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Committee Exam 4 > CE 4 > Flashcards

CE 4 Flashcards

1
Q

In oxidative stress experiment, which gas is produced when homogenate and the
substrate of catalase enzyme are mixed? Choose the best option.
a. CO2
b. N2
c. H2
d. CO
e. O2

A

O2

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2
Q

Spectrophotometer directly measures.
a. The amount of the light that a substance absorbs
b. The wavelength of the visible light
c. The amount of a chemical in a material
d. The weight of a material
e. The wavelength of the invisible light

A

The amount of the light that a substance absorbs

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3
Q

The sequence of the main components of a UV/visible spectrophotometer is
a. Light source Monochromator > Detector -> Readout - > Detector
b. Light source -> Detector -> Sample cell = > Monochromator -> Readout
c. Light source - Sample cell - > Detector - > Monochromator _ > Readout
d. Light source -> Monochromator > Sample cell -> Detector -> Readout
e. Light source -> Readout - > Sample cell - > Detector -> Monochromator

A

Light source -> Monochromator > Sample cell -> Detector -> Readout

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4
Q

A solution (standard) with a known concentration of 40 mg/mL gave an absorbance
reading of 0.800 in a spectrophotometer. What is the concentration of a sample (unknown)
that records an absorbance of 0.500? (Lambert-Beer Law; A= a x b x C A:absorbance, a:
extinction coefficient, b: length path of the cuvvet, C: concentration)
a. 10 mg/mL
b. 25 mg/mI
c. 64 mg/mI
d. 16 mg/mL
e. 20 mg/mI

A

25 mg/mI

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5
Q

Find the false statement.
a. Absorbance of a colored solution is measured at the visible region.
b. Absorbance of an uncolored solution is measured at UV region
c. Path length of the light (the width of the cuvvet) is 1 cm.
d. Cuvettes may be cylindrical or rectangular in shape and may be constructed from
glass, silica (quartz) or plastic.
e. Plastic cuvettes can not be used for applications in the visible range

A

Plastic cuvettes can not be used for applications in the visible range

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6
Q

Which of the following is the substrate of catalase enzyme?
a. H20
b. H2
c. H202
d. OH
e. All of them

A

H202

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7
Q

Catalase is found in
a. Liver
b. Blood
c Bone marrow
d Kidney
e. All of them

A

All of them

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8
Q

. In oxidative stress experiment, in which of the following test tube, catalase enzyme is less
active than others?
Choose the best option.
a. Acidic solution added test tube (substrate+ HCI+homogenate)
b. Basic solution added test tube (substrate+ NaOH+homogenate)
c. Neutral solution added test tube (substrate+ H20+homogenate)
d. Seconds heated test tube (homogenate is heated during 40 seconds then substrate
is added into the test tube)
e. Ice test tube (homogenate is put on ice during 10 minutes then substrate is added
into the test tube)

A

Seconds heated test tube (homogenate is heated during 40 seconds then substrate
is added into the test tube)

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9
Q

Which one is not a sensory branch of cervical plexus?
a. Transverse cervical
b. Ansa cervicalis
c. Great auricular
d. Supraclavicular
e. Lesser occipital

A

Ansa cervicalis

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10
Q

Which region is NOT supplied by the branches from the subclavian artery?
a. Supraspinous fosça
b. Lateral aspect of the base of the neck
c. Breasts
d. Upper part of the thyroid gland
e. First and second posterior intercostal spaces

A

Breasts

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11
Q

Which one is NOT a superficial vein of the upper limb?
a. Cephalic vein
b. Dorsal venous network
c. Median cubital vein
d. Axillary vein
e. Basilic vein

A

Axillary vein

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12
Q

When there is a penetrating injury with a sharp, broad knife from right lateral border
sternum and in the 3rd intercostal space, which structure cannot be harmed?
a. Internal thoracic vein
b. Intercostal nerve
c. External intercostal membrane
d. Internal intercostal muscle
e. Subcostal muscle

A

Subcostal muscle

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13
Q

Which layer is the most internal covering of the abdominal wall?
a. Transversalis fascia
b. Camper’s fascia
c. Scarpa’s fascia
d. Posterior layer of the rectus sheath
e. Internal oblique aponeurosis

