Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MCAT > Behavioral Sciences Ch 4. Cognition, Consciousness, and Language > Flashcards

Behavioral Sciences Ch 4. Cognition, Consciousness, and Language Flashcards

1
Q

Information processing model

A

States that the brain and codes, stores, and retrieves information much like a computer, four key pillars:

thinking requires sensation, encoding, storage of stimuli

stimuli must be analyzed by the brain (rather than a responded to automatically) to be useful in decision-making

decisions made in one situation can be extrapolated and adjusted to help solve new problems (also called situational modification)

problem-solving is dependent not only on the persons cognitive level, but also on the context and complexity of the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Piget’s stages of cognitive development

A

Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sensorimotor stage

A

Focuses on manipulating the environment to meet physical needs three circular reactions, object permanence ends the stage, about 0-2 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Circular reactions

A

Repetitive behaviors, two types: primary and secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Object permanence

A

The understanding that objects continue to exist even went out of view, beginning of representational thought

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Preoperational stage

A

Focuses on the symbolic thinking, egocentrism, and centration, lasts from about 2-7 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Symbolic thinking

A

The ability to pretend, play make-believe, and have an imagination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Egocentrism

A

The inability to imagine what another person may feel or think

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Centration

A

The tendency to focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon, or inability to understand the concept of conservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Concrete operational stage

A

Focuses on understanding the feelings of others in manipulating physical (concrete) objects, understands conservation, engage in logical thought with concrete objects, typically 7-11 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Formal operational stage

A

Focuses on abstract thought and problem-solving, starts around 11 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Biological factors that affect cognition

A

Organic brain disorders, genetic and chromosomal conditions, metabolic derangements, and drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Study of cognition

A

Our brains process and react to the incredible information overload presented to us by the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dual coding theory

A

States of both verbal association and visual images are used to process and store information, builds redundancy and increases the chance that the information can be retrieved and used effectively when cued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cognitive development

A

The development of one’s ability to think and solve problems across the lifespan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Jean Piaget

A

One of the most influential figures in developmental psychology, divided life span into four stages of cognitive development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Primary circular reactions

A

The repetition of body movement that originally occurred by chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Secondary circular reactions

A

Occurs when manipulation is focused on some thing outside the body, often because the child gets a response from the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Representational thought

A

The creation of mental representations of external objects or events, object permanence is the beginning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Conservation

A

A logical thinking ability that allows a person to determine that a certain quantity will remain the same despite adjustment of the container, shape, or apparent size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Culture and cognitive development

A

Very much related, culture determines what one is expected to learn, rate of development also varies culture to culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lev Vygotsky

A

Prominent educational psychologist, propose that the engine driving cognitive development is the child’s internalization of his or her culture, including interpersonal and societal rules, symbols, and language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Time-based perspective memory

A

The ability to remember to perform a task at a specific time in the future, declines with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

Consists of problem-solving skills, peaks in early adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Crystallized intelligence

A

Related to the use of learned skills and knowledge, peaks in middle adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Activities of daily living

A

Eating, bathing, toileting, dressing, and ambulation, ability to function in these activities is linked to a decline in intellectual abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dementia

A

Often begins with impaired memory, but later progresses to impaired judgment and confusion, personality changes also common, common cause is Alzheimer’s disease but another is vascular dementia caused by high blood pressure and repeated microscopic clots in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Craniofacial features of Fetal Alcohol Syndrom

A

Skin folds of the corners of the eyes, low nasal bridge, short nose, indistinct philtrum, small head circumference, small eye-opening, small mid face, thin upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Delirium

A

Rapid fluctuation in cognitive function that is reversible and caused my medical causes such as electrolyte and pH disturbances, malnutrition, low blood sugar, infection, a drug reaction, alcohol withdrawal, and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Problem solving

A

Requires identification and understanding of the problem, generation of potential solutions, testing of potential solutions, and evaluation of results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mental set

A

A pattern of approach for a given problem, an inappropriate mental set may negatively impact problem-solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Functional fixedness

A

The tendency to use objects only in the way they are normally utilized, which may create barriers to problem-solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Problem solving types

