Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Basic Biochemistry > 11. Kevin Bryan Reviewer > Flashcards

11. Kevin Bryan Reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

organelle responsible for packaging proteins

A

golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

organelle - ATP production

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Unfolding of a molecule ≈ effects in entropy

A

large increase ÎÎ in entropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

decrease the activation energy of rxn

A

enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the lower the Km of an enzyme ≈ effect on affinity

A

higher affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

competitive inhibition can be overcome by

A

increasing the substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

site of ETC (electron transport chain)

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cyanide inhibits what COMPLEX of ETC?

A

Complex 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Blocks electron transport and ATP synthesis by inhibiting the exchange of ATP and ADP across the inner mitochondrial membrane

ATP ADP

A

atractyloside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

catalyzes rxn that yields wate and hydrogen peroxide

A

superoxide dismutase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • unpaired electron
  • persist for short period of time
  • ex. superoxide dismutase
A

free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

glucose and galactose are epimers on

A

carbon 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

glucose and mannose are epimers on

A

carbon 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Blocks electron transport and proton pumping at Complex III

A

azide

carbon monoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Blocks electron transport and proton pumping at Complex I.

A

rotenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Blocks ATP synthesis without inhibiting electron transport by dissipating the proton gradient

A

DNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Blocks electron transport and proton pumping at Complex II.

A

antimycin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

can be lethal because it binds to the ferric form of cytochrome oxidase and thereby inhibits oxidative phosphorylation

A

cyanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mechanism for nitrite as an antidote to cyanide

A

Nitrite converts ferrohemoglobin into ferrihemoglobin, which also binds cyanide. Thus, ferrihemoglobin competes with cytochrome oxidase for cyanide. This competition is therapeutically effective because the amount of ferrihemoglobin that can be formed without impairing oxygen transport is much greater than the amount of cytochrome oxidase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • higher Km
  • not easily saturated
  • isoenzyme of hexokinase
  • ACTIVE in fed state
A

glucokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F

Acety Coa can be converted to pyruvate in gluconeogenesis

A

FALSE

Fatty acids and ketogenic amino acids cannot be used to synthesize glucose. The transition reaction is a one-way reaction, meaning that acetyl-CoA cannot be converted back to pyruvate. As a result, fatty acids can’t be used to synthesize glucose, because beta-oxidation produces acetyl-CoA.
•Acety CoA - oxidized to CO2and H2O in TCA cycle
•used to synthesize cholesterol
•used to synthesize ketone bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

5 cofactors of alpha ketoglutarate

A
  • Thiamine pyrophosphate (derived from thiamine)
  • flavin adenine dinucleotide (derived from riboflavin)
  • lipoic acid (derived from lipoic acid)
  • pantothenic acid as part of Coenzyme-A (CoA)
  • nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide NAD+ (derived from niacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which of the following enzymes catalyze a rxn that yield FADH2 in citric acid cycle

A

succinate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which TCA cycle intermediate participates in heme formation

A

succinyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Heme formation

•co-factor of the committed step

A

vitamin B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the intermediate that links gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis in the liver

A

pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
glucose 6 phosphate participates in all processes except
•pentose phosphate pathway
•gluconeogenesis
•ketogenesis
•glycogenolysis
A

ketogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
these processes occur inside the mitochondria except
•pentose phosphate pathway
•TCA cycle 
•beta oxidation
•ketogenesis
A

pentose phosphate pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the mechanism of hypoglycemia in acute ethanol intoxication

A

conversion of PYRUVATE to lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

branching enzyme of glycogen metabolism is

A

glycogen branching enzyme AKA

amylo-(1,4→1,6)-transglycosylase

•branching enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of alpha-1,4-linked glucosyl units from the outer end of a glycogen chain to an alpha-1,6 position on the same or a neighboring glycogen chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

is a state of glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency

A

Von Gierke’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F

glycogenolysis occurs in muscle

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the cleavage of glycogen to yield

A

glucose-1- phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  • ptx with deficiency of glycogen phosphorylase in the liver
  • expected manifestations EXCEPT:
  • hepatomegaly
  • ketosis
  • lactic acidosis
  • marked hyperglycemia
A

FALSE-

•marked hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

deficiency of glycogen phosphorylase is

A

Hers’ disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

glycogen storage disorder associated with hyperuricemia

A

Von Gierke’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

enzyme deficient in Von Gierke’s disease

A

glucose 6 phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

pregnant woman with classic galactosemia

•at risk for

A

premature ovarian failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

High fructose in diet is unhealthy because if is metabolized faster than glycose because it bypasses step catalyzed by

A

phosphofructokinase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  • night sweats and tremors after fruit juice ingesiton
  • (+) fructose in urine
  • enzyme deficieny?
A

aldolase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

metabolic consequences of aldolase A deficiency

A
  • INCREASE FRUCTOSE 1 phosphate levels
  • hyperuricemia
  • allosteric inhibition of glycogen phosphorylase
  • depletion of ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which sugar contribute to cataract formation

A

sugar alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which causes flatulence in lactose intolerance

A

bacteria in the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

the main FATTY ACID in coconut milk

A

lauric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

trans fats are manufactured by altering SATURATED fats usig

A

hydrogenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

end product of FATTY ACID synthsis

A

palmitic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the mechanism behind FATTY LIVER in chronic alcohol use

A

inc ÎÎ NADH prevents fatty acid oxidation forming triacylglycerols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ketone bodies

A

acetone
acetoacetate
beta hydroxybutyrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

steroid nucleus has ___ carbons

A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

steroid nucleus resembles this ring

A

phenanthrene ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

cholesterol has a side chain at position

A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

the consumption of cholesterol should be only up to ___ mg per day

A

300 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

WELL FED STATE ≈ effect HMG-CoA reductase

A

HMG-CoA reductase - dephosphorylated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

fate of short and medium chain FA after digestion

A

absorbed in the hepatic portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Apolipoprotein C-II functions in breakdown of

A

VLDL and chylomicrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

which apoprotein is closely associated with alzheimer’s disease due to its capacity to avidly bind to beta amyloid plagues

A

Apo E-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the basis of intestinal expression of apo B-48 lipoprotein

A

tssue specific RNA editing puts a stop to apoB mRNA translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

this component is responsible for transfer of CHOLESTEROL from tissues to other lipoproteins into HDL as esterified cholesterol allowing it to function in REVERSE CHOLESTEROL TRANSPORT

A

LCAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T/F
•hypothyroidism
•diabetes mellitus
•nephrotic syndrome

-all are associated with abnormal lipoprotein patterns

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what familial disorder of lipoprotein metabolism has elevated levels of LDL

A

type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

which familial lipoproteinemia gives
HIGH : chylomicron and VLDL
LOW : HDL, LDL

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q 
presents as •overproduction and increased levels of VLDL
•glucose intolerance 
•associated with coronary heart disease 
•type 2 DM
•obesity
A

familial hypertriglyeridemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ASA given low dose for coronary artery disease exerts its beneficial effect by

A

inhibition of cyclooxygenase required for synthesis of THROMBOXANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

product of lipid metabolism —> platelet aggregatiion

A

TXA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

most basic amino acid

A

arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

this enantiomer of amio acids naturally occur in proteins

A

L amino acids

67
Q

amino acids - containign phenol ring

A

tyrosine

68
Q

formation of GABA from glutamic acid is through

glutamic acid —» GABA

A

decarboxylation

69
Q

which cofactor is necesary for this rxn

glutamic acid ——» GABA
decarboxylation

A

pyridoxal phosphate

70
Q

gluthathione is synthesized in the body using

A

glutamate
glycine
cysteine

71
Q

AA responsible for antioxidant properties of gluthatione

A

cysteine

72
Q 
AAs that participate in synthesis of muscle creatine and subsequent breakdown into creatinine 
EXCEPT :
a. alanine
b. glycine
c. arginine
d. methionine
A

a. alanine

GAM ≈ creatinine

73
Q

a section of protein sufficient to perform a particular task

A

domain

74
Q

myoglobin has ___ domain/s

A

1 domain

75
Q

major component of most connective tissues

A

collagen

76
Q

nitric oxide is vasodilator derived from

A

arginine

77
Q

which mediators act on NMDA receptor

A

glutamate

78
Q

T/F

Pregnancy is a state of negative nitrogen balance

A

FALSE

79
Q

major process involved in metabolism of amino acids

A

transamination

80
Q

major coenzyme for transamination to form amino acids

A

vit B6

81
Q

AA that can be synthesized from intermediates of the TCA cycle EXCEPT

a. aspartate
b. proline
c. phenylalanine
d. glumate

A

phenylalanine

TCA = aspartate, proline, glutamate

82
Q

glucogenic amino acids

A 
Alanine
Arginine
Asparagine
Aspartic acid
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Glutamine
Glycine
Histidine
Methionine
Proline
Serine
Valine
83
Q

Amino acids that are both glucogenic and ketogenic

A 
Amino acids that are both glucogenic and ketogenic (mnemonic "PITTT"):
Phenylalanine
Isoleucine
Threonine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
84
Q

ketogenic amino acids

A

leucine

lysine

85
Q

Methionine can be metabilized and enter into TCA cycle as this intermediate

A

succinyl choline

86
Q

in methylmalonic acidura there is failure to metabolize this amio acids :

A

•methionine, threonine, isoleucine and valine;
M, T, I, V
•as a result methylmalonic acid builds up in the blood and tissues.

