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AAA - Board by day > 3/26 > Flashcards

3/26 Flashcards

1
Q

failure in hypospadias

A

fusion of urogenital folds

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2
Q

failure in epispadias

A

faulty positioning of genital tubrecle

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3
Q

burkholderia cepacia

A

catalase positive organism in CGD

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4
Q

inhibin is released by….

A

sertoli cells

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5
Q

inhibin

A

released by sertoli cell and suppresses FSH via the pituitary

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6
Q

reentry circuit around tricuspid valve annulus

A

atrial flutter

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7
Q

TCA cycle enzyme requiring thiamine

A

alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

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8
Q

Call-Exner bodies

A

in granulosa cell tumors of ovary (markers are inhibin and estrogen)

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9
Q

most common reason for complete mole

A

duplication of sperm leading to XX (two sperm fertilization is less common XY)

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10
Q

functions of CN9

A
  • stylopharyngeus muscle
  • parotid gland secretion
  • sensory of tympanic membrane, eustachian tube, posterior tongue, tonsillar region, upper pharynx (gag), carotid body/sinus
  • taste in posterior tongue
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11
Q

attachment of pilus in N meningitidis

A

nasopharynx epithelial cells

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12
Q

treatment of copper excess

A

D-penicillamine (copper chelator)

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13
Q

timeline of hyperinsulinemia in gestational diabetes

A

goes away 3-7 days after birth

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14
Q

cast nephropathy

A

due to multiple myeloma due to protein deposits in kidney

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15
Q

ecthyma gangrenosum

A
  • associated with pseudomonas
  • bacteria release exotoxin in skin, necrosis and ulceration
  • occurs with neutropenia
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16
Q

calcium labs in multiple myeloma

A
  • high calcium (bone breakdown)
  • low PTH (feedback)
  • high urine calcium (low PTH)
  • low vitamin D (kidney failure)
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17
Q

CSF is absorbed by…

A

arachnoid granulations

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18
Q

damage to subthalamic nucleus

A

inhibition to thalamus is reduced, results in contralateral hemiballism

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19
Q

bacteria in schwann cells

A

M leprae (seen in any tissue in the periphery due to cooler temps)

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20
Q

reason for hematogenous spread in bacteria

A

capsule (pilus is for attachment)

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21
Q

median nerve goes between

A

flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis

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22
Q

nerve through supinator

A

radial

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23
Q

main cause of damages with sorbitol

A

osmotic cell damage and oxidative stress from depelation of NADPH

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24
Q

two important factors in working up metabolic alkalosis

A

volume status and urine chloride

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25
Q

granulomatous destruction of interlocular bile ducts

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

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26
Q

high alkaline phosphatase with history of ulcerative colitis

A

primary sclerosis cholangitis

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27
Q

two things best seen in TEE

A

left atrium and descending aorta

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28
Q

clinical findings in normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

magnetic gait, upper motor neuron signs, cognitive disturbances, urinary incontinence

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29
Q

reducing media

A

used for anaerobic bacteria

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30
Q

biliary problem associated with ulcerative colitis

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

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31
Q

stones in chrons

A

calcium binds to undigested lipids, leading to increase in oxalate and stone formation

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32
Q

time of first hCG measurement

A

8 days later, during implantation

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33
Q

most common structures affected by syrngomyelia

A

anterior white commissure and anterior horns

34
Q

most effective medication for cell mediated asthma process

A

glucocorticoid

35
Q

major problem in prolactinoma

A

high prolactin, decrease in GnRH, decrease in estrogen, decrease in bone mass

36
Q

hemochromatosis

A
  • HFE gene (uptake into liver)

- decrease uptake into hepatocytes lead to increased absorption and increase serum levels

37
Q

why does hep D need hep B

A

requires coating with surface antigen (HBsAg)

38
Q

causes of candida in vagina

A

loss of normal bacteria

  • antibiotics
  • high estrogen
  • corticosteroid
  • diabetes
  • immunosuppression
39
Q

major reason for pyelonephritis

A

vesicoureteral urine reflux

40
Q

reactions for biotin

A
  • pyruvate carboxylase (gluconeogenesis)
  • acetyl CoA carboxylase (FA synthesis)
  • propionyl-CoA carboxylase (FA oxidation)
41
Q

too many egg whites

A

biotin deficiency

42
Q

microscopic changes in glioblastoma

A
  • pseudopalisading necrosis (necrosis surrounded by tumor cells)
  • new vessel formation
  • giant cells and mitoses
43
Q

NO is produced from….