A

Trial and error, algorithms, deductive reasoning, and inductive reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Deductive reasoning

A

aka top down reasoning, deriving conclusions from known general rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Inductive reasoning

A

aka bottom up reasoning, driving generalizations/conclusions from evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Heuristics

A

Short cuts or rules of thumb used to make a decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Biases

A

Exist when an experimenter a decision makers unable to objectively evaluate information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Intuition

A

A gut feeling regarding a particular decision, can often be attributed to experience with similar situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences

A

Proposes seven areas of intelligence including: linguistic, logical mathematical, musical, visual spatial, bodily kinesthetic, interpersonal, and intrapersonal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Trial and error

A

A less sophisticated type of problem solving in which various solutions are tried until one is found that seems to work, only effective when there are relatively few possible solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Algorithm

A

Formula or procedure for solving certain type of problem, can be mathematical or a set of instructions, designed to automatically produce the desired solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Availability heuristic

A

Use when we try to decide how likely something is, we make her decision based on how easily similar instances can be imagined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

Involves categorizing items on the basis of whether they fit into the prototypical, stereotypical, representative image of the category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Base rate fallacy

A

Using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring actual numerical information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Disconfirmation principal

A

When evidence obtained from testing demonstrates that the solution does not work and the solution should be discarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Confirmation bias

A

The tendency to focus on information that fits an individuals beliefs, while rejecting information that goes against them, contributes to overconfidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Overconfidence

A

A tendency to erroneously interpret one’s decisions, knowledge, and believes is infallible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Belief perseverance

A

Refers to the inability to reject a particular belief despite clear evidence to the contrary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Recognition primed decision model

A

What more accurately describes some intuition, when a brain is actually sorting through a wide variety of information to match a pattern, the person has gained an extensive level of experience that he or she is able to access without awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Emotion

A

Emotion is the subjective experience of a person in a certain situation, will influence how a person thinks and makes decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

IQ

A

Intelligence quotient, measurement of intelligence, many versions over the years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

IQ equation

A

IQ=mental age/chronological age x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

States of consciousness

A

Alertness, sleep, dreaming, and altered states of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Alertness

A

The state of being awake and able to think, perceived, process, and expressed information, beta and alpha waves predominate on electroencephalography (EEG), higher cortisol levels maintained by neurological circuits in the prefrontal cortex that communicates with the reticular formation to keep the cortex awake and alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Sleep

A

Very important for health of the brain and body, multiple stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Stage 1 sleep

A

Light sleep that is dominated by theta waves on EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Stage 2 sleep

A

Slightly deeper sleep in stage one and includes theta waves, sleep spindles, and K complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Theta waves

A

Present during sleep stages 1 and 2, characterized by irregular waveforms with slower frequencies and higher voltages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Sleep spindles

A

EEG with a short section of very frequent and high voltaged signals, common in sleep stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

K complexes

A

EEG with a short section where the voltage peaks and then shots down, common in sleep stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Stages 3 and 4

A

Deep, slow wave sleep (SWS), delta waves predominate EEG, most sleep-wake disorders occur during these stages, dreaming in SWS focuses on consolidating declarative memories, increased growth hormone release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Non rapid eye movement sleep

A

NREM sleep - stages 1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Rapid eye movement sleep

A

REM sleep - aka paradoxical sleep, the mind appears close to awake on EEG, but the person in asleep, eye movements and body paralysis occur in this stage, dreaming in REM focuses on consolidating procedural memories

64
Q

Sleep cycle

A

Approximately 90 minutes for adults, normally Stage 1-2-3-4-3-2-REM or just 1-2-3-4-REM, although REM more frequent towards the mroning

65
Q

Melatonin

A

Released by the pineal gland (controlled by hypothalamus which has connections to retina), results in sleepiness, release triggered by changes in light in the evening, serotonin derived

66
Q

Cortisol

A

Promotes wakefulness, levels increase in the early morning, released from adrenal cortex in presence of ACTH from anterior pituitary (which is released in presence of CRF from hypothalamus

67
Q

Circadian rhythms

A

Internally generated rhythms that regulate our daily cycle of waking and sleeping, normally trend around a 24 hr day