A

Transversalis fascia

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14
Q

Which one is not an attachment point for the biceps brachii muscle?
a. Coracoid process
b. Bicipital aponeurosis
c. Supraglenoid tubercle
d. Radial tuberosity
e. Middle epicondyle

A

Middle epicondyle

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15
Q

Nerve entrapment causes weakness of the muscles and pain, numbness, and tingling
sensations on the dermatome. A patient feels tingles in the palm of his hand and thumb,
index and middle fingers and hand muscles are weak compared to the other side. During
the physical examination, you find that flexion of the wrist and pronation of the forearm
movements are very weak. Which nerve is entrapped in this patient and what is the possible
location of the entrapment?
a. Median - Between the two heads of pronator teres
b. Musculocutaneous - Passage through the coracobrachialis
c. Median - In the carpal tunnel
d. Radial - Radial groove of the humerus
e. Ulnar - Posterior to the medial epicondyle

A

Median - In the carpal tunnel

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16
Q

Brachial plexus can be damaged during the childbirth if the shoulder of the baby stuck in
the vaginal canal. Which nerve is NOT affected if the medial cord of the brachial plexus gets
injured during a challenging labor?
a. Pectoral nerves
b. Axillary nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Median nerve
e. Medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm

A

Axillary nerve

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17
Q

During a parotid gland surgery, the surgeon must identify and protect a cranial nerve.
What is this nerve?
a. Glossopharyngeal
b. Trigeminal
c. Vagus
d. Superficial temporal artery
e. Facial

A

Facial

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18
Q

When you are dissecting anterior part of the forearm you notice that 4 muscles share the
same origin tendon. Which one does NOT share this common tendon?
a. Pronator teres
b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
c. Palmaris longus
d. Flexor pollicis longus
e. Flexor carpi radialis

A

Flexor pollicis longus

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19
Q

You want to see the course of the vagus nerve on the cadaver. You start dissecting from
the anterior part of the neck. When you reach the vagus nerve, which structure remains
posterior to the region of interest and is still intact?
a Platysma
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Prevertebral fascia
c. Carotid sheath
d. Investing fascia

A

Prevertebral fascia

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20
Q

Which one is not innervated by the motor branch of the trigeminal nerve?
a. Medial pterrgoid
b. Masseter
c. Mylohyoid
d. Temporalis
e. Posterior belly of the digastric

A

Mylohyoid

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21
Q

Which statement is WRONG about the scalene muscles?
a. Subclavian vein is anterior to the anterior scalene muscle.
b. Subclavian artery is anterior to the middle scalene muscle.
c. Roots of the brachial plexus pass between anterior and middle scalene muscles.
d. Anterior and middle scalene elevate the 2nd rib.
e. Phrenic nerve runs on the anterior surface of the anterior scalene muscle.

A

d. 1st rib

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22
Q

Which artery gives a branch to supply the lower teeth?
a Facial
a. Maxillary
b. Superficial temporal
c. Lingual
d. Inferior thyroid

A

Maxillary

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23
Q

Which part does NOT belong to the anterior ramus of T5 spinal nerve?
a. Collateral branch
b. Anterior cutaneous branch
c. Lateral cutaneous branch
d. Posterior cutaneous branch
e. Intercostal nerve

A

Posterior cutaneous branch

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24
Q

Which statement is WRONG about vessels of the thoracic wall?
a. Lower intercostal veins on the left side empty into the accessory hemiazygos
b. Collateral branch of intercostal artery runs on the superior border of the rib
c. Both hemiazygos and accessory hemiazygos open into the azygos vein
d. Internal thoracic artery supplies anterior thoracic wall
e. Intercostal veins mainly drain into the azygos vein on the right side

A

Collateral branch of intercostal artery runs on the superior border of the rib

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25
Q

A patient cannot make the abduction movement of his arm. But when you help his arm a
few degrees then he can easily complete the whole range of motion of the abduction without
any loss of strength. Which muscle is NOT working properly?
a. Supraspinatus
b. Trapezius
c. Subscapularis
d. Deltoid
e. Pectoralis major

