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Committee Exam 4 > TEST 5 > Flashcards

TEST 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

The amniotic cavity is formed by the:
a) Inner cell mass
b) Yolk sac
c) Trophoblast
d) Chorion

A

Inner cell mass

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2
Q

The embryonic disc is formed from the:
a) Epiblast
b) Hypoblast
c) Syncytiotrophoblast
d) Cytotrophoblast

A

Epiblast

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3
Q

The umbilical vesicle is also known as the:
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Yolk sac
d) Placenta

A

Yolk sac

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4
Q

The embryonic disc consists of two layers called the:
a) Ectoderm and endoderm
b) Ectoderm and mesoderm
c) Endoderm and mesoderm
d) Mesoderm and trophoblast

A

Ectoderm and mesoderm

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5
Q

The embryonic disc is formed during the process of ________.

A

Gastrulation

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6
Q

The umbilical vesicle is responsible for early ________ in the developing embryo.

A

Nutrient exchange

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7
Q

The umbilical vesicle gives rise to the fetal digestive system. True/False

A

True

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8
Q

The amniotic fluid provides a protective cushion for the developing embryo. True/False

A

True

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9
Q

The umbilical vesicle is derived from the trophoblast. True/False

A

False

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10
Q

The embryonic disc is the first structure to form during embryogenesis. True/False

A

True

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11
Q

The chorionic sac is composed of two layers known as the:
a) Ectoderm and mesoderm
b) Ectoderm and endoderm
c) Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
d) Chorion and amnion

A

Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

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12
Q

The chorionic sac is responsible for:
a) Nutrient exchange between the mother and fetus
b) Formation of the umbilical cord
c) Production of amniotic fluid
d) Protection of the developing embryo

A

Nutrient exchange between the mother and fetus

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13
Q

The chorionic sac eventually gives rise to the formation of the:
a) Placenta
b) Amniotic cavity
c) Umbilical vesicle
d) Allantois

A

Placenta

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14
Q

The chorionic sac is responsible for the production of hormones during pregnancy. True/False

A

False

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15
Q

The chorionic sac eventually fuses with the amnion to form the amniotic cavity. True/False

A

True

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16
Q

The decidua is the specialized lining of the:
a) Placenta
b) Uterus
c) Amniotic cavity
d) Umbilical cord

A

Uterus

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17
Q

The decidua is divided into three regions known as the:
a) Decidua basalis, decidua capsularis, decidua parietalis
b) Decidua serosa, decidua interna, decidua externa
c) Decidua vera, decidua placentalis, decidua amnion
d) Decidua epithelialis, decidua fibrosa, decidua musculosa

A

Decidua basalis, decidua capsularis, decidua parietalis

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18
Q

The placenta is attached to the uterine wall at the region of the:
a) Decidua basalis
b) Decidua capsularis
c) Decidua parietalis
d) Decidua serosa

A

Decidua basalis

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19
Q

The decidua capsularis covers the ________ and surrounds the developing embryo/fetus.

A

Amniotic cavity

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20
Q

The placenta acts as a barrier, preventing the mixing of the mother’s and fetus’s blood. True/False

A

True

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21
Q

The decidua sheds during menstruation if pregnancy does not occur. True/False

A

True

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22
Q

The decidua capsularis is in direct contact with the fetus. True/False

A

False

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23
Q

The placenta is primarily formed by the maternal tissues. True/False

A

False

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24
Q

The decidua plays a crucial role in providing nourishment to the developing fetus. True/False

A

False

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25
Q

The placenta attaches to the decidua serosa. True/False

A

False

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26
Q

The amniochorionic membrane is composed of:
a) Amnion and chorion
b) Amnion and umbilical cord
c) Chorion and umbilical cord
d) Chorion and decidua

A

Amnion and chorion

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27
Q

The amniochorionic membrane attaches the placenta to the uterine wall. True/False

A

False

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28
Q

The amniochorionic membrane ruptures during the labor. True/False

A

True

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29
Q

The rupture of amniochorionic membrane leads to the escape of amniotic fluid through ___________ and _____________

A

Cervix and vagina

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30
Q

Preterm rupture of the amniochorionic membrane leads to?