68
Q

Dreaming

A

Most (75%) occurs during REM, but some occurs during other sleep stages, many different models hat attempt to account for the content and purpose of dreaming

69
Q

Dyssomnias

A

Refer to disorders that make it difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, or avoid sleep, includes insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea, and sleep deprivation

70
Q

Parasomnias

A

Group of sleep disorders that include night terrors and sleepwalking or somnambulism

71
Q

Sleep disorder groups

A

Dyssomnias and parasomnias

72
Q

Hypnosis

A

A state of consciousness in which individuals appear to be in control of their normal faculties but are in a highly suggestible state, often used for pain control, psychological therapy, memory enhancement, weight loss, and smoking cessation, starts with hypnotic induction

73
Q

Meditation

A

Involves acquiring of the mind and is often used for relief of anxiety, it is also played a role in many of the worlds religions, theta and slow alpha waves on EEG

74
Q

Consciousness

A

One’s level of awareness of both the world and one’s on existence within that world

75
Q

Altered states

A

Hypnosis, meditation, drug-induced altered states, can also be caused from sickness, dementia, delirium, and coma

76
Q

Electroencephalography

A

Records the average of the electrical patterns within different portions of the brain

77
Q

EEG patterns

A

alpha, beta, delta, and theta waves

78
Q

Beta waves

A

Have a high frequency and occur when the person is alert or attending to a mental task that requires concentration, occurs when neurons are randomly firing

79
Q

EEG awake

A

Beta and alpha waves

80
Q

Alpha waves

A

Occur when we are awake but with our eyes closed, are somewhat slower than beta waves, also more synchronous than beta waves

81
Q

Paradoxical sleep

A

aka REM sleep, ones heart rate, breathing patterns, and EEG mimic wakefulness, but the individual is asleep

82
Q

Activation synthesis theory

A

Dreams are caused by wide spread, random activation of neural circuity, this activation can mimic incoming sneseoy information, and may also consist of pieces of stored memories, current and previous desires, met and unmet needs, and other experiences, the cortex then tries to stitch this unrelated information together, resulting in a dream that is both bizarre and somewhat familiar

83
Q

Problem solving dream theory

A

Dreams are a way to solve problems while you are sleeping, dreams are untethered by the rules of the real world and thus allow interpretation of obstacles differently than during waking hours

84
Q

Cognitive process dream theory

A

Dreams are merely the sleeping counterpart of stream-of-consciousness

85
Q

Neurocognitive models of dreaming

A

Seek to unify biological and psychological perspectives on dreaming by correlating the subjective, cognitive experience of dreaming with measurable physiological changes

86
Q

Insomnia

A

Difficutly falling asleep or staying asleep, the most common disorder, may be related to anxiety, depression, medications, or disruption to sleep patterns

87
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Conditions characterized by lack of voluntary control over the onset of sleep, symptoms include cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations

88
Q

Cataplexy

A

A loss of muscle control and sudden intrusion of REM sleep during waking hours, usually caused by an emotional trigger

89
Q

Sleep paralysis

A

A sensation of being unable to move despite being awake

90
Q

Hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations

A

Hallucinations when going to sleep or awakening

91
Q

Sleep apnea

A

Inability to breathe during sleep, two types: obstructive and central

92
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea

A

Occurs when a physical blockage in the pharynx or trachea prevents airflow

93
Q

Central sleep apnea

A

Occurs when the brain fails to send signals to the diaphragm to breathe

94
Q

Night terrors

A

Most common in children, periods of intense anxiety that occur during SWS, sympathetic overdrive, difficult to wake

95
Q

Sleepwalking

A

aka somnambulism, usually occurs during SWS, no recollection

96
Q

Sleep deprivation

A

Results in irritability, mood disturbances, decreased performance, and slowed reaction time, extreme cases can result in psychosis

97
Q

REM rebound

A

An earlier onset and greater duration of REM sleep compared to normal that a person experiences after sleeping following sleep deprivation

98
Q

Hypnotic induction

A

Where a hypnotist seeks to relax the subject and increase the subject’s level of concentration

