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Committee Exam 4 > TEST 2 > Flashcards

TEST 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is true about plasmid vectors?
a) They are only found in eukaryotic cells
b) They are circular DNA molecules
c) They contain histones for structural stability
d) They are incapable of carrying foreign DNA

A

They are circular DNA molecules

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2
Q

Plasmid vectors are commonly used in which of the following techniques?
a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
b) Western blotting
c) Southern blotting
d) DNA sequencing

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of plasmid vectors?
a) Origin of replication
b) Antibiotic resistance gene
c) Promoter sequence
d) Introns and exons

A

Introns and exons

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4
Q

Plasmid vectors often carry a selectable marker such as an __________ resistance gene.

A

antibiotic

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5
Q

The _________ sequence in a plasmid vector allows for replication in host cells.

A

origin

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6
Q

Plasmid vectors commonly have a multiple cloning site (MCS) or __________ region, which allows for easy insertion of foreign DNA.

A

polylinker

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7
Q

Plasmid vectors are only used in prokaryotic cells. True or false?

A

False

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8
Q

Plasmid vectors are typically smaller in size compared to bacterial chromosomes.

A

True

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9
Q

Plasmid vectors can replicate independently of the host cell’s genome.

A

True

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10
Q

How many vector types are used?

A

5 types

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11
Q

Recombinant DNA technology involves the manipulation of DNA from ________.
a) Only prokaryotic cells
b) Only eukaryotic cells
c) Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
d) Neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic cells

A

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

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12
Q

Which enzyme is commonly used to cut DNA molecules at specific sequences during recombinant DNA technology?
a) Polymerase
b) Ligase
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) RNA polymerase

A

Restriction endonuclease

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13
Q

In recombinant DNA technology, the DNA fragment to be inserted is often joined to a small circular DNA molecule known as a ________.
a) Vector
b) Plasmid
c) Promoter
d) Primer

A

Vector

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14
Q

The process of introducing recombinant DNA into host cells is known as ________.
a) Transformation
b) Transduction
c) Transcription
d) Translation

A

Transformation

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15
Q

The technique used to amplify a specific DNA sequence into multiple copies is called ________.
a) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
b) Gel electrophoresis
c) Southern blotting
d) Western blotting

A

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

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16
Q

The enzyme responsible for synthesizing a complementary strand of DNA using a DNA template is called ________.
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) Ligase

A

DNA polymerase

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17
Q

Which technique is used to separate DNA fragments based on their size during gel electrophoresis?
a) Chromatography
b) Centrifugation
c) Electrophoresis
d) Microarray analysis

A

Electrophoresis

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18
Q

The technique used to identify a specific DNA sequence using complementary DNA probes is called ________.
a) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
b) Southern blotting
c) Western blotting
d) DNA sequencing

A

Southern blotting

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19
Q

The enzyme used to join DNA fragments together during recombinant DNA technology is called ________.
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) Ligase

A

Ligase

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a commonly used vector in recombinant DNA technology?
a) Plasmid
b) Bacteriophage
c) Cosmid
d) Antibody

A

Antibody

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21
Q

Which technique is used to determine the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule?
a) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
b) Gel electrophoresis
c) Southern blotting
d) DNA sequencing

A

DNA sequencing

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of DNA cloning?
a) Isolation of DNA fragments
b) Amplification of DNA fragments
c) Insertion of DNA fragments into a vector
d) Transcription of DNA fragments

A

Transcription of DNA fragments

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23
Q

The vector commonly used for DNA cloning in bacteria is a ________.

A

plasmid

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24
Q

Recombinant DNA technology allows scientists to combine DNA from different sources. True or false?

A

True

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25
Q

PCR is a technique that can amplify a specific DNA sequence into billions of copies. True or false?

A

True

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26
Q

Recombinant DNA technology has various applications in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and forensic science. True or false?

A

True

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27
Q

DNA rearrangement refers to the process of:
a) Replicating DNA
b) Rearranging the order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule
c) Breaking down DNA into smaller fragments
d) Transcribing DNA into RNA

A

Rearranging the order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule

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28
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for catalyzing DNA rearrangement?
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Ligase
d) Recombinase

A

Recombinase

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29
Q

DNA rearrangement plays an important role in:
a) DNA repair
b) DNA replication
c) Gene expression regulation
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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30
Q

The process of DNA rearrangement often involves:
a) Inversion
b) Deletion
c) Insertion
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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31
Q

Which of the following is an example of DNA rearrangement?
a) Chromosomal translocation
b) DNA methylation
c) DNA replication
d) DNA transcription

A

Chromosomal translocation

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32
Q

DNA rearrangement can result in:
a) Gene duplication
b) Gene fusion
c) Gene inversion
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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33
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with DNA rearrangement?
a) Evolutionary diversification
b) Developmental processes
c) DNA replication errors
d) DNA repair mechanisms

A

DNA replication errors

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34
Q

DNA rearrangement is a natural process that occurs in:
a) Bacteria only
b) Eukaryotes only
c) Both bacteria and eukaryotes
d) Neither bacteria nor eukaryotes

A

Both bacteria and eukaryotes

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35
Q

DNA rearrangement is always detrimental and leads to genetic disorders. True or false?