A

Preterm labor

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31
Q

Placental circulation refers to the flow of blood between the:
a) Mother and fetus
b) Placenta and amniotic fluid
c) Maternal and fetal circulatory systems
d) Umbilical cord and fetus

A

Maternal and fetal circulatory systems

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32
Q

The oxygen-depleted blood from the fetus is carried back to the placenta through the:
a) Placental artery
b) Placental vein
c) Umbilical artery
d) Umbilical vein

A

Umbilical artery

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33
Q

The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. True/False

A

True

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34
Q

Placental circulation is established during the first trimester of pregnancy. True/False

A

True

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35
Q

Placental hormones play a role in regulating blood flow within the placenta. True/False

A

True

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36
Q

Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta:
a) Detaches from the uterine wall
b) Develops abnormally large blood vessels
c) Covers the cervix partially or completely
d) Forms multiple lobes instead of a single disc

A

Covers the cervix partially or completely

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37
Q

Placental abruption refers to the:
a) Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
b) Development of cysts within the placenta
c) Formation of excessive scar tissue on the placenta
d) Presence of multiple small placental lobes

A

Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

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38
Q

In a case of placenta accreta, the placenta:
a) Develops outside the uterus
b) Does not properly attach to the uterine wall
c) Invades the uterine muscle
d) Forms multiple lobes instead of a single disc

A

Invades the uterine muscle

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39
Q

Placental insufficiency refers to a condition where the placenta:
a) Develops abnormally large blood vessels
b) Fails to provide adequate oxygen and nutrients to the fetus
c) Separates prematurely from the uterine wall
d) Forms multiple small lobes instead of a single disc

A

Fails to provide adequate oxygen and nutrients to the fetus

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40
Q

Placental abruption can cause heavy bleeding and is a medical emergency. True/False

A

True

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41
Q

Oligohydramnios refers to a condition characterized by:
a) Excessive amniotic fluid
b) Normal amniotic fluid levels
c) Insufficient amniotic fluid
d) Abnormal composition of amniotic fluid

A

Insufficient amniotic fluid

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42
Q

Polyhydramnios is a condition characterized by:
a) Excessive amniotic fluid
b) Normal amniotic fluid levels
c) Insufficient amniotic fluid
d) Abnormal composition of amniotic fluid

A

Excessive amniotic fluid

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43
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition that occurs when:
a) The mother’s blood type is Rh-negative, and the fetus is Rh-positive
b) The mother’s blood type is Rh-positive, and the fetus is Rh-negative
c) Both the mother and fetus have Rh-negative blood type
d) Both the mother and fetus have Rh-positive blood type

A

The mother’s blood type is Rh-negative, and the fetus is Rh-positive

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44
Q

Fetal hydrops refers to a condition characterized by:
a) Accumulation of fluid in the fetal lungs
b) Swelling of the fetal skin and tissues
c) Abnormal growth of the placenta
d) Insufficient production of amniotic fluid

A

Swelling of the fetal skin and tissues

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45
Q

Fetal hydrops can be caused by:
a) Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus
b) Maternal infections
c) Congenital heart defects in the fetus
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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46
Q

Monozygotic twins are formed when:
a) Two separate eggs are fertilized by two different sperm
b) One egg is fertilized by one sperm, and then the embryo splits into two
c) One egg is fertilized by two different sperm
d) Two eggs are fertilized by two different sperm

A

One egg is fertilized by one sperm, and then the embryo splits into two

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47
Q

Dizygotic twins are formed when:
a) Two separate eggs are fertilized by two different sperm
b) One egg is fertilized by one sperm, and then the embryo splits into two
c) One egg is fertilized by two different sperm
d) Two eggs are fertilized by two different sperm

