TEST 2 Flashcards by Aamna Qandil

Which of the following is true about plasmid vectors?
a) They are only found in eukaryotic cells
b) They are circular DNA molecules
c) They contain histones for structural stability
d) They are incapable of carrying foreign DNA

They are circular DNA molecules

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Plasmid vectors are commonly used in which of the following techniques?
a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
b) Western blotting
c) Southern blotting
d) DNA sequencing

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of plasmid vectors?
a) Origin of replication
b) Antibiotic resistance gene
c) Promoter sequence
d) Introns and exons

Introns and exons

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Plasmid vectors often carry a selectable marker such as an __________ resistance gene.

antibiotic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The _________ sequence in a plasmid vector allows for replication in host cells.

origin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Plasmid vectors commonly have a multiple cloning site (MCS) or __________ region, which allows for easy insertion of foreign DNA.

polylinker

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Plasmid vectors are only used in prokaryotic cells. True or false?

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Plasmid vectors are typically smaller in size compared to bacterial chromosomes.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Plasmid vectors can replicate independently of the host cell’s genome.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How many vector types are used?

5 types

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Recombinant DNA technology involves the manipulation of DNA from ________.
a) Only prokaryotic cells
b) Only eukaryotic cells
c) Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
d) Neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic cells

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which enzyme is commonly used to cut DNA molecules at specific sequences during recombinant DNA technology?
a) Polymerase
b) Ligase
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) RNA polymerase

Restriction endonuclease

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In recombinant DNA technology, the DNA fragment to be inserted is often joined to a small circular DNA molecule known as a ________.
a) Vector
b) Plasmid
c) Promoter
d) Primer

Vector

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The process of introducing recombinant DNA into host cells is known as ________.
a) Transformation
b) Transduction
c) Transcription
d) Translation

Transformation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The technique used to amplify a specific DNA sequence into multiple copies is called ________.
a) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
b) Gel electrophoresis
c) Southern blotting
d) Western blotting

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The enzyme responsible for synthesizing a complementary strand of DNA using a DNA template is called ________.
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) Ligase

DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which technique is used to separate DNA fragments based on their size during gel electrophoresis?
a) Chromatography
b) Centrifugation
c) Electrophoresis
d) Microarray analysis

Electrophoresis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The technique used to identify a specific DNA sequence using complementary DNA probes is called ________.
a) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
b) Southern blotting
c) Western blotting
d) DNA sequencing

Southern blotting

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The enzyme used to join DNA fragments together during recombinant DNA technology is called ________.
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) Ligase

Ligase

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a commonly used vector in recombinant DNA technology?
a) Plasmid
b) Bacteriophage
c) Cosmid
d) Antibody

Antibody

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which technique is used to determine the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule?
a) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
b) Gel electrophoresis
c) Southern blotting
d) DNA sequencing

DNA sequencing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of DNA cloning?
a) Isolation of DNA fragments
b) Amplification of DNA fragments
c) Insertion of DNA fragments into a vector
d) Transcription of DNA fragments

Transcription of DNA fragments

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The vector commonly used for DNA cloning in bacteria is a ________.

plasmid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Recombinant DNA technology allows scientists to combine DNA from different sources. True or false?

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

PCR is a technique that can amplify a specific DNA sequence into billions of copies. True or false?

True

Recombinant DNA technology has various applications in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and forensic science. True or false?

True

DNA rearrangement refers to the process of: a) Replicating DNA b) Rearranging the order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule c) Breaking down DNA into smaller fragments d) Transcribing DNA into RNA

Rearranging the order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule

Which enzyme is responsible for catalyzing DNA rearrangement? a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Ligase d) Recombinase

Recombinase

DNA rearrangement plays an important role in: a) DNA repair b) DNA replication c) Gene expression regulation d) All of the above

All of the above

The process of DNA rearrangement often involves: a) Inversion b) Deletion c) Insertion d) All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is an example of DNA rearrangement? a) Chromosomal translocation b) DNA methylation c) DNA replication d) DNA transcription

Chromosomal translocation

DNA rearrangement can result in: a) Gene duplication b) Gene fusion c) Gene inversion d) All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is NOT associated with DNA rearrangement? a) Evolutionary diversification b) Developmental processes c) DNA replication errors d) DNA repair mechanisms

DNA replication errors

DNA rearrangement is a natural process that occurs in: a) Bacteria only b) Eukaryotes only c) Both bacteria and eukaryotes d) Neither bacteria nor eukaryotes

Both bacteria and eukaryotes

DNA rearrangement is always detrimental and leads to genetic disorders. True or false?

