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Committee Exam 4 > TEST 8 > Flashcards

TEST 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein?
a) Albumin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Globulin
d) Hemoglobin

A

Albumin

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2
Q

Which blood cell is responsible for oxygen transport?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Leukocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) Monocytes

A

Erythrocytes

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3
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of sickle cell disease?
a) Increased number of red blood cells
b) Abnormal shape of red blood cells
c) Decreased number of white blood cells
d) Increased blood clotting ability

A

Abnormal shape of red blood cells

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4
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of jaundice?
a) Pale skin
b) High blood pressure
c) Yellowing of the skin
d) Rapid heartbeat

A

Yellowing of the skin

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5
Q

Which blood cell is involved in the immune response?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Thrombocytes
c) Basophils
d) Neutrophils

A

Neutrophils

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6
Q

___________ is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or the amount of hemoglobin.

A

Anemia

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7
Q

The process of examining a blood sample under a microscope to evaluate the morphology of blood cells is called a ___________.

A

Blood smear

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8
Q

The major plasma protein responsible for blood clotting is ___________.

A

Fibrinogen

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9
Q

___________ are red blood cells that contain an abnormal form of hemoglobin, leading to their sickle-like shape.

A

Erythrocytes

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10
Q

___________ is a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections.

A

Eosinophils

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11
Q

Plasma is the liquid component of blood that carries cells and dissolved substances. True or False?

A

True

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12
Q

Albumin is a plasma protein responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure and transporting hormones. True or False?

A

True

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13
Q

Hemoglobin is found in white blood cells and is responsible for their immune functions. True or False?

A

False

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14
Q

Anemia can be caused by a deficiency in iron, leading to decreased red blood cell production. True or False?

A

True

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15
Q

Leukocytes are also known as red blood cells. True or False?

A

False

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16
Q

Which type of anemia is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12?
a) Iron-deficiency anemia
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) Sickle cell anemia

A

Pernicious anemia

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17
Q

The process by which leukocytes squeeze through capillary walls and enter the surrounding tissue is called ___________.

A

Diapedesis

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18
Q

Thrombocytes are responsible for blood clotting. True or false?

A

True

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19
Q

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation affecting the production of:
a) Erythrocytes
b) Leukocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) Platelets

A

Erythrocytes

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20
Q

Leukocytes are primarily responsible for the transport of oxygen in the bloodstream. True or false?

A

False

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21
Q

Which of the following is an example of a granulocyte?
a) Lymphocyte
b) Monocyte
c) Eosinophil
d) Natural killer cell

A

Eosinophil

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22
Q

Which type of leukocyte is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
a) Neutrophil
b) Basophil
c) Lymphocyte
d) Monocyte

A

Basophil

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23
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the function of:
a) Neutrophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Basophils
d) Monocytes

A

Neutrophils

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24
Q

Eosinophilia is characterized by an elevated number of:
a) Lymphocytes
b) Basophils
c) Eosinophils
d) Monocytes

A

Eosinophils

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25
Q

Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction that can result in:
a) Increased blood clotting
b) Decreased heart rate
c) Constriction of airways
d) Suppression of the immune system

A

Constriction of airways

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26
Q

Platelets, also known as ___________, play a crucial role in blood clotting.

A

Thrombocytes

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27
Q

___________ is a protein produced by the liver that is essential for the formation of blood clots.

A

Fibrinogen

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28
Q

___________ are leukocytes that lack visible cytoplasmic granules.

A

Agranulocytes

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29
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease is characterized by the inability of leukocytes to produce functional ___________.

A

Reactive oxygen species

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30
Q

Lymphomas are cancers that develop in the ___________ of the immune system.

A

Lymphocytes

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31
Q

Neutrophils are the most abundant type of leukocytes in the bloodstream. True or False?

A

True

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32
Q

Basophils release histamine, which contributes to the inflammatory response. True or False?

A

True

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33
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease is an autoimmune disorder. True or False?

A

False

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34
Q

Eosinophilia is commonly associated with allergic and autoimmune conditions. True or False?

A

True

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35
Q

Platelets are responsible for initiating the process of blood clotting. True or False?