A

Two separate eggs are fertilized by two different sperm

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48
Q

The occurrence of dizygotic twins is influenced by:
a) Maternal age
b) Maternal ethnicity
c) Maternal family history of twins
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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49
Q

Monozygotic twins have the same genetic makeup, while dizygotic twins share approximately 50% of their genetic material. True/False

A

True

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50
Q

Monozygotic twins have separate placentas and amniotic sacs. True/False

A

False

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51
Q

Neurulation is the process by which:
a) The neural tube develops from the ectoderm
b) The notochord transforms into the spinal cord
c) The brain undergoes rapid growth and development
d) The peripheral nerves form in the developing embryo

A

The neural tube develops from the ectoderm

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52
Q

The process of neurulation primarily occurs during which embryonic period?
a) Pre-implantation period
b) Gastrulation period
c) Fetal period
d) Organogenesis period

A

Gastrulation period

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53
Q

The first visible sign of neurulation is the formation of the:
a) Neural crest cells
b) Notochord
c) Neural plate
d) Neural tube

A

Neural plate

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54
Q

The neural plate eventually gives rise to the:
a) Brain only
b) Spinal cord only
c) Central nervous system (CNS)
d) Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

A

Central nervous system (CNS)

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55
Q

The neural tube closes at both ends, forming the:
a) Brain vesicles
b) Cranial nerves
c) Spinal nerves
d) Neural crest cells

A

Brain vesicles

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56
Q

Failure of neural tube closure can lead to:
a) Spina bifida
b) Anencephaly
c) Cleft palate
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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57
Q

The neural crest cells give rise to various structures, including:
a) Sensory neurons
b) Schwann cells
c) Melanocytes
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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58
Q

The process of neurulation is influenced by signaling molecules, such as:
a) Fibroblast growth factors (FGFs)
b) Sonic hedgehog (Shh)
c) Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs)
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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59
Q

The neural plate folds and fuses to form the:
a) Neural crest
b) Neural groove
c) Notochord
d) Neural tube

A

Neural tube

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60
Q

Neurulation begins in which region of the developing embryo?
a) Head region
b) Thoracic region
c) Lumbar region
d) Tail region

A

Head region

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61
Q

The neural tube eventually differentiates into:
a) Gray matter and white matter
b) Sensory neurons and motor neurons
c) Dorsal and ventral horns
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

62
Q

The process of neurulation is complete by the end of which week of gestation?
a) 4th week
b) 8th week
c) 12th week
d) 16th week

A

4th week

63
Q

The notochord plays a critical role in:
a) Inducing neural tube formation
b) Providing mechanical support to the embryo
c) Differentiating into the spinal cord
d) All of the above

A

Inducing neural tube formation

64
Q

The neural tube gives rise to which parts of the nervous system?
a) Brain and spinal cord
b) Peripheral nerves
c) Autonomic nervous system
d) Sensory neurons

A

Brain and spinal cord

65
Q

The neural crest cells give rise to various non-neural tissues, such as the bones and muscles. True/False

A

False

66
Q

Failure of neural tube closure can lead to birth defects. True/False

A

True

67
Q

The neural plate folds inward to form the neural tube. True/False

A

True

68
Q

The notochord is essential for the induction of neural tube formation. True/False

A

True

69
Q

The process of neurulation is regulated by various signaling molecules. True/False

A

True

70
Q

Neurulation is a rapid process that occurs within a few days. True/False

A

True

71
Q

Somitogenesis is the process by which:
a) The neural tube develops from the ectoderm
b) The somites are formed from the paraxial mesoderm
c) The limb buds differentiate from the lateral plate mesoderm
d) The notochord transforms into the spinal cord

A

The somites are formed from the paraxial mesoderm

72
Q

Somites are transient structures that give rise to:
a) Muscles only
b) Bones and joints only
c) Nerves and blood vessels only
d) Muscles, bones, joints, and dermis