A

arginine

44
Q

relationship between creatinine and GFR

A

creatinine only starts to go up at very low GFRs

45
Q

obstructive jaundice with palpable, nontender gallbladder

A

Courvoisier sign (indicative of pancreatic adenocarcinoma)

46
Q

risk factors for pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A
  • smoking (most important)
  • chronic pancreatitis
  • diabetes
  • old age
  • Jewish and African Americans
47
Q

histology in CMV

A

intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions with halo around nucleus (owls eye)

48
Q

penicillin/cephalosporin type of molecule

A

transpeptidase (vancomycin binds to cell wall glycoproteins)

49
Q

mechanism of resistance in cephalosporins

A

structural changes in PBPs (remember these drugs are not sensitive to beta lactamases)

50
Q

PD-1

A

programmed death receptor

- on T cells, works to downregulate immune response (blocking it allows T cells to fight cancer)

51
Q

rapid correction of hyponatremia

A

osmotic demyelination syndrome (central pontine myelinolysis)

52
Q

rapid correction of hypernatremia

A

cerebral edema

53
Q

blister disease involving lips

A

pemphigus vulgaris

54
Q

shortest acting sulfonurea

A

glipizide (zipping around)

55
Q

timing of free wall rupture in MI

A

5-14 days, leads to tamponade and profound shock

56
Q

thing most likely in first couple days after MI

A

ventricular arrythmias

57
Q

treatment for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

A

clozapine

58
Q

difference between HUS/TTP and DIC

A

HUS/TTP does not activate clotting cascade so the clotting cascade labs are normal

59
Q

HUS/TTP is due to….

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

60
Q

diphenoxylate

A

opioid agonist that slows intestinal digestions (dolphins from sketchy)

61
Q

porcelain gallbladder

A

due to chronic cholecystitis

- risk factor to adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder

62
Q

size of colon in hirshprung disease

A

dilated proximal, contracted in problem location

63
Q

location of biopsy in Hirshprung

A

submucosa of narrow part

64
Q

mid positioned and fixed pupils

A

uncal herniation damaging pons and midbrain (also loss of vestibulo-ocular reflexes)

65
Q

decerebrate posture

A
  • extensors dominate

- lesion is below red nucleus so the vestibulospinal tract and extensors dominate

66
Q

decorticate posture

A
  • flexors dominate

- lesion is between cerebral cortex and red nucleus, rubrospinal and flexor predominate

67
Q

two bones that abut the arm bones

A

scaphoid (more likely to fracture) and lunate (more likely to dislocate)

68
Q

two main angiogenic factors

A

VEGF and FGF (and maybe TGF-beta)

69
Q

medically intractable parkinson’s treatment

A

brain stimulation of globus pallidus internus or subthalamic nucleus

70
Q

frontal lobe lesions

A 
left = apathy and depression
right = disinhibited behavior
71
Q

location of serotonergic neurons in brain

A

raphe nucleus in the brainstem

72
Q

locus ceruleus

A

norepinephrine neurons in dorsal pons (involved in fight or flight)

73
Q

nucleus basalis

A

cholinergic neurons (deficient in Alzheimer’s)

74
Q

red nucleus

A

anterior midbrain, motor coordination of upper extremities

75
Q

cell disrupted in silicosis

A

macrophage (can lead to TB)

76
Q

secondary TB

A

usually located in upper lobes

77
Q

livedo reticularis with normal peripheral pulse

A

sign of embolism

78
Q

cholesterol clefts in arterial lumen

A

embolus

79
Q

factor disposing to duodenal obstruction by SMA

A

fast weight loss (diminished mesenteric fat)

80
Q

wall tension and afterload

A

increase in pressure leads to increase in afterload and increase in wall tension
- wall stress is decreased with a compensatory hypertrophy

81
Q

severity of mitral valve

A

more severe if opening snap is closer to S2

AAA - Board by day (28 decks)

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