A

Supraspinatus

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26
Q

While playing a flute you have to blow out air from the O-shaped opening between your
lips. Which two muscles are helpful when you are playing the flute?
a. Buccinator and Orbicularis oris
b. Zygomaticus major and Risorius
c. Mentalis and Masseter
d. Levator anguli oris and Temporalis
e. Depressor labii inferioris and Mentalis

A

Buccinator and Orbicularis oris

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27
Q

You observe a surgeon who operates on a patient’s wrist. The surgeon cuts the flexor
retinaculum and then you notice the structures of the carpal tunnel. Which structure is NOT
in the carpal tunnel?
a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Median nerve
c. Flexor digitorum profundus
d. Flexor pollicis longus
e. Flexor digitorum superficialis

A

Flexor carpi radialis

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28
Q

Which statement is WRONG about the functions of the muscles of the hand?
a. Flexor pollicis brevis helps the flexion of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint
b. Palmar interossei muscles adduct the index, ring, and little fingers
c. Lumbrical muscles extend the interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints
d. Adductor pollicis holds the key between your 1st and 2nd fingers when you unlock a
door
e. Palmaris brevis moves the skin on the medial side of the palm

A

Lumbrical muscles extend the interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints.
correct: flexion at the respective metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint and extension at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints

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29
Q

Which muscle of the forearm is innervated by two different nerves?
a Brachialis
a. Pronator quadratus
b. Extensor carpi radialis longus
c. Flexor digitorum profundus
d. Brachioradialis

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

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30
Q

Which statement is WRONG about the terminal parts of the arteries?
a. Ulnar artery continues as deep palmar arch in the palm
b. Axillary artery continues as brachial artery at the lower border of the teres major
c. Profunda brachii divides into smaller branches to supply the elbow joint
d. Anterior interosseous terminates by joining the posterior interosseous artery
e. Anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries create an arterial ring around the
surgical neck of the humerus

A

Anterior interosseous terminates by joining the posterior interosseous artery
correct: The terminal branch of the anterior interosseus artery makes anastomoses with branches of the ulnar and radial arteries at the palmar aspect of the wrist.

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31
Q

Which one is a branch of the maxillary nerve (CN V2)?
a. Supratrochlear
b. Mental
c. Infraorbital
d. Auriculotemporal
e. External nasal

A

Infraorbital

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32
Q

Which one is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?
a. Ascending pharyngeal
b. Occipital
c. Ophthalmic
d. Superior thyroid
e. Lingual

A

Ophthalmic

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33
Q

____________ is an anxiety disorder characterized by the persistent reexperience of traumatic events
through distressing recollections, dreams, hallucinations, or dissociative flashbacks
a. general adaptation syndrome
b. amnesia
c. chronic stress
d. post-traumatic stress disorder
e. sleeping disorder

A

post-traumatic stress disorder

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34
Q

As the most basic way for the ego to defend against being overwhelmed,
is the psychological process in
Freud’s theory that protects an individual from experiencing extreme anxiety or guilt by pushing ideas out of conscious awareness and into the unconscious.
a. repression
b. regression c displacement
c. rationalization
d. reaction formation

A

repression

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35
Q

Neuroanatomy research has focused on the formation of emotional memory
a. thalamus
b. hippocampus
c. amygdala
d. cerebellum
e. hypothalamus

A

amygdala

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36
Q

In Freud’s approach, the major developmental task is the
a. anal; isolation
b. anal; the Oedipus complex
c. genital; toilet training
d. oral; trust
e. latency; the development of defense mechanisms

A

genital; toilet training

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37
Q

A student just realizes that there is an important test the next day and he has not yet
started preparing. This stress-inducing realization will trigger which stage of the general
adaptation syndrome?
a. exhaustion
b. procrastination
c. alarm
d. resistance
e. acute stress

A

alarm

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38
Q

A teacher sends a student out of the classroom because she is disturbing the other children. She tells the student she will be allowed to come back to the classroom in fifteen minutes and that she expects her to be quiet when she returns. When the student comes back, she is even more disruptive. What can you conclude from this example?
a. The teacher has used punishment as a way to control the student’s behavior.
b. The student’s behavior is an example of positive punishment.
c. The student’s behavior is an example of negative punishment.
d. The teacher thought she was using punishment, but the student was actually being reinforced
e. Behavior of teacher is an example of positive punishment.

A

The teacher thought she was using punishment, but the student was actually being reinforced

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39
Q

In the Strange Situation Test, a 15-month-old child is upset and anxious when her
mother leaves the room. When her mother returns, she cannot be comforted and shows anger, but also a desire for contact with her mother. The child is most likely to be categorized as
a. insecurely attached-anxious/ambivalent.
b. insecurely attached-avoidant.
c. insecurely attached-disorganized.
d. securely attached.
e. securely attached-avoidant

A

insecurely attached-anxious/ambivalent.

40
Q

The _____________ theory of emotion is a centralist theory that states that an emotional stimulus produces two
co-occurring reactions, arousal and experience of emotion, that do not cause each other.
a. Cognitive Appraisal Theory
b. Cannon-Bard
c. Humanistic
d. Psychodynamic
e. James-Lange

A

Cannon-Bard

41
Q

Ever since she/he was a little girl/boy, a teenager has been a troublemaker. A
psychologist who favors the behaviorist perspective would most likely explain her behavior in terms of
a. heredity.
b. mental processes.
c. the role of specific brain systems.
d. her previous behavior and its consequences
e. unconscious conflicts

A

her previous behavior and its consequences

42
Q

A failure of memory caused by physical injury, disease, drug use or psychological
trauma is called _________. It is when there is an inability to form explicit memories for events that occur after the time of brain damage
a. general adaptation syndrome; exhaustion
b. general adaptation syndrome; ptsd
c. amnesia; anterograde amnesia
d. amnesia; retrograde amnesia
e. ptsd; amnesia

A

amnesia; anterograde amnesia

43
Q

Imagine that you are playing the role of the ego in Freud’s theory of personality. Your
major function would be to
a. work toward achieving the ego ideal.
b. satisfy the inner voice of “oughts” and “should nots” at any cost.
c. achieve psychosexual stages.
d. search for immediate sexual gratification without concern for consequences.
e. mediate between the id impulses and the superego demands.

A

mediate between the id impulses and the superego demands

44
Q

In a typical classical conditioning experiment, a conditioned stimulus is
a. repeatedly paired with the UCR.
b. repeatedly paired with the CS.
c. not paired with any other stimulus.
d. repeatedly paired with the UCS.
e. repeated until it is habituated

A

repeatedly paired with the UCS

45
Q

A man has had a particularly frustrating day at work and because of some errors by
others he won’t make his sales goals. When he arrives home a bicycle blocks his way into
the garage, so he picks it up and throws it across the yard into some bushes. In the
Freudian view, the man’s behavior results from the defense mechanism of
a. denial of reality
b. displacement
c. reaction formation
d. sublimation
e. isolation

A

displacement

46
Q

a-D-fructofuranose and B-D-fructofuranose are …
A. Monomer
B. Epimer
C. Chiral
D. Anomer
E. Enantiomer

A

Anomer

47
Q

Find the false statement about Complex I of the Respiratory Chain.
a. It is called NADH dehydrogenase
b. It has FMN and Fe-S centers as prosthetic groups A
c. It takes Hydride ion and Proton from NADH + H+
d. It transfers Hydride ion and Proton to Complex III
e. It pumps 4 Protons from mitosol to intermediate space

A

It transfers Hydride ion and Proton to Complex III

48
Q

UDP-galactose-4-epimerase is necessary for.
a. Conversion of galactose to mannose
b. Synthesis of maltose
c. Synthesis of sucrose
d. Conversion of galactose to sucrose
e. Synthesis of lactose

A

Synthesis of lactose

49
Q

Starch is composed of ………. units. Its branched-structured component is
named……. …And its linear chains possess ……….. linkages whereas its branch points
possess…….. linkages
A. a-D-glucose/ Amylopectin/ a-1-…> 2/ a-1-…> 4
B. a-D-glucose/ Amylopectin/ a-1-_->4/ a-1->6
C. a-D-glucose/ Amylose/ a-1—-> 6/ a-1-__->4
D. B-D-glucose/ Amylopectin/ B-1—>4/ B-1-..> 6
E. B-D-glucose/ Amylopectin/ B- 1–>4/ 3-1-…>2

A

a-D-glucose/ Amylopectin/ a-1-_->4/ a-1->6

50
Q

Find the false statement for glycogen phosphorylase (phosphorylase)
a. It is the regulatory enzyme of glycogenolysis
b. It is covalently modulated
c. Its active form is phosphorylase b and inactive form is phosphorylase a
d. It is activated by phosphorylase kinase
e. It is inactivated by phosphorylase phosphatase

A

Its active form is phosphorylase b and inactive form is phosphorylase a

51
Q

Which is false for ISOCITRATE DEHYDROGENASE?
a. It catalyzes both dehydrogenation and decarboxylation reactions
b. It has 3 isozymes, two mitochondrial and one cytosolic
c. One of Mitochondrial isozyme has NAD-cofactor which is involved in ATP production
d. The other Mitochondrial isozyme has NADP-cofactor which is involved in
carboxylation reactions
e. Cytosolic form has NADP-cofactor which supplies reducing equivalents for fatty acid
synthesis (lipogenesis)

A

The other Mitochondrial isozyme has NADP-cofactor which is involved in
carboxylation reactions

52
Q

NAD-linked dehydrogenase transports
a. Hydride / Nicotinamide (vitamin B3)
b. Hydride / Nicotinamide (vitamin B2)
c. Proton / Nicotinamide (vitamin B3)
d. Hydrogen / Riboflavin (vitamin B2)
e. Proton / Pyridoxal (vitamin B6)

A

Hydride / Nicotinamide (vitamin B3)

53
Q

For removal of ROS, NADPH in mitochondria is provided by ……… and in cytosol by..
a. Pentose phosphate pathway and Nicotinamide nucleotide transhydrogenase
b. Malic enzyme and Pentose phosphate pathway
c. Nicotinamide nucleotide transhydrogenase and Pentose phosphate pathway
d. Nicotinamide nucleotide transhydrogenase and Malic enzyme
e. Pentose phosphate pathway and Malic enzyme

A

Nicotinamide nucleotide transhydrogenase and Pentose phosphate pathway

54
Q

Coenzyme A carries fatty acids and carboxylic acid as … its functional group is
a. Acyl / COASH / Pantetheine / thiol (-SH)
b. Acyl / CoASH / 4-phosphopantetheine / mercapto (-OH
c. Ethyl / CoASH / Pantetheine / mercapto (-SH)
d. Ethyl / CoASH / Pantetheine / mercapto (-OH)
e. Acyl / CoASH / 4-phosphopantetheine / thiol (-SH)

A

Acyl / COASH / Pantetheine / thiol (-SH)

55
Q

___________is the precursor for eicosanoids. By the catalysis of _________ enzyme has two isozymes and each isozyme has two different catalytic activities. Initially _________is synthesized. This _______ and _______
a. Arachidonic acid / Prostaglandin E synthase / Prostaglandin E / Lipoxygenase and Peroxidase
b. Arachidonic acid / Prostaglandin synthase / Prostaglandin H / Lipoxygenase and Peroxidase
c. Arachidonic acid / Prostaglandin H reductase / Prostaglandin H / Cyclooxygenase and Peroxidase
d. Arachidonic acid / Prostaglandin H synthase / Prostaglandin H / Cyclooxygenase and Peroxidase
e. None of the choices

A

Arachidonic acid / Prostaglandin H synthase / Prostaglandin H / Cyclooxygenase
and Peroxidase

56
Q

Glycosaminoglycans are composed of contain sulphate groups except
*GOT
a. Uronic acids, Amino sugars or Sugar phosphates / Hyaluronic acid
b. Onic acids, Phosphate sugars or Sugar alcohols / Dermatan
c. Uronic acids, Amino sugars or N-acetylamino sugars / Hyaluronic acid
d. Uronic acids, Amino sugars or N-acetylamino sugars / Heparin
e. Aric acids, Amino sugars or N-acetylamino sugars / Hyaluronic acid

A

Uronic acids, Amino sugars or N-acetylamino sugars / Hyaluronic acid

57
Q

Which are the branched-chain amino acids?
a. Leucine, Threonine
b. Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine
c. Valine, Leucine
d. Valine, Glycine
e. Alanine, Cysteine

A

Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine

58
Q

Find the false statement about bile acids
A. Precursor is 7-dehydrocholesterol
B. Synthesis of primary bile acids is catalyzed by hydroxylases and the synthesis of
secondary bile acids is catalyzed by dehydroxylases
C. The first step of Primary bile acid synthesis is the regulatory step, catalyzed by 7ohydroxylase, hydrogen donor is ascorbic acid (vitamin C) as well as NADPH +H*
D. Bile acids are conjugated primarily with glycine as well as with taurine
E. Salts of bile acids and of their conjugates are named cholates

A

Precursor is 7-dehydrocholesterol

59
Q

Which is/are the mobile component/components of the Mitochondrial Electron Transport
System?
a. Coenzyme Q
b. Ubiquinone and Cytochrome c
c. Cytochrome c
d. Ubiquinone and Cytochrome oxidase
e. Cytochrome oxidase

A

Ubiquinone and Cytochrome c

60
Q

Catabolism of amino acids is catalyzed by
a. Aminases / Pyridoxal phosphate (B6 vitamin)
b. Aminases / Nicotinamide (B3 vitamin)
c. Deaminases / NAD+
d. Transaminases / Pyridoxal phosphate (B6 vitamin)
e. Transaminases / FAD

A

Transaminases / Pyridoxal phosphate (B6 vitamin)

61
Q

Sialic acid (N-acetyleuraminic acid) is a sugar acid and it is present in the structure of ___________. The _______
which have types as GM, GD, GT and are present in brain (grey-matter) and in nervous tissue
a. Glycoproteins / Gangliosides
b. Glycolipids / Cerebrosides
c. Glycolipids / Globosides
d. Proteoglycans / Heparin
e. Glycolipids / Gangliosides

A

Glycolipids / Gangliosides

62
Q

Find the false statement about monooxygenases
a. They catalyze hydroxylation reactions, therefore also named as hydroxylases
b. Cosubstrate (reducing factor) is required
c. NADH is the primary cosubstrate
d. Monooxygenases are necessary for collagen synthesis
e. Cytochrome P450 enzymes are monooxygenases

A

NADH is the primary cosubstrate

63
Q

Which is false for ACONITASE?
a. It is the first enzyme of TCA cycle and it is 4Fe-4S protein
b. It is involved in regulation of iron homeostasis of the cells
c. Iron in its structure may cause production of hydroxyl free radical during oxidative
phosphorylation
d. It catalyzes conversion of citrate to isocitrate
e. It catalyzes the conversion of succinate to malate

A

It is the first enzyme of TCA cycle and it is 4Fe-4S protein

64
Q

Find the false statement about ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation.
a. ATP is synthesized on Complex V
b. It is synthesized on the F1 Part of Complex V
c. Complex V is called ATP synthase
d. Complex V pumps protons into intermembrane space
e. Fo part of Complex V is the proton channel through which protons flow from
intermediate space into the mitosol

A

Complex V pumps protons into intermembrane space

65
Q

Dolichol is ________, it donates __________ and _____________
a. Steroid / Sugars and Amino sugars
b. Steroid / Sugars and Sugar alcohols
c. Isoprenoid / Sugar acids and Amino sugars
d. Phospholipid / Amino sugars and Sugar alcohols
e. Isoprenoid / Sugars and Amino Sugars

A

Isoprenoid / Sugars and Amino Sugars

66
Q

Which is/are the semi-essential amino acids?
a. Histidine
b. Arginine, Histidine
c. Methionine
d. Tyrosine
e. Tryptophan

A

Arginine, Histidine

67
Q

Glycerophospholipids are the derivatives of …. and head group (X group) may be one of
a. D-phosphatidic acid / Choline, serine, ethanolamine, inositol
b. Ceramide / Monosaccharides
c. L-phosphatidic acid / Choline, serine, ethanolamine, inositol
d. L-phosphatidic acid / Glucose, ethanolamine, inositol
e. Glycerol / Choline, serine, ethanolamine, inositol

A

L-phosphatidic acid / Glucose, ethanolamine, inositol

68
Q

Production of superoxide radical in “Oxidative Phosphorylation” is due to .
a. Semiquinone production
b. Ubiquinone production
c. Ubiquinol production
d. Reduced ubiquinone production
e. Oxidized ubiquinone production

A

Semiquinone production

69
Q

Collagen microfibrils are cross-linked by the catalysis of .
a. Reductase / Magnesium
b. Hydroxylase / Iron
c. Lysyl oxidase / Cupper
d. Oxidase / Cupper
e. None of the choices

A

Lysyl oxidase / Cupper

70
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for trabecular bone?
a. It has a haversian system
b. Trabecular bone is found in the long bone shaft
c. Volkmann’s canals are present in trabecular bone
d. Intertrabecular spaces of the trabecular are filled with marrow.
e. Intertrabecular spaces are covered with periosteum.

A

Intertrabecular spaces of the trabecular are filled with marrow

71
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for intramembranous ossification?
a. The spicules unite to form the bone collar
b. It is primarily responsible for the formation of long bones
c. A secondary ossification center appears at each end (epiphysis) of long bones.
d. It begins in an avascular environment A
e. It is the process by which bone arises directly from mesenchyme

A

It is the process by which bone arises directly from mesenchyme.

72
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of microglia in the central nervous
system?
a. Establishment of blood-brain barrier
b. Myelination of neuronal axons
c. Phagocytosis and defense against injury
d. Production of cerebrospinal fluid
e. Support and nourishment of neurons

A

Phagocytosis and defense against injury

73
Q

A 35-year-old woman injures her common fibular nerve in a motorcycle accident. Which of
the following best describes the primary function of neuronal axons within this major division
of the sciatic nerve?
a. Convey signals to dendrites
b. Receive signals from other neurons
c. Synthesize structural proteins
d. Transmit signals to other cells
e. Uptake of neurotransmitters

A

Transmit signals to other cells

74
Q

Which of the following element is NOT a component of the Haversian system?
a. Lacuna
b. Canaliculi
c. Concentric lamella
d. Osteoclast
e. Osteocyte

A

Osteoclast

75
Q

On your most recent visit to the local piercing parlor, you have several new holes
pierced along the auricle of your ear. Arrange in order the constituents (listed below in
alphabetical order) encountered by the needle as it passes through your skin and into the
cartilage in your ear.
I. Chrondocytes
II. Chondrogenic layer of the perichondrium
III. Fibrous layer of the perichondrium
IV. Interterritorial matrix
V. Territorial matrix
A. I, I, I, V. IV
B. III, II, V, I, IV
C. II, II, IV, V, I
D. III, I, IV, V, II
E. III, V, IV. II. I

A

III, II, V, I, IV

76
Q

A tissue sample is taken through the femur distal surface of the knee joint of a human
and investigated via light microscopy. What type of cartilage, if any, would be present in this
sample?
a. No cartilage
b. Articular Cartilage
c. Fibrocartilage
d. Hyaline cartilage
e. Elastic cartilage

A

Articular Cartilage

77
Q

Which of the following is not a type of glycosaminoglycan found in the structure of extracellular matrix? Choose
a. Hyaluronan
b. Keratan sulfate
c. Heparin
d. Dermatan sulfate
e. Laminin

A

Laminin

78
Q

Which of the following collagen is mostly found in basal lamina?
a. I
b. II
c. II
d. IV
e. V

A

IV

79
Q

Which statement below is/are not correct? Choose the best option.
a. Stem cells are located in distinct microenvironments called niches.
b. Niches provide the environmental signals that maintain stem cells throughout life.
c. Niches control the balance between self-renewal and differentiation of stem cells.
d. Niche is deciding factor for determining what stem cells will be differentiate into.
e. Niche is deciding factor only for adult stem cells

A

Niche is deciding factor only for adult stem cells

80
Q

Where are pluripotent stem cells located? Choose the best option.
a. Liver
b. Blastocyst
c. Umblical cord
d. Both “b’ and “c*
e. All “a”. “b” and “c”

A

Blastocyst

81
Q

Which of the following molecule play role in smooth muscle relaxation? Choose the best option.
a. Superoxide
b. Nitric oxide
c. Molecular oxygen
d. Ozone
e. Peroxyl radical

A

Nitric oxide

82
Q

Which of the following is false?
a. Two successive somatic recombination are required to make a light chain
b. A light chain synthesized in a single B cell may be a Kappa chain, or a lambda chain,
but never both.
c. Igs are synthesized following somatic recombination of V and J, or V, D and J
segments and subsequent RNA splicing to C sequences.
d. During the heavy chain synthesis, two sequential somatic recombination produce
first D-J joining then a VDJ unit.
e. The transition from membrane to secreted heavy chain occurs at the level of mRNA
processing.

A

Two successive somatic recombinations are required to make a light chain

83
Q

Which one is a good definition for a statistic?
a. Data collected by census
b. Information represents a population
c. Probability calculated for an event
d. Information represents a sample
e. Data collected by sampling

A

Information represents a sample

84
Q

Which variable is at ordinal scale?
a. Temperature (°c)
b. Education Level
c. Oxygen Ratio (%)
d. Eye’s Color
e. Blood Group

A

Education Level

85
Q

A painkiller is rated as 2 by 7 patients, 3 by 18 patients and 4 by 5 patients. What is the
average rate of 30 patients?
a 3.19
b) 2.93
c) 3.00
d) 10 0
e) 3.87

A

2.93

86
Q

Which one is False?
a. Population is the set of the research units/individuals
b. Census is the method of gathering data represent a population
c. Data are the results of measurements and observations
d. Biostatistics is an applied field of statistics to the life and health sciences
e. Probability theory is a tool of inferential statistics

A

Probability theory is a tool of inferential statistics

87
Q

What is called a statistical study includes data preparation and summarization?
a. Inferential Statistics
b. Data Collection
c. Descriptive Statistics
d. Sampling
e. Visualization

A

Visualization

88
Q

Data obtained by the researchers) are called,
a. Qualitative Data
b. Primary Data
c. Chronological Data
d. Secondary Data
e. Quantitative Data

A

Primary Data

89
Q

What is resolution in biomedical signal processing?
a. The number of bits used to represent a signal
b. The type of the sensor used to capture a signal
c. The duration of a signal
d. The amplitude of a signal
e. The cutoff frequencies of the used filters

A

The cutoff frequencies of the used filters

90
Q

Which of the following is a potential advantage of using smart textile wearables in healthcare?
a. Improved patient comfort
b. Decreased accuracy of data collection
c. Increased risk of infection
d. Increased cost for healthcare providers
e. Increased demand for medical professionals

A

Improved patient comfort

91
Q

Which of the below cells is NOT an antigen presenting cell?
a. Macrophage
b. Immature dendritic cell
c. Mature Dendritic Cell
d. B lymphocyte
e. T lymphocyte

A

T lymphocyte

92
Q

Which of the below will happen when a person meets with the same antigen a second time?
a. All of the antibodies secreted previously will be secreted synchronously in higher amounts
b. There will be a short period of IgM increase, then a higher amount of IgG will be released
c. IgM and IgG levels will increase in blood and body fluids at least two weeks after the introduction of the antigen
d. IgG levels will increase very fast and then IgM levels will be stabilized
e. There will be no changes in antibody levels with recurrent exposure to same
antigens

A

There will be a short period of IgM increase, then a higher amount of IgG will be
released

93
Q

Which of the below cells is named as macrophage once migrated to the tissues from blood circulation?
a. Monocyte
b. B lymphocyte
c. Basophil
d. Eosinophil
e. T lymphocyte

A

Monocyte

94
Q

Which of the below is a good example of passive immunization?
a. Oral infection
b. Vaccination with attenuated vaccines
c. Vaccination with mRNA type of vaccines
d. Maternal transfer of IgG to fetus
e. Gastrointestinal infection

A

Maternal transfer of IgG to fetus

95
Q

Which one of the following is not a finding of Mucopoly saccharidosis Type VI (MPS
VI)?
a. Bitemporal narrowing with frontal bossing
b. Decreased distance between the orbits (eyes)
c. Thick lips
d. Flat nasal bridge
e. Short neck

A

Thick lips

Committee Exam 4 (35 decks)

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