A

Muscles, bones, joints, and dermis

73
Q

The process of somitogenesis occurs during which period of embryonic development?
a) Pre-implantation period
b) Gastrulation period
c) Fetal period
d) Organogenesis period

A

Gastrulation period

74
Q

The first pair of somites appears at which region of the developing embryo?
a) Head region
b) Thoracic region
c) Lumbar region
d) Tail region

A

Head region

75
Q

Somitogenesis is regulated by a signaling gradient of which molecule?
a) Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
b) Sonic hedgehog (Shh)
c) Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β)
d) Bone morphogenetic protein (BMP)

A

Sonic hedgehog (Shh)

76
Q

The process of somitogenesis is under the control of which genetic pathway?
a) Wnt signaling pathway
b) Notch signaling pathway
c) JAK-STAT signaling pathway
d) Hedgehog signaling pathway

A

Notch signaling pathway

77
Q

How many pairs of somites are typically formed in humans?
a) 7
b) 20
c) 32
d) 42

A

20

78
Q

The somites are organized into three regions, which are:
a) Cranial, thoracic, and lumbar
b) Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
c) Anterior, middle, and posterior
d) Medial, lateral, and dorsal

A

Anterior, middle, and posterior

79
Q

The anterior region of the somite gives rise to:
a) Muscles of the head and neck
b) Muscles of the limbs
c) Vertebrae and ribs
d) Dermis of the back

A

Muscles of the head and neck

80
Q

The dermis of the back is derived from which region of the somite?
a) Anterior
b) Middle
c) Posterior
d) All regions contribute to the dermis

A

Posterior

81
Q

Somites play a role in the development of the:
a) Central nervous system (CNS)
b) Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
c) Cardiovascular system
d) Respiratory system

A

Cardiovascular system

82
Q

The process of somitogenesis is completed by the end of which week of gestation?
a) 4th week
b) 8th week
c) 12th week
d) 16th week

A

8th week

83
Q

The segmentation clock is a genetic oscillator that controls the formation of:
a) Somites
b) Notochord
c) Neural tube
d) Limb buds

A

Somites

84
Q

The paraxial mesoderm gives rise to which other structures besides somites?
a) Kidneys
b) Gonads
c) Heart
d) Skeleton

A

Skeleton

85
Q

Somites form through the process of:
a) Epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT)
b) Cell proliferation
c) Apoptosis
d) Mesenchymal-epithelial transition (MET)

A

Epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT)

86
Q

The process of somitogenesis is completed by the end of the 16th week of gestation. True/False

A

False

87
Q

The anterior region of the somite gives rise to the muscles of the limbs. True/False

A

False

88
Q

Somitogenesis involves the formation of segmental structures along the embryonic axis. True/False

A

True

89
Q

The paraxial mesoderm gives rise to the skeletal system. True/False

A

True

90
Q

Somites are segmented blocks of ________ that form along the embryonic axis.

A

Mesoderm

91
Q

Vasculogenesis is the process by which:
a) Pre-existing blood vessels remodel and expand
b) New blood vessels form from existing vessels
c) Blood islands differentiate into blood vessels
d) Vascular endothelial cells migrate and form tubes

A

Blood islands differentiate into blood vessels

92
Q

Angiogenesis is the process by which:
a) Pre-existing blood vessels remodel and expand
b) New blood vessels form from existing vessels
c) Blood islands differentiate into blood vessels
d) Vascular endothelial cells migrate and form tubes

A

New blood vessels form from existing vessels

93
Q

Vasculogenesis primarily occurs during which embryonic period?
a) Pre-implantation period
b) Gastrulation period
c) Fetal period
d) Organogenesis period

A

Pre-implantation period

94
Q

During vasculogenesis, endothelial cells differentiate from:
a) Neural crest cells
b) Mesenchymal cells
c) Blood islands
d) Cardiac progenitor cells

A

Blood islands

95
Q

Angioblasts are precursor cells that give rise to:
a) Endothelial cells
b) Pericytes
c) Smooth muscle cells
d) All of the above

A

Endothelial cells

96
Q

Sprouting angiogenesis involves the formation of new blood vessels through the growth of:
a) Vascular endothelial cells
b) Pericytes
c) Smooth muscle cells
d) Cardiac progenitor cells

A

Vascular endothelial cells

97
Q

Intussusceptive angiogenesis is characterized by:
a) Splitting or branching of existing blood vessels
b) Sprouting of new blood vessels from existing vessels
c) Formation of blood islands
d) Differentiation of mesenchymal cells into endothelial cells

A

Splitting or branching of existing blood vessels

98
Q

The process of angiogenesis is regulated by fibroblast growth factors (FGFs) and vascular endothelial growth factors (VEGFs). True/False

A

True

99
Q

Angiogenesis involves the recruitment of pericytes to stabilize new blood vessels. True/False

A

True

100
Q

The process of vasculogenesis and angiogenesis is necessary for the development of the respiratory system. True/False

A

False

101
Q

Hematogenesis occurs in ________ week?

A

Fifth

102
Q

Which system begins functioning in embryo first?

A

Cardiovascular

103
Q

Heart beats starts on _________ day of gestation.

A

21-22 day

104
Q

Hematogenesis occurs in how many phases?

A

2

105
Q

What is the first organ that generates red blood cells?

A

Liver

106
Q

Embryonic folding is a process that occurs during which period of embryonic development?
a) Pre-implantation period
b) Gastrulation period
c) Fetal period
d) Organogenesis period

A

Gastrulation period

107
Q

The process of folding transforms the flat embryonic disc into a?

A

Tube

108
Q

During embryonic folding, the endoderm forms the:
a) Outer layer
b) Middle layer
c) Inner layer
d) None of the above

A

Inner layer

109
Q

The folding of the embryo creates which three primary germ layers?
a) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
b) Ectoderm, endoderm, and exoderm
c) Mesoderm, endoderm, and exoderm
d) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and exoderm

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm

110
Q

The first type of folding that occurs during embryonic development is:
a) Transverse folding
b) Cranial folding
c) Caudal folding
d) Lateral folding

A

Transverse folding

111
Q

During transverse folding, the sides of the embryo fold towards the __________ side

A

Ventral

112
Q

The process of cranial folding involves the folding of the embryo’s head region towards the ________ side

A

Dorsal

113
Q

Caudal folding is the folding of the embryo’s tail region towards the ___________ side

A

Ventral

114
Q

Lateral folding refers to the folding of the embryo along its:
a) Anterior-posterior axis
b) Transverse axis
c) Medial-lateral axis
d) Superior-inferior axis

A

Medial-lateral axis

115
Q

The process of folding helps to establish the body axis and position the future organs. True/False

A

True

116
Q

The ectoderm gives rise to the outer layer of the tube formed during folding. True/False

A

True

117
Q

Folding of the embryo is solely driven by genetic factors. True/False

A

False

118
Q

Cranial folding involves the folding of the embryo’s head region towards the dorsal side. True/False

A

True

119
Q

The neural tube is formed during the process of embryonic folding. True/False

A

True

120
Q

During caudal folding, the tail region of the embryo folds towards the ventral side. True/False

A

True

121
Q

Congenital anomalies refer to abnormalities that are:
a) Acquired after birth
b) Present at birth
c) Developed during adolescence
d) Inherited from parents

A

Present at birth

122
Q

Which of the following is NOT a category of congenital anomalies?
a) Structural anomalies
b) Functional anomalies
c) Developmental anomalies
d) Metabolic anomalies

A

Functional anomalies

123
Q

The most common cause of congenital anomalies is:
a) Genetic factors
b) Maternal infections
c) Environmental teratogens
d) Maternal malnutrition