99
Q

Consciousness-altering drug groups

A

Depressants, stimulants, opiates, and hallucinogens

100
Q

Depressants

A

Reduce nervous system activity, resulting in a sense of relaxation and reduced anxiety, include alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines, promote or mimic GABA activity in the brain

101
Q

Stimulates

A

Cause an increase in arousal in the nervous system, increases frequency of action potentials, includes amphetamines, cocaine, and ecstasy, increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin concentration at the synaptic cleft

102
Q

Opiates/opioids

A

Include heroin, morphine, opium, and prescription pain medications such as oxycodone and hydrocodone, can cause death by respiratory depression

103
Q

Hallucinogens

A

Complex reaction between various neurotransmitters, especially serotonin, typically cause distortions in reality and fantasy, enhancement of sensory experiences, introspection, increased heart rate and blood pressure, dilation of pupils, sweating, and increased body temperature, Includes lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), peyote, mescaline, ketamine, and psilocybin-containing mushrooms

104
Q

Marijuana

A

Has depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic effectives, active ingredient is tetrahydrocannabinol

105
Q

Drug addiction

A

Mediated by the mesolimbic pathway, which includes the nucleus accumbent, medial forebrain bundle, and ventral segmental area, dopamine is the main neurotransmitter in this pathway

106
Q

Mesolimbic reward pathway

A

Mediates drug addition, one of four dopaminergic pathways in the brain that is normally involved in motivation and emotional response, gambling and falling in love also activate this pathway

107
Q

Nucleus accumbens

A

NAc - in mesolimbic reward pathway

108
Q

Medial forebrain bundle

A

MFB - connections the nucleus accumbent and the central segmental area

109
Q

Ventral tegmental area

A

VTA - in mesolimbic reward pathway

110
Q

Alcohol

A

Increases activity of the GABA receptor that causes hyperpolarization of the membrane, causes generalized brain inhibition resulting in diminished arousal at moderate doses, this including inhibiting part of the brain that prevents inappropriate behavior, increases dopamine levels causing a sense of mild euphoria, logical reasoning and motor skills are affected, one of the most widely used drugs

111
Q

Alcohol myopia

A

Inability to recognize consequences of actions, creates very short sighted view of the world

112
Q

Alcoholism

A

Rates tend to be higher for those of lower socioeconomic status, but those of LSES enter recovering sooner and at higher rates, runs in families, children of alcoholics potentially suffer from MDD, long term consequences include cirrhosis and liver failure, pancreatic damage, gastric or duodenal ulcers, gastrointestinal cancer, and brain disorders including Wenicke-Korsakoff syndrom

113
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrom

A

Caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1) and characterized by severe memory impairment with changes in mental status and loss of motor skills

114
Q

Barbiturates

A

Historically used as anxiety reducing and sleep medications, most replaced by benzodiazepines, with alcohol overdose may result in coma or death, increase GABA activity causing sense of relaxation, highly addictive

115
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

anxiety reducing and sleep medications, replaced most barbiturates, with alcohol overdose may result in coma or death, increase GABA activity causing sense of relaxation, highly addictive

116
Q

Amphetamines

A

Increased arousal by increasing release of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin at the synapse and decreasing their uptake, causes a reduction in appetite and decreased need for sleep, increased heart rate and blood pressure, euphoria, hypervigilance, anxiety, delusions of grandeur, and paranoia, prolonged use can result in stroke or brain damage, withdrawal common after use leading to depression, fatigue, and irritability

117
Q

Cocaine

A

Decreases reuptake of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin, causes a reduction in appetite and decreased need for sleep, increased heart rate and blood pressure, euphoria, hypervigilance, anxiety, delusions of grandeur, and paranoia, withdrawal common after use leading to depression, fatigue, and irritability, has anesthetic and vasoconstrictive properties so sometimes used in surgeries but can cause heart attacks and stores when used recreationally

118
Q

Crack

A

Form of cocaine that can be smoked, highly addictive

119
Q

Ecstasy

A

Acts as a hallucinogen combined with with an amphetamine, causes increased heart rate increase blood pressure, blurry vision, sweating, nausea, hyperthermia, euphoria, increased alertness, and overwhelming sense of well-being and connectedness