87
Q

an allosteric activator making carbamoyl phosphate 1 active only with its presence

A

N-acetyl-glutmate

88
Q

direct nitrogen donors in ureal cycle

A

aspartate

ammonia

89
Q

MAJOR nitrogen source for urea synthesis

A

glutamate

90
Q

hyperammonemia type 1 is enzyme deficiency of

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1

91
Q

what is considered the most common urea cycle disorder

A

ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

92
Q

the metabolic intermediate linking urea cycle to the TCA cycle

A

fumarate

93
Q

what happens to amino acid metabolism in uncontrolled DM

A

ÎÎ transamination rxns

94
Q

which among the following is considered the most severe of the urea cycle disorders

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1 deficiency

95
Q
  • newborn - upon delivey, suddenly develops: •irritability, lethargy, hypothermia, and intermittent apnea
  • lab examination: ÎÎ ammonia levels, ÎÎ citrulline
  • what enzyme is deficient
A

argininosuccinate synthetase

96
Q
  • 2 day old - born healthy and without complications
  • 2nd day of life : vomiting, lethargy, hypothermia, feeding poorly, •inc RR, hepatomegaly
  • BUN, ÎÎ ammonia , ÎÎargininosuccinic acid both urine and blood

•what enzyme is deficient

A

ariginosuccinate lyase

97
Q

what enzyme deficiencies can lead to phenylketonuria

A
  • phenylalanine hydroxylase
  • tetrahydrobiopterin
  • dihydrobiopterin reductase
98
Q

in Maple Syrup Urine Disease, which amino acids could not be metabolize

A
  • valine
  • leucine
  • isoleucine

LIV

99
Q

which enzyme is deficient in MSUD

A

α-keto acid dehydrogenase

100
Q
  • infant - sweet, smeling urine, vomiting, lethargy, hypoglycemia
  • most likely disease condition
A

branch chain α-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency

101
Q

alkaptonuria prevents breaking down 2 amino acids, namely

A

Tyrosine
and
phenylalanine

102
Q

alkaptonuria results in build-up of ths chemical

A

homogentisic acid

103
Q

gene involved in alkaptonuria

A

HGD gene - code for homogentisate oxidase

104
Q

what disease caused deficiency of Porphobilinogen deaminase (hydroxymethylbilane synthase, or uroporphyrinogen I synthase)

A

acute intermittent porphyria

105
Q

which enzyme:

•hydrolysis of peptide bonds adjacent to aromatic, branched-chain mino acids, methionine

A

pepsin

106
Q

All of the following substances are implicated to ÎÎ appetite except

a. orexin
b. NPY
c. AgRP
d. GLP-1

A

d. GLP-1

107
Q

all substances are implicated to dec appetite except :

a. alpha MSG
b. CART
c. serotonin
d. cannabinoids

A

d. cannabinoids

108
Q

the major target priority organs that utilize glucose during fasting or starvation are

A

brain and RBC

109
Q

what does a low carb, moderate fat. high protein diet do ≈ insulin

A

less than normal insulin response

110
Q

main fuel reserve of the body

A

adipose tissue triacylglycerol

111
Q

this is the principal site of metabolism of branched chain amino acids

A

skeletal muscle

112
Q

this system can serve as energy reservoir for for short term demands of muscle metabolism

A

phosphocreatinine system

113
Q

liver glycogen stores are depleted within ___ of fasting

A

18-24 hours of fasting

114
Q

All of the ff hormones promote LIPOLYSIS except

a. ACTH
b. GH
c. Vasopressin
d. insulin

A

insulin

115
Q

in times of starvation, fats can be source of energy at the same time glucose through which of the ff intermediates

A

a. glycerol

b. propionyl CoA

116
Q

fasting for 24 hours

principal source of energy

A

glycogenolysis

117
Q

during last part of 2nd day fsting, what is major source of energy

A

gluconeogenesis

118
Q

what is the predoinant soruce of energy for the brain after 48 hours of fasting

A

ketone bodies

119
Q 
In fasting ≈  phosphorylated /dephosphorylated 
•pyruvate dehydrongenase :
•glycogen phosphorylase:
•glycogen synthase:
•acetyl-co carboxylase :
A
  • pyruvate dehydrongenase : phosphorylated
  • glycogen phosphorylase: phosphorylated
  • glycogen synthase: INHIBITED
  • acetyl-co carboxylase : phosphorylated
120
Q
  • type 1 diabetes patient
  • diarrhea x 3 days
  • skipped insulin doses due to lack of appetite
  • glucose was 400
  • urine ketones 1+

•acetyl coa carboxylase is ____

A

phosphorylated

121
Q
  • type 1 diabetes patient
  • diarrhea x 3 days
  • skipped insulin doses due to lack of appetite
  • glucose was 400
  • urine ketones 1+

•ketones detected in this patient through urine via the nitroprusside test is predominantly