A

False

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36
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from:
a) Amino acids
b) Fatty acids
c) Glycogen
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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37
Q

Gluconeogenesis primarily occurs in the:
a) Liver
b) Kidneys
c) Pancreas
d) Skeletal muscles

A

Liver

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38
Q

The main purpose of gluconeogenesis is to:
a) Produce energy through glucose breakdown
b) Store glucose as glycogen
c) Maintain blood glucose levels during fasting or starvation
d) Convert glucose into fat molecules

A

Maintain blood glucose levels during fasting or starvation

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39
Q

The key enzyme involved in the regulation of gluconeogenesis is:
a) Glucose-6-phosphatase
b) Hexokinase
c) Glycogen synthase
d) Pyruvate kinase

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase

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40
Q

During gluconeogenesis, pyruvate is converted into?

A

Oxaloacetate

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41
Q

The conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) during gluconeogenesis requires the enzyme:
a) Pyruvate carboxylase
b) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
c) Glucose-6-phosphatase
d) PEP carboxykinase

A

PEP carboxykinase

42
Q

Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by the hormone:
a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) Epinephrine
d) Cortisol

A

Glucagon

43
Q

The primary source of carbon for gluconeogenesis is:
a) Glucose
b) Glycerol
c) Ketone bodies
d) Acetyl-CoA

A

Glycerol

44
Q

The conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate during gluconeogenesis is catalyzed by the enzyme:
a) Glucose-6-phosphatase
b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
d) Phosphofructokinase

A

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

45
Q

Gluconeogenesis is an energy-consuming process that requires:
a) ATP
b) NADH
c) FADH2
d) GTP

A

ATP

46
Q

Gluconeogenesis is an anabolic pathway, meaning it involves the:
a) Breakdown of molecules
b) Synthesis of molecules
c) Release of energy
d) Oxidation of substrates

A

Synthesis of molecules

47
Q

Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by the hormone?

A

Insulin

48
Q

The entry of glycerol into gluconeogenesis requires its conversion to:
a) Pyruvate
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) Oxaloacetate
d) Fatty acids

A

Pyruvate

49
Q

The primary carbon source for gluconeogenesis is __________.

A

lactate

50
Q

The enzyme __________ converts fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate during gluconeogenesis.

A

phosphofructokinase

51
Q

Gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the mitochondria of liver cells. True or false?

A

False

52
Q

Gluconeogenesis is a process that occurs simultaneously with glycolysis. True or false?

A

False

53
Q

Gluconeogenesis is more active during periods of prolonged fasting or starvation. True or false?

A

True

54
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the process by which excess glucose is stored in the body. True or false?

A

False

55
Q

Gluconeogenesis is an essential metabolic pathway for the brain’s energy supply. True or false?

A

True

56
Q

Gluconeogenesis occurs in the absence of carbohydrates in the diet. True or false?

A

True

57
Q

Gluconeogenesis is an exothermic process that releases heat as a byproduct. True or false?

A

False

58
Q

PDH (Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex) is responsible for the conversion of pyruvate into:
a) Acetyl-CoA
b) Lactate
c) Oxaloacetate
d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

A

Acetyl-CoA

59
Q

The PDH complex is composed of multiple enzyme components, including:
a) Pyruvate decarboxylase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Pyruvate carboxylase
d) Dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase

A

Dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase

60
Q

The PDH complex is located in the:
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

A

Mitochondria

61
Q

The activity of the PDH complex is regulated by:
a) Allosteric regulation
b) Covalent modification
c) Hormonal control
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

62
Q

The product of the PDH reaction, acetyl-CoA, enters which metabolic pathway?
a) Glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle (Citric Acid Cycle)
c) Pentose Phosphate Pathway
d) Electron Transport Chain

A

Krebs cycle (Citric Acid Cycle)

63
Q

PDH complex deficiency is associated with which metabolic disorder?
a) Diabetes
b) Phenylketonuria
c) Maple Syrup Urine Disease
d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

64
Q

Phosphocreatine (PCr) is an energy storage molecule found primarily in:
a) Muscle cells
b) Liver cells
c) Pancreatic cells
d) Red blood cells

A

Muscle cells

65
Q

Phosphocreatine functions as a readily available source of:
a) ATP
b) Glucose
c) Fatty acids
d) Amino acids

A

ATP

66
Q

Phosphocreatine can rapidly regenerate ATP through the action of the enzyme:
a) Creatine phosphokinase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Lactate dehydrogenase
d) Adenylate kinase

A

Creatine phosphokinase

67
Q

The conversion of phosphocreatine to creatine is catalyzed by the enzyme:
a) Creatine kinase
b) Phosphocreatine phosphatase
c) Creatinine dehydrogenase
d) Phosphorylase