120
Q

Opium

A

Derived from poppy plant

121
Q

Opiates

A

Naturally occurring forms of opium, bind to opioid receptors in the nervous system causing a decreased reaction to pain in a sense of euphoria, can cause death by respiratory suppression

122
Q

Opioids

A

Semisythetic derivatives of opium, bind to opioid receptors in the nervous system causing a decreased reaction to pain in a sense of euphoria, can cause death by respiratory suppression

123
Q

Heroin

A

An opioid substitute for morphine (an opiate)

124
Q

Tetrahydrocannabinol

A

THC - exerts effects by acting at cannabinoid receptors, glycine receptors, and opioid receptors, inhibits GABA activity and indirectly increases dopamine activity, causes eye redness, dry mouth, fatigue, impairment of short term memory, increased heart rate, increased appetite, and lowered blood pressure, how high is achieved is unknown

125
Q

Selective attention

A

Allows one to pay attention to a particular stimulus (one part of the sensorium) while determining if additional stimuli in the background require attention

126
Q

Divided attention

A

Uses automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at one time

127
Q

Attention

A

Concentrating on one aspect of the sensory environment

128
Q

Sensorium

A

The sensory environment

129
Q

Cocktail party phenomenon

A

We hear our name across the room when focusing on another conversation, shows that selective attention is probably a filter that allows us to focus on one thing while allowing other stimuli to be processed in the background and if there is one that is particularly important, our attention will shift to them

130
Q

Language components

A

Phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, and pragmatics

131
Q

Phonology

A

The actual sound of speech

132
Q

Morphology

A

The building blocks of works, such as rules for pluralization, past tense, and so forth

133
Q

Semantics

A

The meaning of words

134
Q

Syntax

A

The rules dictating word order

135
Q

Pragmatics

A

The changes in language delivery depending on context, effected by prosody

136
Q

Nativist (biological) theory

A

Explains language acquisition as being innate and controlled by the language acquisition device (LAD), credited to linguist Noam Chomsky

137
Q

Learning (behaviorist) theory

A

Explains language acquisition as being controlled by operant conditioning and reinforcement by parents and caregivers, proposed by BF Skinner

138
Q

Social interactionist theory

A

Explains language acquisition as being caused by a motivation to communicate and interact with others, interplay between biological and social processes,

139
Q

Whorfian (linguistic relativity) hypothesis

A

States that the lens through which we view and interpret the world is create by language

140
Q

Speech areas of the brain

A

Found in the dominant hemisphere, usually the left

141
Q

Broca’s area

A

Controls motor function of speech via connections to the motor cortex, damage results in Broca’s aphasia, located in the inferior frontal gyrus of the frontal lobe

142
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

A nonfluent aphasia in which generating each word requires great effort

143
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

Controls language comprehension, damage results in Wernicke’s aphasia, located in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe

144
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

A fluent, nonsensical aphasia with lack of comprehension

145
Q

Arcuate fasciculus

A

Connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas, damage results in conduction aphasia, a bundle of axons that allows appropriate association between language comprehension and speech production

146
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

The inability to repeat words heard despite intact speech generation and comprehension

147
Q

Phonemes

A

Individual speech sounds, 40 in English, others for different languages

148
Q

Categorical perception

A

The ability to learn when subtle differences between speech sounds represent a change in meaning or not

149
Q

Morphemes

A

Building blocks of language ex. -ed, re-, etc

150
Q

Prosody

A

The rhythm, cadence, and inflection of our voices

151
Q

Babbling

A

Important precursor to language, occurs during first year and peaks between nine and 12 months

152
Q

Language development

A

0-1 year: babbling

12 - 18 months: one word per month

18 months: explosion of language

18 - 20 months: combination of words

2-3 years: longer sentences, vocabulary increases exponentially, errors of growth

Age 5: mastered language

153
Q

Errors of growth

A

Where a child applies a grammatical rule in a situation where it does not apply

154
Q

Language acquisition device

A

A theoretical pathway in the brain that allows infants to process and absorb language rules

155
Q

Critical period

A

Period where language development must occur or it won’t, it is more likely a sensitive period

156
Q

Sensitive period

A

A time when environmental input has maximal effect on the development of an ability

MCAT (67 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions