3/24 Flashcards

1
Q

cells that IL2 activates

A

T cells, B cells, NK cells, monocytes, helper T cells

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2
Q

major side effect of apmphtericin

A

hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia (renal dysfunction)

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3
Q

HELLP

A

hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and lop platelets

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4
Q

projection

A

thinking your feelings are the feelings of someone else

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5
Q

selection bias

A

systemic differences between groups in terms of treatment response or prognosis, not representative of population at large

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6
Q

cervical cancer in a young patient

A

in the immunocompromised (T cell deficiency)

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7
Q

squatting in tetralogy of Fallot

A

increases systemic vascular resistance, sending more blood to lungs

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8
Q

superior colliculus

A

controls vertical gaze

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9
Q

painful lesion that isn’t herpes

A

chancroid (H dureyi) - you do cry

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10
Q

riluzole

A

for treatment of ALS

- decreases glutamate release

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11
Q

mutation in ALS

A

SOD1 - copper-zinc superoxide dismutase

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12
Q

antibodies in polymyositis

A

Anti-Jo-1 = anti-histidyl-tRNA synthetase

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13
Q

findings worse on chest xray than symptoms

A

mycoplasma (walking pneumonia)

- common in military recruits

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14
Q

left vs right colon tumors

A
  • ascending = occult blood in stool

- descending = obstructive (apple core)

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15
Q

how cells stay bound to collagen

A

integrins in cell membranes bind fibronectin which binds to collagen

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16
Q

compound vs junctional nevus

A
  • compound = cells have begun to move to dermis

- junctional = cells remain at dermal-epidermal junction

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17
Q

vessels most susceptible to atherosclerosis

A

abdominal aorta and coronary arteries

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18
Q

two tests for biliary disease

A

alk phos and GGTP (differentiates bone from biliary)

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19
Q

muscle in greater sciatic foramen

A

piriformis

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20
Q

stimulation to make TH1 cell

A

IFN-gamma and IL12

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21
Q

TH1 cells secrete…

A

IFN-gamma, IL2 and lymphotoxin beta

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22
Q

dimercaprol

A

treatment for arsenic poisoning (chelates heavy metals)

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23
Q

CaNa2EDTA

A

treatment of lead poisoning

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24
Q

deferoxamine

A

treatment of blood transfusions (too much iron)

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25
Q

hydroxycobalamin treatment

A

for cyanide poisoning

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26
Q

methylene blue

A

treatment of methemoglobinemia

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27
Q

microsomal monooxygenase

A

cytochrome P450 enzyme in hepatic microsomes that metabolizes things - can convert procarcinogens to carcinogens

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28
Q

MOA of heparin

A

increases activity of antithrombin III

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29
Q

Kussmauls sign

A

paradoxical increase in JVP with inspiration

- occurs due to restrictive cardiomyopathy and rarely with tamponade

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30
Q

pulsus paradoxus

A

decrease in BP during inspiration

- due to chronic contrcitive pericarditis and tamponade

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31
Q

pericardial knock

A

brief sounds shortly after S2 in patients with constrictive pericarditis

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32
Q

gamma interferon

A

activates macrophages but is produced primarily by TH1 cells

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33
Q

side effects of naicin

A

flushing warmth and itching (due to prsotaglandin release)

- can be avoided with an aspirin

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34
Q

two medications given during status epilepticus

A

benzo and phenytoin

35
Q

fibrous clots are broken down with ________, leading to MI

A

MMPs

36
Q

thing to check before second generation pntipsychotics

A

lipid panel - can cause metabolic adverse events (clozapine is the one that can cause agranulocytosis)

37
Q

major defect in CF

A

point mutation that causes problem in protein folding (post transcriptional modification)

38
Q

major stimulation of respiration in healthy individuals

A

CO2 level (oxygen has small effect on respiratory drive unless it is really low)

39
Q

uric acid precipitates in _______ enviornment

A

acidic (in the distal tubules of the collecting ducts)

40
Q

clearance of coal dust

A

very fine so it is taken up by macrophages

41
Q

during pregnancy, prolactin is inhibited by….

A

progesterone

42
Q

timeline of b-hCG in pregnancy

A

rises to maintain corpus luteum for hormone synthesis, but eventually falls when placenta takes over (not important in late pregnancy)

43
Q

branches off of celiac trunk

A

splenic, left gastric and common hepatic (gastroduodenal comes off of common hepatic)

44
Q

most common type of brain tumor in children

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

45
Q

risk for pregnancy dating error

A

irregular menses

46
Q

calculating oral bioavailability from curves

A

oral AUC/IV AUC

47
Q

st johns wort

A

activates p450

48
Q

two major side effects of lithium

A

hypothyroidism and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

49
Q

two major side effects of statins

A

myopathy and hepatotoxicity (measure liver function tests)

50
Q

nerve in posterior triangle of neck

A

CN 11

51
Q

risk in rubber exposure

A

transitional cell bladder cancer

52
Q

kidney vs lung chronic rejection

A
  • kidney = vascular

- lung = small airways (bronchiolitis obliterans)

53
Q

spongiosis

A

in eczematous dermatitis (edema with distinct intercellular bridges

54
Q

multinucleated giant cells in cancer

A

marker for anaplasia

55
Q

examples of true diverticulum

A

Meckels and appendix

56
Q

layers involved in false diverticulum

A

only mucosa and submucosa

57
Q

acoustic Schwannoma locations

A

between pons and cerebellum

58
Q

nonreversible symptoms of thiamine deficiency

A

loss of anterior and dorsal medial thalamic nuclei

- results in memory loss and confabulation

59
Q

build up of metabolites in Dubin Johnson

A

catecholamine metabolites

60
Q

Sudan III stain

A

check for fat in stool (malabsorption)

61
Q

course of ureter

A

under gonadal and uterine vessels, over internal iliac

62
Q

location of Meyer’s loop and dorsal optic radiation

A

Meyers loop = temporal lobe

Dorsal optic radiation = parietal lobe

63
Q

recovery phase of ATN

A

vigorous diuresis without functioning tubules (loss of solutes with potassium being most serious)

64
Q

MOA of action for acyclovir kidney injury

A

precipitates in tubules (can be prevented with aggressive hydration)

65
Q

meglitinides

A

act the same as sulfonylurea (gliding bird in Sketchy)

66
Q

germ tubes

A

psuedohyphae

67
Q

mold that stains red in india ink

A

cryptococcus

68
Q

reid index

A

measure of ratio of mucous layer to full epithelium

69
Q

ribavirin MOA

A

nucleoside analog that blocks the synthesis of DNA

70
Q

cleft lip and palate is due to…

A

fusion of maxillary prominence and intermaxillary segments to fuse

71
Q

increase in PPRP synthase leads to…

A

increase in purine synthesis, leading to gout

72
Q

markers of neuroendocrine tumors

A

neural adhesion molecules, neuron specific enolase, chromogranin, and neurofilaments

73
Q

normal part of CN III in diabetic neuropathy

A

pupillary size and reactivity because they are located in the periphery of the nerve

74
Q

hormone most increased during secretory phase

A

progesterone (think of the developing corpus luteum)

75
Q

MOA for beta blocker in thyroid disease

A

blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

76
Q

hemolysis of enterococcus

A

gamma

77
Q

mass effect tumors in adults

A

gliblastoma

78
Q

vitamin E deficiency mimics what other disease

A
  • vitamin B deficiency

- Friedreich’s ataxia

79
Q

transthyretin

A

mutations can lead to amyloidosis and infiltrative cardiomyopathy leading to diastolic dysfunction

80
Q

anti-arrythmetics with QT prolongation

A

Class IC and III

81
Q

low blood counts in a young women

A

could be due to lupus, antibody dependent destruction of cells and platelets

82
Q

crash symptoms drug withdrawral

A

from stimulants like cocaine or amphetamines

83
Q

initial process of infective endocarditis

A

fibrin deposition (forms a nidus for bacteria to grow)

84
Q

post-prandial epigastric pain with food aversion

A

chronic mesenteric ischemia (also with a history of atherosclerosis)