A

True

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36
Q

Which of the following is a crucial step in the process of blood clotting?
a) Platelet aggregation
b) Hemoglobin synthesis
c) Red blood cell production
d) Lymphocyte activation

A

Platelet aggregation

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37
Q

Platelets release ___________ during blood clotting to promote vasoconstriction.
a) Histamine
b) Serotonin
c) Interleukins
d) Antibodies

A

Serotonin

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38
Q

During blood clotting, fibrinogen is converted into ___________, which forms a mesh-like structure to stabilize the clot.

A

Fibrin

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39
Q

The enzyme ___________ plays a key role in the breakdown of blood clots during the healing process.

A

Plasmin

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40
Q

Platelets are formed in the bone marrow from stem cells. True or false?

A

True

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41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissue?
a) Protection
b) Secretion
c) Contraction
d) Absorption

A

Contraction

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42
Q

Epithelial tissue is classified based on the number of cell layers and the shape of the cells. Which type consists of a single layer of flattened cells?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Stratified squamous epithelium

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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43
Q

Which type of epithelium is best suited for diffusion and filtration?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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44
Q

Which type of epithelial tissue lines the kidney tubules and glands?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Stratified squamous epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

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45
Q

Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the lining of the digestive tract and contains goblet cells that secrete mucus?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Stratified squamous epithelium

A

Simple columnar epithelium

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46
Q

Epithelial tissue forms the ___________ covering of the body and lines various organs and cavities.

A

Protective

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47
Q

Simple squamous epithelium is found in the ___________ and allows for rapid diffusion and filtration.

A

Alveoli of the lungs

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48
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium is composed of ___________ layers of cube-shaped cells and is involved in secretion and absorption.

A

Single

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49
Q

The ___________ of simple columnar epithelium helps in increasing the surface area for absorption in the small intestine.

A

Microvilli

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50
Q

Epithelial tissue lacks blood vessels and receives nutrients through diffusion from underlying tissues. True or false?

A

True

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51
Q

Simple squamous epithelium lines the inner surface of blood vessels and provides a smooth surface for blood flow. True or false?

A

True

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52
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in the lining of the respiratory tract. True or false?

A

False

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53
Q

The cells in simple columnar epithelium are taller than they are wide. True or false?

A

True

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54
Q

Epithelial tissue can be classified into two types: stratified and pseudostratified. True or false?

A

False

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55
Q

Simple squamous epithelium is found in the air sacs of the lungs, where it facilitates gas exchange. True or false?

A

True

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56
Q

Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder and allows for stretching and expansion?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Stratified squamous epithelium
c) Transitional epithelium
d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

Transitional epithelium

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57
Q

Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the outermost layer of the skin and provides protection against mechanical stress and pathogens?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Stratified squamous epithelium
c) Simple cuboidal epithelium
d) Simple columnar epithelium

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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58
Q

___________ epithelium is composed of multiple layers of cells and is found in areas subjected to wear and tear.

A

Stratified squamous

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59
Q

Goblet cells, which secrete mucus, are commonly found in ___________ epithelium.

A

Simple columnar

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60
Q

Simple squamous epithelium is responsible for the production and secretion of hormones. True or false?

A

False

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61
Q

Epithelial metaplasia refers to the conversion of one type of epithelium into another type due to:
a) Genetic mutation
b) Inflammation
c) Aging
d) Hormonal changes

A

Inflammation

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62
Q

Microvilli are small, finger-like projections on the surface of epithelial cells primarily involved in:
a) Absorption
b) Filtration
c) Secretion
d) Contraction

A

Absorption

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63
Q

Stereocilia are found in which part of the body?
a) Small intestine
b) Inner ear
c) Kidney tubules
d) Trachea

A

Inner ear

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64
Q

Cilia are classified based on their structure and movement. Which type of cilia are immotile and primarily function in sensory perception?
a) Primary cilia
b) Motile cilia
c) Respiratory cilia
d) Olfactory cilia

A

Primary cilia

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65
Q

Gap junctions are specialized intercellular connections that allow for direct communication between adjacent cells through the passage of:
a) Nucleotides
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Water

A

Proteins

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66
Q

Macula adherens, also known as ___________, are specialized junctions that provide mechanical strength to epithelial tissues.

