3/27 Flashcards

1
Q

leukocytoclastic vaculitis

A

microscopic polyangiitis is an example

- only in small vessels

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2
Q

timeline after anemia correction

A

reticulocytes peak around 1 week, hemoglobin takes 8 weeks to correct

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3
Q

stimulus control therapy of sleeping

A

dissociate bed from any other activities besides sleep and sex

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4
Q

eplerenone

A

aldosterone antagonist (like spironolactone with fewer side effects)

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5
Q

indication for narrow spectrum seizures

A

focal (involving only one hemisphere)

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6
Q

bacterial meningitis not covered by third gen cephalosporins

A

listeria (altered penicillin binding proteins)

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7
Q

risks for parotitis

A

decreasing saliva flow - anticholinergics, intubation, dehydration

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8
Q

GGT

A

secondary test to distinguish high alkaline phosphatase from liver vs bone sources (high in liver)

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9
Q

sensitivity to everyday sounds

A

problem with the stapedius muscle, innervated by the facial nerve
- common in Bells palsy

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10
Q

treatment for essential hypertension

A

beta blockers

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11
Q

persistent depressive disorder timeline

A

greater than two years

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12
Q

medications with negative chronotropic effects

A
  • beta blockers
  • non-D CCBs
  • digoxin
  • amiodarone/sotalol
  • cholinergic agonists
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13
Q

granulomas in bowel disease

A

Chrons

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14
Q

recommendations for putting in central line

A
  • hand hygiene
  • barrier precaution
  • chlorhexidine antiseptic
  • subclavian vein use
  • prompt removal
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15
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome with differential clubbing in hands and feet

A

PDA - normal blood is delivered to hands but deoxygenated blood is delivered to feet

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16
Q

mechanism for peeing in normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

stretching of descending cortical fibers

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17
Q

worst prognostic factor in PSGN

A

older age

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18
Q

BRAF

A

melanoma

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19
Q

location of fibrinoid necrosis

A

has to be in vessels

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20
Q

Councilman bodies

A

apoptotic bodies in hepatitis that a strongly eosinophilic

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21
Q

splitting

A

something is all bad or all good

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22
Q

anemia with low reticulocytes

A

pure red cell aplasia (antibodies against RBC precursors)

- due to thymoma

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23
Q

infections acquired during birth

A

chlamydia and neisseria (can cause blindness), group B strep

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24
Q

when is toxoplasmosis acquired

A

before birth (in utero)

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25
Q

constipation due to mass in uterus

A

fibroids

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26
Q

mechanism of cyanide poisoning

A

lower peripheral oxygen consumption by inhibiting oxygen dependent phosphorylation of cytochrome c in mitochondria

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27
Q

borderline personality disorder

A

unstable relationships with marked impulsivity (you know who)

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28
Q

clue cells

A

epithelial cells covered in gram variable rods (bacterial vaginosis)

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29
Q

heart block increaser with severe constipation

A

CCBs

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30
Q

in patient with afib, what prevents the use of a beta blocker

A

history of COPD (beta blocker would make it worse)

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31
Q

severity of mitral stenosis

A

length of time between S2 and opening snap

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32
Q

signs of hypothyroidism in neonate

A

slow, umbilical hernia, poor brain development (needed for myelination), puffy face, intellectual disability

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33
Q

cells that can not use ketone bodies

A

RBCs, no mitochondria

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34
Q

treatment for male pattern baldness

A

finasteride

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35
Q

major complication of lamotrigine

A

SJS

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36
Q

elevated hepatic enzymes with concurrent neurologic disease

A

Wilsons (elevated copper)

- due a slit lamp exam

37
Q

histology in MS

A

perivenular inflammatory infiltrates (T cells and macrophages)

38
Q

microglial nodules

A

HIV encephalitis

39
Q

sponiform encephalopathy

A

prion disease

40
Q

blood flow in right ventricle

A

relatively constant because pressure are not as high

41
Q

psuedogout

A

calcium pyrophosphate crystals

42
Q

most common cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhage

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy

43
Q

common type of inheritance in enzyme deficiencies

A

autosomal recessive

44
Q

pressure tracing of mitral regurgitation

A

high increase in atrial pressure

45
Q

differences between neuroleptic malignant syndrome and serotonin syndrome

A
NMS = diffuse rigidity and bradyreflexia
serotonin = neuromuscular hyperactivity
46
Q

carboxyhemoglobin

A

measure of CO bound to oxygen

47
Q

cause of methemoglobin

A

drugs (dapsone and nitrites), enzyme deficiencies and hemoglobinopathies (not CO!)

48
Q

duration of headaches

A

cluster = shortest
migraine = 4-72 hours
tension (band) = variable

49
Q

changes with GFR and FF over increasing efferent contrictions

A

low constriction = high FF and high GFR because blood is diverted through kidney
high constriction = high FF, low GFR (higher oncotic pressure pulls flow back, decreasing GFR)

50
Q

side of speech areas in brain

A

left

51
Q

two types of CGD tests

A
  • nitroblue tetrazolium (turns dark blue in normal)

- Dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry (green)

52
Q

lipid A

A

same thing as LPS, endotoxin

53
Q

three parts of LPS

A
  • O antigen (out membrane polysaccharide)
  • core polysaccharide
  • Lipid A (cause of toxic properties)
54
Q

renal cell carcinomas come from what cell type

A

PCT

55
Q

oncocytomas come from what cell type

A

collecting duct

56
Q

why would an RBC not make ATP in glycolysis

A

to form 2,3 BPG

57
Q

2,3 BPG

A

increased in hypoxia and chronic anemia

- promotes oxygen delivery to tissues

58
Q

what not to assume in vein compression due to lung tumor

A

SVC

  • pay attention to signs
  • one sided = brachiocephalic
  • only arm = subclavian
  • both sides = SVC
59
Q

cause of clubbing

A

chronic hypoxia

60
Q

second hand smoking can lead to….

A
  • SIDS, otitis media and asthma
61
Q

blueish neoplasm under nail bed

A

glomus tumor or subungual melanoma

62
Q

glomangioma

A

tumor of modified smooth muscle cells

  • these are found in nail beds, pads of fingers and toes and ears
  • used for thermoregulation to prevent heat loss
63
Q

suprasellar lesions with three components

A
  • craniopharyngioma

- solid tumor cells, cystic machine oil and calcified portion

64
Q

myxomatous degeneration

A
  • pathological weakening of connective tissue

seen in Marfans and mitral valve prolapse

65
Q

things causing papillary necrosis

A

acute pyelonephritis, sickle cell, diabetes, or analgesic nephropathy

66
Q

equation for resistance in parallel

A

1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2….

- key is all terms are inverted

67
Q

three most important predisposing factors in DM1

A
  • too much insulin
  • not enough food
  • exercise
68
Q

mechanism for low glucose in DM1 after exercise

A

in normal individuals, insulin production stops during exercise
- in DM1, exogenous insulin can’t be controlled, so blood sugars drop

69
Q

primary causes of lacunar infarcts

A

lipohyalinosis and microatheroma due to hypertension

70
Q

vessels associated with factor V Leiden

A

veins

71
Q

etiology of mass in old TB lesion

A

colonization by aspergillus (fungus ball)

72
Q

cor pulmonale

A

right heart failure due to a lung cause

73
Q

rotavirus vs norovirus

A

there is vaccination against rotavirus, other than that they can present the same

74
Q

medications to avoid in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A
  • want to avoid lowering ventricular volumes
  • vasodilators - decrease afterload leading to decrease in afterload
  • diuretics
75
Q

aqueous humor in eye is produced from…

A

ciliary epithelium

76
Q

muscarinic agonists increase outflow in what part of eye?

A

trabecular meshwork outflow (Schlemm canal)

77
Q

prostaglandins increase outflow from what part of eye

A

uveoscleral outflow

78
Q

curling ulcers

A

ulcers in duodenum due to stress, due to local ischemia

79
Q

cushing ulcers

A

vagus nerve stimulation by increase in intracranial pressure leads to increase in acid and ulcer

80
Q

systolic vs diastolic dysfunction

A
systolic = dilated
diastolic = hypertrophic
81
Q

important clinical indicator in MR and MS

A
MR = S3 heart sound (too much volume)
MS = time between closure and opening snap
82
Q

channels that fish toxins act on…

A

sodium

83
Q

drugs revealing G6PD

A

bactrim, dapsone, malarials , nitrofurantoin

84
Q

cholesterol 7alpha hydroxylase

A

rate limiting step of bile acid synthesis

85
Q

achalasia can arise secondary too.

A

Chagas

86
Q

menetrier disease

A

hyperplasia of gastric mucosa, excess mucus, protein loss, parietal call atrophy

87
Q

types of stomach cancer

A

intestinal - h pylori, tobacco, smoked foods, gastritis

diffuse - not h pylori, signet rings, linitis plastica

88
Q

d-xylose test

A

to test for mucosal defects or bacterial overgowth syndrome

- presents with low levels in blood and urine