A

Environmental teratogens

124
Q

A cleft lip is an example of a:
a) Structural anomaly
b) Functional anomaly
c) Developmental anomaly
d) Metabolic anomaly

A

Structural anomaly

125
Q

Which of the following is an example of a chromosomal anomaly?
a) Down syndrome
b) Spina bifida
c) Cleft palate
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Down syndrome

126
Q

Congenital heart defects are examples of:
a) Structural anomalies
b) Functional anomalies
c) Developmental anomalies
d) Metabolic anomalies

A

Structural anomalies

127
Q

Anencephaly is a neural tube defect characterized by the absence of the:
a) Brain
b) Spinal cord
c) Heart
d) Limbs

A

Brain

128
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for congenital anomalies?
a) Advanced maternal age
b) Maternal smoking
c) Prenatal vitamin supplementation
d) Maternal diabetes

A

Prenatal vitamin supplementation

129
Q

Congenital anomalies can be detected prenatally through:
a) Ultrasound imaging
b) Maternal blood tests
c) Genetic testing
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

130
Q

Which of the following is an example of a neural tube defect?
a) Cleft lip
b) Down syndrome
c) Spina bifida
d) Clubfoot

A

Spina bifida

131
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome is a congenital anomaly caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. True/False

A

True

132
Q

Congenital anomalies are always apparent at birth and can be easily diagnosed. True/False

A

False

133
Q

Maternal age has no influence on the risk of congenital anomalies in the fetus. True/False

A

False

134
Q

Maternal smoking is a known risk factor for congenital anomalies. True/False

A

True

135
Q

Anencephaly is a neural tube defect characterized by the absence of the spinal cord. True/False

A

False

136
Q

Which of the following is a chromosomal congenital anomaly?
a) Cleft lip
b) Down syndrome
c) Spina bifida
d) Clubfoot

A

Down syndrome

137
Q

Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome:
a) 21
b) 13
c) 18
d) X

A

21

138
Q

Turner syndrome is a chromosomal anomaly that occurs in:
a) Males
b) Females
c) Both males and females
d) None of the above

A

Females

139
Q

Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal anomaly that occurs in:
a) Males
b) Females
c) Both males and females
d) None of the above

A

Males

140
Q

Which of the following chromosomal anomalies is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome in males?
a) Down syndrome
b) Turner syndrome
c) Klinefelter syndrome
d) Cri-du-chat syndrome

A

Klinefelter syndrome

141
Q

Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by a deletion in chromosome:
a) 21
b) 13
c) 5
d) X

A

5

142
Q

Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards syndrome, is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome:
a) 13
b) 18
c) 21
d) X

A

18

143
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom or characteristic of Down syndrome?
a) Intellectual disability
b) Almond-shaped eyes
c) Webbed neck
d) Increased risk of leukemia

A

Webbed neck

144
Q

Which chromosomal congenital anomaly is characterized by a high-pitched cry resembling a cat’s cry?
a) Down syndrome
b) Turner syndrome
c) Cri-du-chat syndrome
d) Klinefelter syndrome

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

145
Q

Chromosomal congenital anomalies can be detected prenatally through:
a) Ultrasound imaging
b) Maternal blood tests
c) Genetic testing
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

146
Q

Most chromosomal congenital anomalies are not compatible with life and result in miscarriage or stillbirth. True/False

A

True

147
Q

Chromosomal congenital anomalies can be detected prenatally through genetic testing. True/False

A

True

148
Q

Klinefelter syndrome occurs in females and is characterized by an extra Y chromosome. True/False

A

False

149
Q

Maternal diabetes can cause ___________

A

Heart and neural tube defects

150
Q

Amniocentesis is a _________ method of sampling?
a) Non-invasive
b) Invasive
c) Both of them
d) None of them

A

Invasive

Committee Exam 4 (35 decks)

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