A

Desmosomes

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67
Q

Hemidesmosomes are structures that anchor epithelial cells to the ___________.

A

Basement membrane

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68
Q

Glandular epithelium is specialized for ___________ and is involved in the production and secretion of various substances.

A

Secretion

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69
Q

Epithelial metaplasia is a reversible process that occurs in response to chronic irritation or injury. True or False?

A

True

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70
Q

Microvilli increase the surface area of epithelial cells, enhancing their ability to absorb nutrients. True or False?

A

True

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71
Q

Stereocilia are typically found in the respiratory system and help in the movement of mucus. True or False?

A

False

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72
Q

Motile cilia found in the respiratory tract are responsible for sweeping mucus and foreign particles out of the lungs. True or False?

A

True

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73
Q

Gap junctions allow for the exchange of small molecules and electrical signals between neighboring cells. True or False?

A

True

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74
Q

Hemidesmosomes are found only in stratified squamous epithelium. True or False?

A

False

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75
Q

Glandular epithelium can be classified into endocrine and exocrine glands based on their mode of secretion. True or False?

A

True

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76
Q

Epithelial metaplasia is most commonly associated with which type of epithelial transformation?
a) Conversion of squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium
b) Conversion of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium
c) Conversion of cuboidal epithelium to transitional epithelium
d) Conversion of transitional epithelium to cuboidal epithelium

A

Conversion of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium

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77
Q

Microvilli are found in high abundance in which of the following structures?
a) Kidney tubules
b) Small intestine
c) Inner ear
d) Trachea

A

Small intestine

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78
Q

Stereocilia are found in which part of the male reproductive system?
a) Epididymis
b) Seminal vesicles
c) Prostate gland
d) Testes

A

Epididymis

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79
Q

Cilia can be classified into two categories based on their structure and function. Which type of cilia are found in the female reproductive tract and aid in the movement of ova?
a) Primary cilia
b) Motile cilia
c) Sensory cilia
d) Vestibular cilia

A

Motile cilia

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80
Q

Gap junctions are specialized intercellular connections that allow for direct ___________ and exchange of small molecules between adjacent cells.

A

Communication

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81
Q

Epithelial metaplasia is an irreversible process that occurs due to genetic mutations. True or false?

A

False

82
Q

Microvilli are capable of independent movement and play a role in cell locomotion. True or false?

A

False

83
Q

_______________ cells that are specialized to produce and secrete substances into ducts or into body fluids.

A

Glandular

84
Q

Endocrine glands secrete hormones internally as they are __________

A

ductless

85
Q

Exocrine glands have __________ ducts.

A

True

86
Q

Connective tissue is characterized by an abundance of:
a) Cells
b) Blood vessels
c) Extracellular matrix
d) Nerve fibers

A

Extracellular matrix

87
Q

Which type of connective tissue provides strength and support to the body and is composed of collagen fibers?
a) Loose connective tissue
b) Dense connective tissue
c) Adipose tissue
d) Cartilage

A

Dense connective tissue

88
Q

The primary function of connective tissue is to:
a) Transmit electrical signals
b) Generate movement
c) Store energy
d) Connect and support body structures

A

Connect and support body structures

89
Q

Which of the following is an example of specialized connective tissue involved in energy storage and insulation?
a) Tendon
b) Ligament
c) Adipose tissue
d) Blood

A

Adipose tissue

90
Q

Connective tissue cells responsible for producing the extracellular matrix are called ___________.

A

Fibroblasts

91
Q

The extracellular matrix of connective tissue is primarily composed of ___________ and ___________.

A

Fibers, ground substance

92
Q

Edema is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces, leading to tissue swelling. True or False?

A

True

93
Q

The intercellular substances of connective tissue play a role in providing mechanical support and binding cells together. True or False?

A

True

94
Q

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are a type of carbohydrate found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue. True or False?

A

True

95
Q

Glycoproteins are proteins that contain both carbohydrates and lipid molecules and are involved in cell adhesion. True or False?