False

Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from: a) Amino acids b) Fatty acids c) Glycogen d) All of the above

All of the above

Gluconeogenesis primarily occurs in the: a) Liver b) Kidneys c) Pancreas d) Skeletal muscles

Liver

The main purpose of gluconeogenesis is to: a) Produce energy through glucose breakdown b) Store glucose as glycogen c) Maintain blood glucose levels during fasting or starvation d) Convert glucose into fat molecules

Maintain blood glucose levels during fasting or starvation

The key enzyme involved in the regulation of gluconeogenesis is: a) Glucose-6-phosphatase b) Hexokinase c) Glycogen synthase d) Pyruvate kinase

Glucose-6-phosphatase

During gluconeogenesis, pyruvate is converted into?

Oxaloacetate

The conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) during gluconeogenesis requires the enzyme: a) Pyruvate carboxylase b) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase c) Glucose-6-phosphatase d) PEP carboxykinase

PEP carboxykinase

Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by the hormone: a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Epinephrine d) Cortisol

Glucagon

The primary source of carbon for gluconeogenesis is: a) Glucose b) Glycerol c) Ketone bodies d) Acetyl-CoA

Glycerol

The conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate during gluconeogenesis is catalyzed by the enzyme: a) Glucose-6-phosphatase b) Pyruvate carboxylase c) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase d) Phosphofructokinase

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

Gluconeogenesis is an energy-consuming process that requires: a) ATP b) NADH c) FADH2 d) GTP

ATP

Gluconeogenesis is an anabolic pathway, meaning it involves the: a) Breakdown of molecules b) Synthesis of molecules c) Release of energy d) Oxidation of substrates

Synthesis of molecules

Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by the hormone?

Insulin

The entry of glycerol into gluconeogenesis requires its conversion to: a) Pyruvate b) Acetyl-CoA c) Oxaloacetate d) Fatty acids

Pyruvate

The primary carbon source for gluconeogenesis is __________.

lactate

The enzyme __________ converts fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate during gluconeogenesis.

phosphofructokinase

Gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the mitochondria of liver cells. True or false?

False

Gluconeogenesis is a process that occurs simultaneously with glycolysis. True or false?

False

Gluconeogenesis is more active during periods of prolonged fasting or starvation. True or false?

True

Gluconeogenesis is the process by which excess glucose is stored in the body. True or false?

False

Gluconeogenesis is an essential metabolic pathway for the brain's energy supply. True or false?

True

Gluconeogenesis occurs in the absence of carbohydrates in the diet. True or false?

True

Gluconeogenesis is an exothermic process that releases heat as a byproduct. True or false?

False

PDH (Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex) is responsible for the conversion of pyruvate into: a) Acetyl-CoA b) Lactate c) Oxaloacetate d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Acetyl-CoA

The PDH complex is composed of multiple enzyme components, including: a) Pyruvate decarboxylase b) Pyruvate kinase c) Pyruvate carboxylase d) Dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase

Dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase

The PDH complex is located in the: a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleus c) Mitochondria d) Endoplasmic reticulum

Mitochondria

The activity of the PDH complex is regulated by: a) Allosteric regulation b) Covalent modification c) Hormonal control d) All of the above

All of the above

The product of the PDH reaction, acetyl-CoA, enters which metabolic pathway? a) Glycolysis b) Krebs cycle (Citric Acid Cycle) c) Pentose Phosphate Pathway d) Electron Transport Chain

Krebs cycle (Citric Acid Cycle)

PDH complex deficiency is associated with which metabolic disorder? a) Diabetes b) Phenylketonuria c) Maple Syrup Urine Disease d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

Phosphocreatine (PCr) is an energy storage molecule found primarily in: a) Muscle cells b) Liver cells c) Pancreatic cells d) Red blood cells

Muscle cells

Phosphocreatine functions as a readily available source of: a) ATP b) Glucose c) Fatty acids d) Amino acids

ATP

Phosphocreatine can rapidly regenerate ATP through the action of the enzyme: a) Creatine phosphokinase b) Pyruvate kinase c) Lactate dehydrogenase d) Adenylate kinase

