surrounding tissues

Answer 82

T

Question 83

Porous implants typically result in less robust capsule formation compared to smooth implants. Implant migration and adjacent bone erosion also tend to be lower in porous implants

Answer 83

T

Question 84

Implant migration and adjacent bone erosion also tend to be lower in smooth implants

Answer 84

F. Implant migration and adjacent bone erosion also tend to be lower in porous implants

Question 85

Solid silicone implants offer several advantages over other materials ?

Answer 85

Easily molding to take the shape and size we want Easily fixated by screw or suture Less infection

Question 86

Screw fixation provides for more freedom in pocket dissection and thus greater exposure at the time of implant insertion

Answer 86

T

Question 87

In patients with a relatively abnormal occlusion, deficient midface projection can be corrected with facial implants

Answer 87

In patients with a relatively normal occlusion, deficient midface projection can be corrected with facial implants

Question 88

Malar implants can simulate the visual effect ofLeFort I advancement.

Answer 88

F. paranasal implants can simulate the visual effect ofLeFort I advancement.

Question 89

Paranasal augmentation is don by placing the implant directly over the piriform operator

Answer 89

F. Lateral to piriform operator Compromise ofthe nasal airway can occur ifimplants are positioned over the piriform aperture

Question 90

Better exposure of the midface skeleton can be obtained by incorporating an intraoral sulcus incision.

Answer 90

T

Question 91

Prior to closure, malar soft tissue should be resuspended over the secured implant.

Answer 91

T

Question 92

In Temporal Augmentationthe implant placed under the muscles

Answer 92

F. the PMMA is placed over the deficient muscle

Question 93

If patients have not had surgery or have had the temple used as a remote access to other regions of the face (i.e., subperiosteal facelift), then the implant is placed beneath the temporalis muscle though an incision in the temporal hair-bearing

Answer 93

T

Question 94

Chin implant insertion better to approached through intra oral. T. F

Answer 94

F. submental incision exclusively

Question 95

Bone resorption of adjacent areas has been reported and is associated with porous. implants

Answer 95

F. Bone resorption of adjacent areas has been reported and is associated with solid implants

Question 96

If implant infection does occur, antibiotic treatment alone is usually sufficient.

Answer 96

F. If implant infection does occur, antibiotic treatment alone is usually not sufficient.

Question 97

The horizontal genioplasty remains as the most commonly performed osteotomy of the facial skeleton,

Answer 97

F The horizontal genioplasty remains as the second most commonly performed osteotomy of the facial skeleton, after rhinoplasty

Question 98

Alloplastic augmentation with chin implants can be effective in correcting mild to moderate volume deficiencies in the vertical plane

Answer 98

F. Alloplastic augmentation with chin implants can be effective in correcting mild to moderate volume deficiencies in the sagittal plane

Question 99

Major limitations of alloplastic methods occur when trying to correct vertical excess or any asymmetries of the anterior

Answer 99

T

Question 100

Genioplasty can be seen as a replacement to orthognathic surgery

Answer 100

F. should not be seen as a replacement to orthognathic surgery

Question 101

Th e lower lip, determines the extent to which the chin should be advanced

Answer 101

Th e lower lip, and not the other structures in the mid and upper face, determines the extent to which the chin should be advanced

Question 102

vertical lengthening softens the labiomental crease

Answer 102

T

Question 103

Sagittal advancement or vertical shortening of the symphyseal segment would result in deepening of the labiomental groove

Answer 103

T

Question 104

The majority of individuals requesting aesthetic enlargement of the chin have class II malocclusion secondary to mandibular retrognathia

Answer 104

T

Question 105

There is no role for orthodontic treatment to correct the malocclusion T. F

Answer 105

F. Although prior orthodontic treatment can convert class II malocclusion into type I, it corrects the underlying skeletal problems

Question 106

Alwas need to detach the anterior belly of the digastric muscles from the lingual surface.in case we want to move the chin segment

Answer 106

F. If extensive anterior movement of the chin segment is anticipated, it might be necessary to detach the anterior belly of the digastric muscles from the lingual surface.

Question 107

Wound dehiscence and infection are common after osseous genioplasty.

Answer 107

F. Wound dehiscence and infection are rare after osseous genioplasty.

Question 108

Tooth devitalization is probably one of the most serious complications after osseous genioplasty and can be avoided by placing the osteotomy at least 3mm caudal to the occlusal edge of the mandibular canines

Answer 108

F. Tooth devitalization is probably one of the most serious complications after osseous genioplasty and can be avoided by placing the osteotomy at least 30 mm caudal to the occlusal edge of the mandibular canines

Question 109

Tooth devitalization is probably one of the most serious complications after osseous genioplasty and can be avoided by placing the osteotomy at least 3 mm caudal to the occlusal edge of the mandibular canines

Answer 109

F. Tooth devitalization is probably one of the most serious complications after osseous genioplasty and can be avoided by placing the osteotomy at least 30 mm caudal to the occlusal edge of the mandibular canines