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AAA - Board by day > 3/23 > Flashcards

3/23 Flashcards

1
Q

effects that can’t be blocked by carbidopa

A

carbidopa only acts peripherally so it can’t block the anxiety and agitation side effects of L-dopa

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2
Q

area of brain a pineal mass effects

A

midbrain

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3
Q

high acetylcholinesterase in fetus

A

neural tube defects

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4
Q

derivation of neurofibromas

A

nerve sheath neoplasms made of schwann cells from neural crest

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5
Q

nimodipine

A

used for treating subarachnoid hemorrhage

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6
Q

osmotic diuretics

A

used for treating high ICP

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7
Q

lack of hypocretin (orexin)

A

narcolepsy

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8
Q

opioid overdose pupils

A

constricted

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9
Q

anitpsychotics and periods

A

block dopamine, increasing prolactin and causing amenorrhea

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10
Q

hypomania

A

not as severe, more functioning with less sleep

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11
Q

hyperplastic cell in low renal perfusions

A

JG cell in the afferent arteriole undergoes hyperplasia to produce renin

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12
Q

airflow resistance in airways

A 
highest = medium airways (turbulence)
lowest = terminal bronchioles
middle = trachea
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13
Q

malignant hypertension histology

A

hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (onion skinning)

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14
Q

esophagus is close to what heart chamber

A

left atrium

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15
Q

carotid body/sinus nerves

A

afferent = 9, efferent = 10 (only vagus for aortic body)

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16
Q

nitrates vessels of action

A

primarily veins, but also arteries

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17
Q

increasing murmur in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

decreasing preload (valsalva, standing up and NO)

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18
Q

papillary muscle rupture in MI

A

right posterior descending

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19
Q

leads in pacemakers

A

in coronary sinus (in AV groove)

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20
Q

estrogen and T4 levels

A

estrogen increases binding protein, transient decrease in T4, ultimate total T4 increase

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21
Q

subacute thyroiditis histology

A

mixed cellular infiltrate with multinucleated giant cells

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22
Q

DDAVP in hemophilia

A

can raise factor 8 levels

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23
Q

TTP protein

A

ADAMS13

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24
Q

extramedullary hematopoiesis and tear drop cells

A

myeloproliferative disorders

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25
Q

mutation in myeloproliferative disorders

A

JAK-STAT (except CML)

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26
Q

can’t do bone marrow biopsy

A

hairy cell (with cytoplasmic projections)

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27
Q

TdT

A

ALL

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28
Q

myeloperoxidase marker

A

AML

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29
Q

Guillian Barre

A

ascending paralysis with endoneurial inflammatory infiltrate

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30
Q

muscle fiber types

A

type 1 = slow twitch

type 2 = fast twitch

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31
Q

ceiling of carpal tunnel

A

transverse carpal ligament

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32
Q

erythema multiforme

A

target lesions or inflammatory infiltrate (immune response after virus or infection)

33
Q

what to monitor in ankylosing spondylitis

A

chest wall expansion

34
Q

CREST

A 
calcinosis
Raynaud's
esophageal dysmotility
sclerodactyly
telangiectasias
(increase collagen deposition due to TGF-beta)
35
Q

HSP organs

A

GI, kidneys, skin and joints

36
Q

long standing RA complication causing paralysis

A

vertebral subluxation

37
Q

lateral forearm innervation

A

musculocutaneous nerve

38
Q

fibular neck fracture

A

knocks of common peroneal

39
Q

gastric varicies

A

caused by splenic thrombosis (esophageal are caused by left gastric vein)

40
Q

part of the stomach most affected by H pylori

A

antrum (body and fundus in pernicious anemia)

41
Q

acalculous cholecysitits

A

gallbladder disease not caused by gallstones

42
Q

ovarian and stomach pain

A

Krukenberg tumor (signet cells)

43
Q

Fragile X vs XXY

A

X = strong male features
XXY = weak male features
- both are tall

44
Q

clue cells

A

bacterial vaginosis

45
Q

pelvic floor muscle

A

levator ani

46
Q

most common cause of post partum bleeding

A

uterine atony (should respond to medication)

47
Q

most common cause of male hypogonadism

A

Kleinfelters

48
Q

gynecomastia with small testes

49
Q

most common location for unilateral hydronephrosis in fetus

A

ureteropelvic junction (last place to canalize)

50
Q

DIC in pregnancy

A

started by tissue factor (thromboplastin) from trophoblast

51
Q

metabolic acidosis counter measures in kidney

A

glutamine is broken down to excrete more acid and reabsorb more bicarb

52
Q

robertsonian translocation 14:21

A

Down syndrome

53
Q

statins and LDL receptors

54
Q

order of base excision repair

A
  • glycosylase cleaves base leaving AP
  • endonuclease cleaves 5’
  • lyase cleaves 3’
  • polymerase fills gap
  • ligase seals
55
Q

first step of gluconeogenesis

A

pyruvate to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase (activated by acetyl CoA)

56
Q

Gq

A

phospholipase C, PIP, IP3, DAG and protein kinase C

57
Q

Gs

A

cAMP and protein kinase A

58
Q

acanthosis nigricans

A

high FFAs, not LDL

59
Q

types of tyrosine kinases

A

JAK-STAT is cytoplasmic, insulin receptor is intrinsic

60
Q

uridine monophosphate synthase deficiency

A

can lead to orotic acid build up, not hyperammonia

61
Q

microbial causes of esophagitis

A

candida, HSV and CMV

62
Q

most common cause of viral meningitis

A

enterovirus

63
Q

protein A vs IgA protease

A

protein A is only in staph

64
Q

capsule in Hflu

A

made of polyribosylribitol phosphate (PRP)

65
Q

chlamydia infection of newborwn

A

inclusion conjunctivitis

66
Q

PYR test

A

same as bacitracin sensitivity

67
Q

drug more likely to cause cholera infection

A

omeprazole (less acidic enviornment)

68
Q

segmented viruses

A

rotoavirus, reo, bunya and arena

69
Q

flu vaccine is directed against…

A

hemagluttinin

70
Q

negative selection in thymus

A

if binding is too strong

71
Q

types of receptors blocked by atropine

A

muscarinic, not nicotinic (so muscle weakness is unaffected)

72
Q

carrier proteins

A

transmembrane channels that allow for fast diffusion but they get saturated

73
Q

synergistic vs additive

A

additive is A + B = AB

synergistic is A + B = ABC

74
Q

permissiveness

A

when an unrelated drug doesn’t work but another one helps it work

75
Q

amatoxins

A

from mushrooms, block RNA pol II (mRNA synthesis)

76
Q

cyproheptadine

A

treatment for serotonin syndrome

77
Q

blinding reduces _____ bias

78
Q

migratory thrombophelbitis

A

Trousseau syndrome (visceral cancer)

AAA - Board by day (28 decks)

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