Creatine phosphokinase

The conversion of phosphocreatine to creatine is catalyzed by the enzyme: a) Creatine kinase b) Phosphocreatine phosphatase c) Creatinine dehydrogenase d) Phosphorylase

Creatine kinase

Phosphocreatine stores are rapidly depleted during: a) Resting conditions b) Anaerobic exercise c) Lipid metabolism d) Protein synthesis

Anaerobic exercise

Phosphocreatine levels can be increased through dietary supplementation with: a) Glucose b) Creatine c) Pyruvate d) Glycogen

Creatine

The breakdown of phosphocreatine occurs in response to increased: a) Oxygen levels b) Blood glucose levels c) Muscle contraction d) Insulin secretion

Muscle contraction

Phosphocreatine serves as an energy buffer to maintain ATP levels during: a) Aerobic metabolism b) Glycolysis c) Lipolysis d) Anaerobic metabolism

Anaerobic metabolism

The PDH complex catalyzes the irreversible conversion of pyruvate to __________.

acetyl-CoA

The PDH complex is active under anaerobic conditions. True or false?

False

Phosphocreatine levels are higher in fast-twitch muscle fibers compared to slow-twitch muscle fibers. True or false?

True

Phosphocreatine is synthesized in the liver and transported to muscle cells. True or false?

False

Phosphocreatine levels increase during periods of rest and recovery. True or false?

False

Phosphocreatine is a more immediate source of energy compared to glycogen. True or false?

True

The primary purpose of gluconeogenesis is to: a) Produce energy through glucose breakdown b) Store glucose as glycogen c) Maintain blood glucose levels during fasting or starvation d) Convert glucose into fat molecules

Maintain blood glucose levels during fasting or starvation

Gluconeogenesis can utilize lactate as a precursor for glucose synthesis. True or false?

True

Gluconeogenesis is a process that primarily occurs in muscle cells. True or false?

False

Inferential statistics is concerned with: a) Describing and summarizing data b) Making predictions based on sample data c) Testing hypotheses and drawing conclusions about populations d) Both b) and c)

Both b) and c)

The purpose of inferential statistics is to: a) Provide a summary of the data b) Determine causation between variables c) Make inferences about a population based on sample data d) Perform exploratory data analysis

Make inferences about a population based on sample data

In hypothesis testing, the null hypothesis represents: a) The hypothesis we want to prove b) The alternative hypothesis c) The hypothesis assumed to be true d) The sample mean

The hypothesis assumed to be true

The p-value is: a) The probability of making a Type I error b) The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true c) The probability of obtaining the observed data or more extreme values if the null hypothesis is true d) The probability of making a Type II error

The probability of obtaining the observed data or more extreme values if the null hypothesis is true

The level of significance (alpha) in hypothesis testing determines: a) The probability of making a Type I error b) The sample size required for the study c) The power of the statistical test d) The critical value for rejecting the null hypothesis

The probability of making a Type I error

The t-test is used to: a) Compare two independent sample means b) Compare two dependent sample means c) Compare the variances of two populations d) Compare the means of three or more populations

Compare two independent sample means

Inferential statistics uses __________ to draw conclusions about a population based on sample data.

probability theory

Inferential statistics requires a larger sample size compared to descriptive statistics. True or false?

True

The p-value represents the strength of evidence against the null hypothesis. True or false?

True

Statistical power is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. True or false?

True

Transposable elements are also known as: a) Jumping genes b) Mutagenic factors c) Gene promoters d) Spliceosomes

Jumping genes

Retrotransposons use the enzyme __________ to transpose themselves in the genome.

Reverse transcriptase

The "cut-and-paste" mechanism of transposition is characteristic of: a) Retrotransposons b) Transposons c) Introns d) Exons

Transposons

Transposable elements can cause genetic diseases by: a) Disrupting genes b) Inserting into coding regions c) Modifying gene expression d) All of the above

All of the above

The movement of transposable elements can be regulated by: a) DNA methylation b) Histone modifications c) Small RNA molecules d) All of the above

All of the above

Transposable elements are found in the genomes of: a) Bacteria b) Plants c) Animals d) All of the above

All of the above

Retrotransposons transpose through an RNA intermediate, which is reverse transcribed into __________.

DNA

Transposable elements are considered selfish DNA elements that have no functional role. True or false?

False

The majority of the human genome is composed of transposable elements. True or false?

True

Transposable elements are always harmful and detrimental to the host organism. True or false?

False