A

Creatine kinase

68
Q

Phosphocreatine stores are rapidly depleted during:
a) Resting conditions
b) Anaerobic exercise
c) Lipid metabolism
d) Protein synthesis

A

Anaerobic exercise

69
Q

Phosphocreatine levels can be increased through dietary supplementation with:
a) Glucose
b) Creatine
c) Pyruvate
d) Glycogen

A

Creatine

70
Q

The breakdown of phosphocreatine occurs in response to increased:
a) Oxygen levels
b) Blood glucose levels
c) Muscle contraction
d) Insulin secretion

A

Muscle contraction

71
Q

Phosphocreatine serves as an energy buffer to maintain ATP levels during:
a) Aerobic metabolism
b) Glycolysis
c) Lipolysis
d) Anaerobic metabolism

A

Anaerobic metabolism

72
Q

The PDH complex catalyzes the irreversible conversion of pyruvate to __________.

A

acetyl-CoA

73
Q

The PDH complex is active under anaerobic conditions. True or false?

A

False

74
Q

Phosphocreatine levels are higher in fast-twitch muscle fibers compared to slow-twitch muscle fibers. True or false?

A

True

75
Q

Phosphocreatine is synthesized in the liver and transported to muscle cells. True or false?

A

False

76
Q

Phosphocreatine levels increase during periods of rest and recovery. True or false?

A

False

77
Q

Phosphocreatine is a more immediate source of energy compared to glycogen. True or false?

A

True

78
Q

The primary purpose of gluconeogenesis is to:
a) Produce energy through glucose breakdown
b) Store glucose as glycogen
c) Maintain blood glucose levels during fasting or starvation
d) Convert glucose into fat molecules

A

Maintain blood glucose levels during fasting or starvation

79
Q

Gluconeogenesis can utilize lactate as a precursor for glucose synthesis. True or false?

A

True

80
Q

Gluconeogenesis is a process that primarily occurs in muscle cells. True or false?

A

False

81
Q

Inferential statistics is concerned with:
a) Describing and summarizing data
b) Making predictions based on sample data
c) Testing hypotheses and drawing conclusions about populations
d) Both b) and c)

A

Both b) and c)

82
Q

The purpose of inferential statistics is to:
a) Provide a summary of the data
b) Determine causation between variables
c) Make inferences about a population based on sample data
d) Perform exploratory data analysis

A

Make inferences about a population based on sample data

83
Q

In hypothesis testing, the null hypothesis represents:
a) The hypothesis we want to prove
b) The alternative hypothesis
c) The hypothesis assumed to be true
d) The sample mean

A

The hypothesis assumed to be true

84
Q

The p-value is:
a) The probability of making a Type I error
b) The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
c) The probability of obtaining the observed data or more extreme values if the null hypothesis is true
d) The probability of making a Type II error

A

The probability of obtaining the observed data or more extreme values if the null hypothesis is true

85
Q

The level of significance (alpha) in hypothesis testing determines:
a) The probability of making a Type I error
b) The sample size required for the study
c) The power of the statistical test
d) The critical value for rejecting the null hypothesis

A

The probability of making a Type I error

86
Q

The t-test is used to:
a) Compare two independent sample means
b) Compare two dependent sample means
c) Compare the variances of two populations
d) Compare the means of three or more populations

A

Compare two independent sample means

87
Q

Inferential statistics uses __________ to draw conclusions about a population based on sample data.

A

probability theory

88
Q

Inferential statistics requires a larger sample size compared to descriptive statistics. True or false?

A

True

89
Q

The p-value represents the strength of evidence against the null hypothesis. True or false?

A

True

90
Q

Statistical power is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. True or false?

A

True

91
Q

Transposable elements are also known as:
a) Jumping genes
b) Mutagenic factors
c) Gene promoters
d) Spliceosomes

A

Jumping genes

92
Q

Retrotransposons use the enzyme __________ to transpose themselves in the genome.

A

Reverse transcriptase

93
Q

The “cut-and-paste” mechanism of transposition is characteristic of:
a) Retrotransposons
b) Transposons
c) Introns
d) Exons

A

Transposons

94
Q

Transposable elements can cause genetic diseases by:
a) Disrupting genes
b) Inserting into coding regions
c) Modifying gene expression
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

95
Q

The movement of transposable elements can be regulated by:
a) DNA methylation
b) Histone modifications
c) Small RNA molecules
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

96
Q

Transposable elements are found in the genomes of:
a) Bacteria
b) Plants
c) Animals
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

97
Q

Retrotransposons transpose through an RNA intermediate, which is reverse transcribed into __________.

A

DNA

98
Q

Transposable elements are considered selfish DNA elements that have no functional role. True or false?

A

False

99
Q

The majority of the human genome is composed of transposable elements. True or false?

A

True

100
Q

Transposable elements are always harmful and detrimental to the host organism. True or false?

A

False

Committee Exam 4 (35 decks)

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