A

acetoacetate

122
Q
  • type 1 diabetes patient
  • diarrhea x 3 days
  • skipped insulin doses due to lack of appetite
  • glucose was 400
  • urine ketones 1+

effect on
•HMG-CoA synthase
•HMG-CoA lyase

A
  • HMG-CoA synthase
  • HMG-CoA lyase

both active

123
Q

•patient received insulin infusion

≈ effect on PFK-1

A

PFK-1 ≈ dephosphorylated

124
Q

•a patient skips dinner everyday, what is expected when she wakse up before bfast

effect on glycogen phosphorylase

A

glycogen phosphorylase is phosphorylated

125
Q 
effect of 3 days fasting on
 •HMG-CoA reductase 
•HMG -coa synthase 
•pyruvate carboxylase
•acetyl coa carboxylase
A
  • HMG-CoA reductase - phosphorylated
  • HMG -coa synthase - activated
  • pyruvate carboxylase - stimulated
  • acetyl coa carboxylase -phosphorylated
126
Q

hormone least active during 3 days fasting

A

insulin

127
Q

glucagon effect on glycogen phosphorylase

A

phosphorylated

128
Q

drinking coffee ≈ effect on glycogen phosphorylase

A

phosphorylated

129
Q

fatty acid synthesis

cofactor

A

biotin

130
Q

VITAMIN B 12 dependent enzymes

A
  • methylmalonyl coa mutase
  • leucine aminomutase - converts L leucine to B leucine
  • methionine synthase
131
Q

which among the ff does nt need vit b12 for its pathway

a. isoleucine
b. leucine
c. valine
d. methionine

A

b. leucine

132
Q

vitamin that is considered a hormone

A

vit D

133
Q

which micronutrient is considered an antioxidant

a. tocopherol
b. magnesium
c. selenium
d. vitamin D

A

A. tocopherol

134
Q

which vitamin can be synthesized from the body from a specific amino acid

A

vit b3 (tryptophan)

135
Q

in rxn catalyzed by dopamie B-hydroxylase, what is the cofactor needed

A

vit C

136
Q

in rxn catalyzed by dopamie B-hydroxylase, what is the product of above rxn

A

norepinephrine

137
Q

All ÎÎÎ absorption of iron except

a. heme form of iron
b. vit C
c. alcohol
d. NOTA

A

d. NOTA

138
Q

effects of vit D

A
  • ÎÎ bone resorption
  • ÎÎ dietary absorption of phosphate
  • dec calcium levels
  • dec PTH levels
139
Q

inhibit bone resorption

A

calcitonin

140
Q

what is the rate limitng enzyme of de novo pyrimidine sythesis

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II

141
Q

a single turn of human DNA has __ base pairs

A

10

142
Q

predominant form of DNA in physiologic conditions

A

B

143
Q

DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in __ direction

A

5’ to 3’

144
Q

this enzyme relieve torsional strain produced during DNA unwinding

A

topoisomerase

145
Q

RNA dependent DNA polymerase that adds DNA to 3’ end of chromosomes to prevent loss of genetic material with every duplication

A

telomerase

146
Q

the CCA terminal of the tRNA is found in the

A

acceptor arm

147
Q

which type of RNA comprise majority of cellular RNA , 70%

A

ribosomal RNA

148
Q

capped by 7-methylguanosine triphosphate group in mRNA functions to

A

recognition of mRNA in TRANSLATION

149
Q

enzyme involved with synthesizes mRNA

A

RBA polymerase II

150
Q

RNA product is synthesize in __ direction

A

5’ to 3’

151
Q

termination of RNA synthesis in BACTERIA is signaled by

A

rho factor

152
Q

RNA polymerase I catalyzes the transcription of

A

ribosomal RNA

153
Q

in this mutation, adenine base was mistakenly substituted for a guanine base

G <=> A

A

transition

154
Q

descriptions of genetic code

A

degenerate
commaless
universal

155
Q

feature of genetic code stating most AA are coded by multiple codons

A

degenerate

156
Q

codons UUC and UUU code for phenlyalanine

this displays

A

degeneracy

157
Q

this feature of genetic code allows translation of the same amino acid despite having a different codon

A

redundant

158
Q

most AA are coded by multiple codons except for :

a. methionine
b. cysteine
c. alanine
d. valine

A

a. methionine

159
Q

the tRNA wobble effect leads to which of the ff DNA mutations

A

silent

160
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is example of which DNA mutation

A

frameshift

161
Q

method used to detect a specific DNA segment of sequence

a. western blot
b. southern
c. eastern
d. nothern

A

southern blot

162
Q

substances added to natural gas to make it smell

A

mercaptan

163
Q

MOA of bolulinum toxin

A

cleaves SNARE proteins, prevening neurosecretory vesicle fusion

Basic Biochemistry (50 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions