TEST 8 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein?
a) Albumin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Globulin
d) Hemoglobin
A
Albumin
2
Q
Which blood cell is responsible for oxygen transport?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Leukocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) Monocytes
A
Erythrocytes
3
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of sickle cell disease?
a) Increased number of red blood cells
b) Abnormal shape of red blood cells
c) Decreased number of white blood cells
d) Increased blood clotting ability
A
Abnormal shape of red blood cells
4
Q
Which of the following is a symptom of jaundice?
a) Pale skin
b) High blood pressure
c) Yellowing of the skin
d) Rapid heartbeat
A
Yellowing of the skin
5
Q
Which blood cell is involved in the immune response?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Thrombocytes
c) Basophils
d) Neutrophils
A
Neutrophils
6
Q
___________ is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or the amount of hemoglobin.
A
Anemia
7
Q
The process of examining a blood sample under a microscope to evaluate the morphology of blood cells is called a ___________.
A
Blood smear
8
Q
The major plasma protein responsible for blood clotting is ___________.
A
Fibrinogen
9
Q
___________ are red blood cells that contain an abnormal form of hemoglobin, leading to their sickle-like shape.
A
Erythrocytes
10
Q
___________ is a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections.
A
Eosinophils
11
Q
Plasma is the liquid component of blood that carries cells and dissolved substances. True or False?
A
True
12
Q
Albumin is a plasma protein responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure and transporting hormones. True or False?
A
True
13
Q
Hemoglobin is found in white blood cells and is responsible for their immune functions. True or False?
A
False
14
Q
Anemia can be caused by a deficiency in iron, leading to decreased red blood cell production. True or False?
A
True
15
Q
Leukocytes are also known as red blood cells. True or False?
A
False
16
Q
Which type of anemia is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12?
a) Iron-deficiency anemia
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) Sickle cell anemia
A
Pernicious anemia
17
Q
The process by which leukocytes squeeze through capillary walls and enter the surrounding tissue is called ___________.
A
Diapedesis
18
Q
Thrombocytes are responsible for blood clotting. True or false?
A
True
19
Q
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation affecting the production of:
a) Erythrocytes
b) Leukocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) Platelets
A
Erythrocytes
20
Q
Leukocytes are primarily responsible for the transport of oxygen in the bloodstream. True or false?
A
False
21
Q
Which of the following is an example of a granulocyte?
a) Lymphocyte
b) Monocyte
c) Eosinophil
d) Natural killer cell
A
Eosinophil
22
Q
Which type of leukocyte is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
a) Neutrophil
b) Basophil
c) Lymphocyte
d) Monocyte
A
Basophil
23
Q
Chronic granulomatous disease is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the function of:
a) Neutrophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Basophils
d) Monocytes
A
Neutrophils
24
Q
Eosinophilia is characterized by an elevated number of:
a) Lymphocytes
b) Basophils
c) Eosinophils
d) Monocytes
A
Eosinophils
25
Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction that can result in:
a) Increased blood clotting
b) Decreased heart rate
c) Constriction of airways
d) Suppression of the immune system
Constriction of airways
26
Platelets, also known as ___________, play a crucial role in blood clotting.
Thrombocytes
27
___________ is a protein produced by the liver that is essential for the formation of blood clots.
Fibrinogen
28
___________ are leukocytes that lack visible cytoplasmic granules.
Agranulocytes
29
Chronic granulomatous disease is characterized by the inability of leukocytes to produce functional ___________.
Reactive oxygen species
30
Lymphomas are cancers that develop in the ___________ of the immune system.
Lymphocytes
31
Neutrophils are the most abundant type of leukocytes in the bloodstream. True or False?
True
32
Basophils release histamine, which contributes to the inflammatory response. True or False?
True
33
Chronic granulomatous disease is an autoimmune disorder. True or False?
False
34
Eosinophilia is commonly associated with allergic and autoimmune conditions. True or False?
True
35
Platelets are responsible for initiating the process of blood clotting. True or False?
True
36
Which of the following is a crucial step in the process of blood clotting?
a) Platelet aggregation
b) Hemoglobin synthesis
c) Red blood cell production
d) Lymphocyte activation
Platelet aggregation
37
Platelets release ___________ during blood clotting to promote vasoconstriction.
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Interleukins
d) Antibodies
Serotonin
38
During blood clotting, fibrinogen is converted into ___________, which forms a mesh-like structure to stabilize the clot.
Fibrin
39
The enzyme ___________ plays a key role in the breakdown of blood clots during the healing process.
Plasmin
40
Platelets are formed in the bone marrow from stem cells. True or false?
True
41
Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissue?
a) Protection
b) Secretion
c) Contraction
d) Absorption
Contraction
42
Epithelial tissue is classified based on the number of cell layers and the shape of the cells. Which type consists of a single layer of flattened cells?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Stratified squamous epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
43
Which type of epithelium is best suited for diffusion and filtration?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
44
Which type of epithelial tissue lines the kidney tubules and glands?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Stratified squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
45
Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the lining of the digestive tract and contains goblet cells that secrete mucus?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Stratified squamous epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
46
Epithelial tissue forms the ___________ covering of the body and lines various organs and cavities.
Protective
47
Simple squamous epithelium is found in the ___________ and allows for rapid diffusion and filtration.
Alveoli of the lungs
48
Simple cuboidal epithelium is composed of ___________ layers of cube-shaped cells and is involved in secretion and absorption.
Single
49
The ___________ of simple columnar epithelium helps in increasing the surface area for absorption in the small intestine.
Microvilli
50
Epithelial tissue lacks blood vessels and receives nutrients through diffusion from underlying tissues. True or false?
True
51
Simple squamous epithelium lines the inner surface of blood vessels and provides a smooth surface for blood flow. True or false?
True
52
Simple cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in the lining of the respiratory tract. True or false?
False
53
The cells in simple columnar epithelium are taller than they are wide. True or false?
True
54
Epithelial tissue can be classified into two types: stratified and pseudostratified. True or false?
False
55
Simple squamous epithelium is found in the air sacs of the lungs, where it facilitates gas exchange. True or false?
True
56
Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder and allows for stretching and expansion?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Stratified squamous epithelium
c) Transitional epithelium
d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelium
57
Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the outermost layer of the skin and provides protection against mechanical stress and pathogens?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Stratified squamous epithelium
c) Simple cuboidal epithelium
d) Simple columnar epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
58
___________ epithelium is composed of multiple layers of cells and is found in areas subjected to wear and tear.
Stratified squamous
59
Goblet cells, which secrete mucus, are commonly found in ___________ epithelium.
Simple columnar
60
Simple squamous epithelium is responsible for the production and secretion of hormones. True or false?
False
61
Epithelial metaplasia refers to the conversion of one type of epithelium into another type due to:
a) Genetic mutation
b) Inflammation
c) Aging
d) Hormonal changes
Inflammation
62
Microvilli are small, finger-like projections on the surface of epithelial cells primarily involved in:
a) Absorption
b) Filtration
c) Secretion
d) Contraction
Absorption
63
Stereocilia are found in which part of the body?
a) Small intestine
b) Inner ear
c) Kidney tubules
d) Trachea
Inner ear
64
Cilia are classified based on their structure and movement. Which type of cilia are immotile and primarily function in sensory perception?
a) Primary cilia
b) Motile cilia
c) Respiratory cilia
d) Olfactory cilia
Primary cilia
65
Gap junctions are specialized intercellular connections that allow for direct communication between adjacent cells through the passage of:
a) Nucleotides
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Water
Proteins
66
Macula adherens, also known as ___________, are specialized junctions that provide mechanical strength to epithelial tissues.
Desmosomes
67
Hemidesmosomes are structures that anchor epithelial cells to the ___________.
Basement membrane
68
Glandular epithelium is specialized for ___________ and is involved in the production and secretion of various substances.
Secretion
69
Epithelial metaplasia is a reversible process that occurs in response to chronic irritation or injury. True or False?
True
70
Microvilli increase the surface area of epithelial cells, enhancing their ability to absorb nutrients. True or False?
True
71
Stereocilia are typically found in the respiratory system and help in the movement of mucus. True or False?
False
72
Motile cilia found in the respiratory tract are responsible for sweeping mucus and foreign particles out of the lungs. True or False?
True
73
Gap junctions allow for the exchange of small molecules and electrical signals between neighboring cells. True or False?
True
74
Hemidesmosomes are found only in stratified squamous epithelium. True or False?
False
75
Glandular epithelium can be classified into endocrine and exocrine glands based on their mode of secretion. True or False?
True
76
Epithelial metaplasia is most commonly associated with which type of epithelial transformation?
a) Conversion of squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium
b) Conversion of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium
c) Conversion of cuboidal epithelium to transitional epithelium
d) Conversion of transitional epithelium to cuboidal epithelium
Conversion of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium
77
Microvilli are found in high abundance in which of the following structures?
a) Kidney tubules
b) Small intestine
c) Inner ear
d) Trachea
Small intestine
78
Stereocilia are found in which part of the male reproductive system?
a) Epididymis
b) Seminal vesicles
c) Prostate gland
d) Testes
Epididymis
79
Cilia can be classified into two categories based on their structure and function. Which type of cilia are found in the female reproductive tract and aid in the movement of ova?
a) Primary cilia
b) Motile cilia
c) Sensory cilia
d) Vestibular cilia
Motile cilia
80
Gap junctions are specialized intercellular connections that allow for direct ___________ and exchange of small molecules between adjacent cells.
Communication
81
Epithelial metaplasia is an irreversible process that occurs due to genetic mutations. True or false?
False
82
Microvilli are capable of independent movement and play a role in cell locomotion. True or false?
False
83
_______________ cells that are specialized to produce and secrete substances into ducts or into body fluids.
Glandular
84
Endocrine glands secrete hormones internally as they are __________
ductless
85
Exocrine glands have __________ ducts.
True
86
Connective tissue is characterized by an abundance of:
a) Cells
b) Blood vessels
c) Extracellular matrix
d) Nerve fibers
Extracellular matrix
87
Which type of connective tissue provides strength and support to the body and is composed of collagen fibers?
a) Loose connective tissue
b) Dense connective tissue
c) Adipose tissue
d) Cartilage
Dense connective tissue
88
The primary function of connective tissue is to:
a) Transmit electrical signals
b) Generate movement
c) Store energy
d) Connect and support body structures
Connect and support body structures
89
Which of the following is an example of specialized connective tissue involved in energy storage and insulation?
a) Tendon
b) Ligament
c) Adipose tissue
d) Blood
Adipose tissue
90
Connective tissue cells responsible for producing the extracellular matrix are called ___________.
Fibroblasts
91
The extracellular matrix of connective tissue is primarily composed of ___________ and ___________.
Fibers, ground substance
92
Edema is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces, leading to tissue swelling. True or False?
True
93
The intercellular substances of connective tissue play a role in providing mechanical support and binding cells together. True or False?
True
94
Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are a type of carbohydrate found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue. True or False?
True
95
Glycoproteins are proteins that contain both carbohydrates and lipid molecules and are involved in cell adhesion. True or False?
False
96
Loose connective tissue is primarily composed of densely packed collagen fibers. True or False?
False
97
Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that is avascular and heals slowly due to a limited blood supply. True or False?
True
98
Blood is considered a connective tissue because it has a liquid extracellular matrix called plasma. True or False?
True
99
Mast cells are connective tissue cells that release histamine and other chemicals during an allergic response. True or False?
True
100
The primary function of adipose tissue is to provide mechanical support and protection to organs. True or False?
False
101
Chondrocytes are the main cells found in bone tissue and are responsible for bone formation. True or False?
False
102
Elastic fibers in connective tissue provide flexibility and recoil to tissues, such as in the lungs and arteries. True or False?
True
103
Fibrocartilage is a type of connective tissue found in intervertebral discs and has a high degree of elasticity. True or False?
False
104
Plasma cells are connective tissue cells that produce antibodies involved in immune responses. True or False?
True
105
The extracellular matrix of connective tissue plays a role in nutrient and waste exchange between cells. True or False?
True
106
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of formed fibers found in connective tissue?
a) Collagen fibers
b) Elastic fibers
c) Reticular fibers
d) Adipose fibers
Adipose fibers
107
Collagen synthesis is a process that requires the presence of:
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin K
Vitamin C
108
Scurvy is a condition characterized by:
a) Excessive collagen synthesis
b) Deficiency of vitamin C
c) Excessive elastic fiber production
d) Deficiency of vitamin D
Deficiency of vitamin C
109
Which type of cells in connective tissue are permanent residents and contribute to tissue maintenance and repair?
a) Resident cells
b) Transient cells
c) Fibroblasts
d) Macrophages
Resident cells
110
Fibroblasts are responsible for synthesizing and secreting ___________ in connective tissue.
Extracellular matrix
111
The stages of wound healing include ___________, ___________, and remodeling.
Inflammation, proliferation
112
Adipocytes are specialized cells found in connective tissue that store fat. True or False?
True
113
Urticaria, also known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by raised, itchy welts. True or False?
True
114
The three types of formed fibers in connective tissue are collagen fibers, elastic fibers, and adipose fibers. True or False?
False
115
Collagen synthesis is a process that involves the formation of collagen protein chains from individual amino acids. True or False?
True
116
Resident cells in connective tissue are temporary cells that migrate to the site of injury or inflammation. True or False?
False
117
Macrophages are transient cells in connective tissue that play a role in phagocytosis and immune response. True or False?
True
118
In the inflammation stage of wound healing, blood vessels constrict to minimize bleeding. True or False?
False
119
Proliferation is the stage of wound healing where new blood vessels form and granulation tissue fills the wound. True or False?
True
120
Remodeling is the final stage of wound healing where scar tissue is gradually replaced by normal tissue. True or False?
True
121
Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue that functions in energy storage and insulation. True or False?
True
122
Urticaria is typically caused by an allergic reaction or an autoimmune response. True or False?
True
123
Elastic fibers provide strength and support to connective tissues, allowing them to stretch and recoil. True or False?
True
124
Fibroblasts are transient cells that produce collagen and elastin fibers in response to tissue injury. True or False?
False
125
The main function of resident cells in connective tissue is to initiate the inflammatory response. True or False?
False
126
Scurvy is a condition that primarily affects the bones, leading to weakened and brittle bones. True or False?
False
127
Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human body and provides structural support to various tissues. True or False?
True
128
Macrophages are responsible for phagocytosing foreign substances and debris in connective tissue. True or False?
True
129
The proliferation stage of wound healing involves the formation of new blood vessels to supply nutrients to the healing tissue. True or False?
True
130
Urticaria can be triggered by certain medications, insect bites, or exposure to allergens. True or False?
True
131
Which of the following is NOT a function of muscle tissue?
a) Producing movement
b) Maintaining posture
c) Generating heat
d) Conducting electrical signals
Conducting electrical signals
132
Smooth muscle is found in which of the following organs?
a) Heart
b) Liver
c) Stomach
d) Biceps brachii
Stomach
133
Which functional classification of skeletal muscles is responsible for stabilizing joints?
a) Agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Synergist
d) Fixator
Fixator
134
The connective tissue that surrounds a bundle of muscle fibers is called:
a) Endomysium
b) Epimysium
c) Perimysium
d) Sarcomere
Perimysium
135
Skeletal muscles are composed of long, cylindrical cells called ___________.
Muscle fibers
136
The contractile unit of a muscle fiber is called a ___________.
Sarcomere
137
Cardiac muscle is striated and under involuntary control. True or False?
True
138
Slow-twitch muscle fibers are fatigue-resistant and are well-suited for endurance activities. True or False?
True
139
Actin and myosin are two proteins involved in muscle contraction. True or False?
True
140
The muscle contraction cycle involves the sliding of actin filaments past myosin filaments. True or False?
True
141
Skeletal muscles contract when calcium ions bind to troponin, which exposes binding sites on actin filaments. True or False?
True
142
During muscle contraction, ATP is required for the detachment of myosin heads from actin filaments. True or False?
True
143
Isometric contractions involve muscle lengthening and shortening without producing movement at a joint. True or False?
False
144
Fast-twitch muscle fibers are characterized by a high capacity for aerobic metabolism. True or False?
False
145
The sliding filament theory explains how muscle fibers generate force and produce movement. True or False?
True
146
The cross-bridge formation between actin and myosin is mediated by calcium ions. True or False?
True
147
Smooth muscle is under voluntary control and is responsible for voluntary movements. True or False?
False
148
The power stroke is the stage in the muscle contraction cycle where myosin heads pivot and pull actin filaments towards the center of the sarcomere. True or False?
True
149
A motor unit consists of a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates. True or False?
True
150
Isotonic contractions involve muscle shortening and movement at a joint. True or False?
True
151
Myoglobin is a protein that stores oxygen in muscle fibers and enhances their endurance capacity. True or False?
True
152
Tendons are strong bands of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones. True or False?
True
153
Excitation-contraction coupling is the process by which an action potential leads to muscle contraction. True or False?
True
154
In a concentric contraction, the muscle lengthens as tension is generated. True or False?
False
155
The motor end plate is a specialized region of the muscle fiber membrane where the motor neuron synapses with the muscle fiber. True or False?
True
156
Myosin heads bind to ATP during the muscle contraction cycle, which allows them to detach from actin. True or False?
True
157
Skeletal muscles are responsible for voluntary movements of the body. True or False?
True
158
Myosin filaments are composed of the protein actin. True or False?
False
159
Smooth muscle lacks striations and is responsible for involuntary movements. True or False?
True
160
A sarcomere is the functional unit of a myofibril and is responsible for muscle contraction. True or False?
True
161
Isokinetic contractions involve muscle contractions at a constant speed. True or False?
True
162
The H zone is the central region of the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present. True or False?
True
163
Myosin heads undergo a power stroke when ATP binds to them. True or False?
False
164
Satellite cells are responsible for muscle growth and repair. True or False?
True
165
The release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum triggers muscle contraction. True or False?
True
166
The neuromuscular junction is the site of communication between a motor neuron and a ____________.
a) Tendon
b) Ligament
c) Muscle fiber
d) Bone
Muscle fiber
167
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the ____________.
a) Bones
b) Joints
c) Muscles
d) Blood vessels
Muscles
168
Which of the following describes the organization of cardiac muscle?
a) Uninucleated and voluntary
b) Uninucleated and involuntary
c) Multinucleated and voluntary
d) Multinucleated and involuntary
Uninucleated and involuntary
169
Cardiac muscle contraction is initiated by the spontaneous generation of electrical impulses in the ____________.
a) Brain
b) Spinal cord
c) Heart
d) Lungs
Heart
170
Smooth muscle is organized into layers called ____________.
Laminae
171
The types of smooth muscle fibers include ____________ and ____________.
Single-unit, multi-unit
172
The neuromuscular junction is a synapse between a motor neuron and a cardiac muscle cell. True or False?
False
173
Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, especially in the muscles involved in breathing and swallowing. True or False?
True
174
Cardiac muscle cells are connected by intercalated discs, which contain gap junctions allowing for electrical and mechanical coupling. True or False?
True
175
Cardiac muscle contracts through a process called sliding filament mechanism, similar to skeletal muscle. True or False?
True
176
Smooth muscle is uninucleated and under voluntary control. True or False?
False
177
Smooth muscle cells are spindle-shaped and lack striations. True or False?
True
178
Smooth muscle contraction is regulated by the autonomic nervous system and various chemical factors. True or False?
True
179
Cardiac muscle has a high regenerative capacity, allowing for significant repair and regeneration after injury. True or False?
False
180
Skeletal muscles develop from the mesoderm germ layer during embryonic development. True or False?
True
181
Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels. True or False?
True
182
The contraction of cardiac muscle is initiated by the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. True or False?
True
183
The development of cardiac muscle involves the differentiation of cardiac progenitor cells into cardiomyocytes. True or False?
True
184
Skeletal muscle fibers are multinucleated and under involuntary control. True or False?
False
185
Smooth muscle cells can contract spontaneously without neural input. True or False?
True
186
Development of smooth muscle involves the differentiation of mesenchymal cells into smooth muscle cells. True or False?
True
187
Cardiac muscle cells are connected by desmosomes and gap junctions, allowing for coordinated contraction. True or False?
True
188
Myasthenia gravis is characterized by an overactive immune response targeting acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. True or False?
False
189
Smooth muscle contraction involves the sliding of actin and myosin filaments similar to skeletal muscle contraction. True or False?
True
190
The development of skeletal muscles involves the fusion of myoblasts to form multinucleated muscle fibers. True or False?
True
191
Skeletal muscles develop from which germ layer during embryonic development?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Epiblast
Mesoderm
192
Smooth muscle develops from which germ layer during embryogenesis?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Epiblast
Mesoderm
193
Cardiac muscle cells originate from which germ layer during embryonic development?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Epiblast
Mesoderm
194
During skeletal muscle development, myoblasts fuse together to form multinucleated structures called ____________.
a) Myotubes
b) Myofibrils
c) Sarcomeres
d) Myocardium
Myotubes
195
The process of skeletal muscle development is regulated by a family of transcription factors known as ____________.
Myogenic regulatory factors
196
Smooth muscle cells differentiate from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells during embryonic development. True or false?
True
197
Skeletal muscle precursors, known as myoblasts, undergo proliferation, migration, and differentiation to form mature muscle fibers. True or false?
True
198
Cardiac muscle cells undergo extensive cell division during embryonic development, contributing to heart growth. True or false?
False
199
Skeletal muscle fibers acquire their striated appearance during the early stages of embryonic development. True or false?
True
200
Smooth muscle in various organs arises from both local differentiation of mesenchymal cells and migration of neural crest cells. True or false?
True