A

False

96
Q

Loose connective tissue is primarily composed of densely packed collagen fibers. True or False?

A

False

97
Q

Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that is avascular and heals slowly due to a limited blood supply. True or False?

A

True

98
Q

Blood is considered a connective tissue because it has a liquid extracellular matrix called plasma. True or False?

A

True

99
Q

Mast cells are connective tissue cells that release histamine and other chemicals during an allergic response. True or False?

A

True

100
Q

The primary function of adipose tissue is to provide mechanical support and protection to organs. True or False?

A

False

101
Q

Chondrocytes are the main cells found in bone tissue and are responsible for bone formation. True or False?

A

False

102
Q

Elastic fibers in connective tissue provide flexibility and recoil to tissues, such as in the lungs and arteries. True or False?

A

True

103
Q

Fibrocartilage is a type of connective tissue found in intervertebral discs and has a high degree of elasticity. True or False?

A

False

104
Q

Plasma cells are connective tissue cells that produce antibodies involved in immune responses. True or False?

A

True

105
Q

The extracellular matrix of connective tissue plays a role in nutrient and waste exchange between cells. True or False?

A

True

106
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of formed fibers found in connective tissue?
a) Collagen fibers
b) Elastic fibers
c) Reticular fibers
d) Adipose fibers

A

Adipose fibers

107
Q

Collagen synthesis is a process that requires the presence of:
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin K

A

Vitamin C

108
Q

Scurvy is a condition characterized by:
a) Excessive collagen synthesis
b) Deficiency of vitamin C
c) Excessive elastic fiber production
d) Deficiency of vitamin D

A

Deficiency of vitamin C

109
Q

Which type of cells in connective tissue are permanent residents and contribute to tissue maintenance and repair?
a) Resident cells
b) Transient cells
c) Fibroblasts
d) Macrophages

A

Resident cells

110
Q

Fibroblasts are responsible for synthesizing and secreting ___________ in connective tissue.

A

Extracellular matrix

111
Q

The stages of wound healing include ___________, ___________, and remodeling.

A

Inflammation, proliferation

112
Q

Adipocytes are specialized cells found in connective tissue that store fat. True or False?

A

True

113
Q

Urticaria, also known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by raised, itchy welts. True or False?

A

True

114
Q

The three types of formed fibers in connective tissue are collagen fibers, elastic fibers, and adipose fibers. True or False?

A

False

115
Q

Collagen synthesis is a process that involves the formation of collagen protein chains from individual amino acids. True or False?

A

True

116
Q

Resident cells in connective tissue are temporary cells that migrate to the site of injury or inflammation. True or False?

A

False

117
Q

Macrophages are transient cells in connective tissue that play a role in phagocytosis and immune response. True or False?

A

True

118
Q

In the inflammation stage of wound healing, blood vessels constrict to minimize bleeding. True or False?

A

False

119
Q

Proliferation is the stage of wound healing where new blood vessels form and granulation tissue fills the wound. True or False?

A

True

120
Q

Remodeling is the final stage of wound healing where scar tissue is gradually replaced by normal tissue. True or False?

A

True

121
Q

Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue that functions in energy storage and insulation. True or False?

A

True

122
Q

Urticaria is typically caused by an allergic reaction or an autoimmune response. True or False?

A

True

123
Q

Elastic fibers provide strength and support to connective tissues, allowing them to stretch and recoil. True or False?

A

True

124
Q

Fibroblasts are transient cells that produce collagen and elastin fibers in response to tissue injury. True or False?

A

False

125
Q

The main function of resident cells in connective tissue is to initiate the inflammatory response. True or False?

A

False

126
Q

Scurvy is a condition that primarily affects the bones, leading to weakened and brittle bones. True or False?

A

False

127
Q

Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human body and provides structural support to various tissues. True or False?

A

True

128
Q

Macrophages are responsible for phagocytosing foreign substances and debris in connective tissue. True or False?

A

True

129
Q

The proliferation stage of wound healing involves the formation of new blood vessels to supply nutrients to the healing tissue. True or False?

A

True

130
Q

Urticaria can be triggered by certain medications, insect bites, or exposure to allergens. True or False?

A

True

131
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of muscle tissue?
a) Producing movement
b) Maintaining posture
c) Generating heat
d) Conducting electrical signals

A

Conducting electrical signals

132
Q

Smooth muscle is found in which of the following organs?
a) Heart
b) Liver
c) Stomach
d) Biceps brachii

A

Stomach

133
Q

Which functional classification of skeletal muscles is responsible for stabilizing joints?
a) Agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Synergist
d) Fixator

A

Fixator

134
Q

The connective tissue that surrounds a bundle of muscle fibers is called:
a) Endomysium
b) Epimysium
c) Perimysium
d) Sarcomere

A

Perimysium

135
Q

Skeletal muscles are composed of long, cylindrical cells called ___________.

A

Muscle fibers

136
Q

The contractile unit of a muscle fiber is called a ___________.

A

Sarcomere

137
Q

Cardiac muscle is striated and under involuntary control. True or False?

A

True

138
Q

Slow-twitch muscle fibers are fatigue-resistant and are well-suited for endurance activities. True or False?

A

True

139
Q

Actin and myosin are two proteins involved in muscle contraction. True or False?

A

True

140
Q

The muscle contraction cycle involves the sliding of actin filaments past myosin filaments. True or False?

A

True

141
Q

Skeletal muscles contract when calcium ions bind to troponin, which exposes binding sites on actin filaments. True or False?

A

True

142
Q

During muscle contraction, ATP is required for the detachment of myosin heads from actin filaments. True or False?

A

True

143
Q

Isometric contractions involve muscle lengthening and shortening without producing movement at a joint. True or False?

A

False

144
Q

Fast-twitch muscle fibers are characterized by a high capacity for aerobic metabolism. True or False?

A

False

145
Q

The sliding filament theory explains how muscle fibers generate force and produce movement. True or False?

A

True

146
Q

The cross-bridge formation between actin and myosin is mediated by calcium ions. True or False?

A

True

147
Q

Smooth muscle is under voluntary control and is responsible for voluntary movements. True or False?

A

False

148
Q

The power stroke is the stage in the muscle contraction cycle where myosin heads pivot and pull actin filaments towards the center of the sarcomere. True or False?

A

True

149
Q

A motor unit consists of a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates. True or False?

A

True

150
Q

Isotonic contractions involve muscle shortening and movement at a joint. True or False?

A

True

151
Q

Myoglobin is a protein that stores oxygen in muscle fibers and enhances their endurance capacity. True or False?

A

True

152
Q

Tendons are strong bands of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones. True or False?

A

True

153
Q

Excitation-contraction coupling is the process by which an action potential leads to muscle contraction. True or False?

A

True

154
Q

In a concentric contraction, the muscle lengthens as tension is generated. True or False?

A

False

155
Q

The motor end plate is a specialized region of the muscle fiber membrane where the motor neuron synapses with the muscle fiber. True or False?

A

True

156
Q

Myosin heads bind to ATP during the muscle contraction cycle, which allows them to detach from actin. True or False?

A

True

157
Q

Skeletal muscles are responsible for voluntary movements of the body. True or False?

A

True

158
Q

Myosin filaments are composed of the protein actin. True or False?

A

False

159
Q

Smooth muscle lacks striations and is responsible for involuntary movements. True or False?

A

True

160
Q

A sarcomere is the functional unit of a myofibril and is responsible for muscle contraction. True or False?

A

True

161
Q

Isokinetic contractions involve muscle contractions at a constant speed. True or False?

A

True

162
Q

The H zone is the central region of the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present. True or False?

A

True

163
Q

Myosin heads undergo a power stroke when ATP binds to them. True or False?

A

False

164
Q

Satellite cells are responsible for muscle growth and repair. True or False?

A

True

165
Q

The release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum triggers muscle contraction. True or False?

A

True

166
Q

The neuromuscular junction is the site of communication between a motor neuron and a ____________.
a) Tendon
b) Ligament
c) Muscle fiber
d) Bone

A

Muscle fiber

167
Q

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the ____________.
a) Bones
b) Joints
c) Muscles
d) Blood vessels

A

Muscles

168
Q

Which of the following describes the organization of cardiac muscle?
a) Uninucleated and voluntary
b) Uninucleated and involuntary
c) Multinucleated and voluntary
d) Multinucleated and involuntary

A

Uninucleated and involuntary

169
Q

Cardiac muscle contraction is initiated by the spontaneous generation of electrical impulses in the ____________.
a) Brain
b) Spinal cord
c) Heart
d) Lungs

A

Heart

170
Q

Smooth muscle is organized into layers called ____________.

A

Laminae

171
Q

The types of smooth muscle fibers include ____________ and ____________.

A

Single-unit, multi-unit

172
Q

The neuromuscular junction is a synapse between a motor neuron and a cardiac muscle cell. True or False?

A

False

173
Q

Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, especially in the muscles involved in breathing and swallowing. True or False?

A

True

174
Q

Cardiac muscle cells are connected by intercalated discs, which contain gap junctions allowing for electrical and mechanical coupling. True or False?

A

True

175
Q

Cardiac muscle contracts through a process called sliding filament mechanism, similar to skeletal muscle. True or False?

A

True

176
Q

Smooth muscle is uninucleated and under voluntary control. True or False?

A

False

177
Q

Smooth muscle cells are spindle-shaped and lack striations. True or False?

A

True

178
Q

Smooth muscle contraction is regulated by the autonomic nervous system and various chemical factors. True or False?

A

True

179
Q

Cardiac muscle has a high regenerative capacity, allowing for significant repair and regeneration after injury. True or False?

A

False

180
Q

Skeletal muscles develop from the mesoderm germ layer during embryonic development. True or False?

A

True

181
Q

Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels. True or False?

A

True

182
Q

The contraction of cardiac muscle is initiated by the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. True or False?

A

True

183
Q

The development of cardiac muscle involves the differentiation of cardiac progenitor cells into cardiomyocytes. True or False?

A

True

184
Q

Skeletal muscle fibers are multinucleated and under involuntary control. True or False?

A

False

185
Q

Smooth muscle cells can contract spontaneously without neural input. True or False?

A

True

186
Q

Development of smooth muscle involves the differentiation of mesenchymal cells into smooth muscle cells. True or False?

A

True

187
Q

Cardiac muscle cells are connected by desmosomes and gap junctions, allowing for coordinated contraction. True or False?

A

True

188
Q

Myasthenia gravis is characterized by an overactive immune response targeting acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. True or False?

A

False

189
Q

Smooth muscle contraction involves the sliding of actin and myosin filaments similar to skeletal muscle contraction. True or False?

A

True

190
Q

The development of skeletal muscles involves the fusion of myoblasts to form multinucleated muscle fibers. True or False?

A

True

191
Q

Skeletal muscles develop from which germ layer during embryonic development?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Epiblast

A

Mesoderm

192
Q

Smooth muscle develops from which germ layer during embryogenesis?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Epiblast

A

Mesoderm

193
Q

Cardiac muscle cells originate from which germ layer during embryonic development?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Epiblast

A

Mesoderm

194
Q

During skeletal muscle development, myoblasts fuse together to form multinucleated structures called ____________.
a) Myotubes
b) Myofibrils
c) Sarcomeres
d) Myocardium

A

Myotubes

195
Q

The process of skeletal muscle development is regulated by a family of transcription factors known as ____________.

A

Myogenic regulatory factors

196
Q

Smooth muscle cells differentiate from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells during embryonic development. True or false?

A

True

197
Q

Skeletal muscle precursors, known as myoblasts, undergo proliferation, migration, and differentiation to form mature muscle fibers. True or false?

A

True

198
Q

Cardiac muscle cells undergo extensive cell division during embryonic development, contributing to heart growth. True or false?

A

False

199
Q

Skeletal muscle fibers acquire their striated appearance during the early stages of embryonic development. True or false?

A

True

200
Q

Smooth muscle in various organs arises from both local differentiation of mesenchymal cells and migration of neural crest cells. True or false?

A

True

Committee Exam 4 (35 decks)

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