TEST 13 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is NOT a type of DNA damage?
a) Oxidative damage
b) Single-strand breaks
c) Double-strand breaks
d) DNA replication
A
DNA replication
2
Q
Which type of DNA repair mechanism is responsible for correcting UV-induced thymine dimers?
a) Base excision repair (BER)
b) Nucleotide excision repair (NER)
c) Mismatch repair (MMR)
d) Homologous recombination (HR)
A
Nucleotide excision repair (NER)
3
Q
The process of repairing a DNA double-strand break by using an undamaged identical DNA sequence as a template is called:
a) Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)
b) Homologous recombination (HR)
c) Base excision repair (BER)
d) Mismatch repair (MMR)
A
Homologous recombination (HR)
4
Q
Trichothiodystrophy (TTD) is a DNA repair disorder caused by mutations in genes involved in:
a) Nucleotide excision repair (NER)
b) Mismatch repair (MMR)
c) Base excision repair (BER)
d) Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)
A
Nucleotide excision repair (NER)
5
Q
Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is an inherited disorder characterized by extreme sensitivity to:
a) Ionizing radiation
b) Ultraviolet (UV) radiation
c) Chemical mutagens
d) DNA replication errors
A
Ultraviolet (UV) radiation
6
Q
DNA repair mechanisms play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the _____________.
A
Genome
7
Q
Point mutations involve changes in _________ nucleotide(s) in the DNA sequence.
A
Single
8
Q
Frameshift mutations occur due to the insertion or deletion of nucleotides in multiples other than ________.
A
Three
9
Q
Inherited colon cancer can be caused by mutations in the ________ gene.
A
APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli)
10
Q
Trichothiodystrophy (TTD) is characterized by brittle ________ and intellectual disabilities.
A
Hair
11
Q
Mutations can occur spontaneously or be induced by external factors. True or False?
A
True
12
Q
Point mutations can lead to a change in a single amino acid in a protein sequence. True or False?
A
True
13
Q
Deletion mutations always result in a frameshift. True or False?
A
False
14
Q
Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is caused by defects in DNA repair mechanisms. True or False?
A
True
15
Q
Mutations in the ATM gene lead to Ataxia Telangiectasia (AT), a disorder characterized by neurodegeneration and cancer susceptibility. True or False?
A
True
16
Q
What type of mutation involves the substitution of one nucleotide for another in a DNA sequence?
A
Point mutation
17
Q
Which type of mutation involves the insertion or deletion of nucleotides, shifting the reading frame?
A
Frameshift mutation
18
Q
The insertion of additional nucleotides into a DNA sequence is an example of which type of mutation?
A
Insertion
19
Q
The removal of nucleotides from a DNA sequence is an example of which type of mutation?
A
Deletion
20
Q
Give an example of a point mutation that causes a change in the amino acid sequence of a protein.
A
One example is the substitution of adenine (A) with cytosine (C) in the DNA sequence, resulting in the replacement of the amino acid valine with glutamine in the protein, causing sickle cell anemia.
21
Q
Genomics is the study of:
a) Individual genes
b) DNA sequencing methods
c) The entire set of genes in an organism
d) Protein interactions
A
The entire set of genes in an organism
22
Q
Which technique allows the amplification of specific DNA sequences and is commonly used in genetic engineering?
a) DNA sequencing
b) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c) DNA microarray
d) Gel electrophoresis
A
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
23
Q
DNA cloning involves:
a) Determining the sequence of DNA bases
b) Cutting and pasting DNA fragments into vectors
c) Studying the expression of genes
d) Analyzing protein interactions
A
Cutting and pasting DNA fragments into vectors
24
Q
DNA sequencing determines the:
a) Number of chromosomes in a cell
b) Order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule
c) Presence of mutations in genes
d) Expression level of genes
A
Order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule
25
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder caused by the deficiency of an enzyme involved in the metabolism of:
a) Lactose
b) Phenylalanine
c) Glucose
d) Glycine
Phenylalanine
26
CRISPR technology is a revolutionary gene ____________ tool.
Editing
27
The study of all the RNA molecules present in a cell is called ____________.
Transcriptomics
28
____________ is a process used to identify and analyze the proteins present in a biological sample.
Proteomics
29
____________ is the analysis of small molecules, such as metabolites, in a biological sample.
Metabolomics
30
DNA _________ is the process of making multiple copies of a specific DNA sequence.
Cloning
31
CRISPR technology allows precise editing of the genome by targeting specific DNA sequences. True or False?
True
32
The karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's entire set of DNA sequences. True or False?
False
33
DNA sequencing methods can determine the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule. True or False?
True
34
Gene silencing is a process that increases the expression of specific genes in cells. True or False?
False
35
Proteomics can be used in clinical settings to identify biomarkers for diseases. True or False?
True
36
Which omics technology could be useful in identifying potential drug targets for a specific genetic disorder?
Transcriptomics
37
Name the technology that allows for targeted gene editing to correct genetic defects in patients.
CRISPR technology
38
How can DNA sequencing be beneficial in diagnosing genetic disorders?
DNA sequencing can identify disease-causing mutations in genes associated with genetic disorders.
39
Which genetic disorder results from the accumulation of phenylalanine in the body due to the deficiency of an enzyme?
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
40
How does gene silencing play a role in treating genetic disorders?
Gene silencing can be used to reduce the expression of faulty genes responsible for genetic disorders.
41
Positive regulation of gene expression refers to:
a) Activation of gene expression by regulatory proteins
b) Inhibition of gene expression by regulatory proteins
c) Random fluctuations in gene expression
d) Inactivation of the gene promoter
Activation of gene expression by regulatory proteins
42
Negative regulation of gene expression refers to:
a) Activation of gene expression by regulatory proteins
b) Inhibition of gene expression by regulatory proteins
c) Random fluctuations in gene expression
d) Inactivation of the gene promoter
Inhibition of gene expression by regulatory proteins
43
Transcription factors are examples of:
a) Positive regulators
b) Negative regulators
c) Both positive and negative regulators
d) Non-regulatory proteins
Both positive and negative regulators
44
The lac operon in bacteria is an example of:
a) Positive regulation
b) Negative regulation
c) Both positive and negative regulation
d) No regulation
Negative regulation
45
In positive regulation, regulatory proteins bind to:
a) Enhancer regions
b) Silencer regions
c) Promoter regions
d) Repressor regions
Enhancer regions
46
Negative regulation of gene expression is achieved through the binding of ___________ to regulatory sequences in DNA.
Repressors
47
Positive regulation often involves the binding of ___________ to specific DNA sequences, enhancing transcription.
Activators
48
The binding of regulatory proteins to DNA is influenced by specific ___________ between the protein and DNA sequences.
Interactions
49
Negative regulation can occur by blocking the binding of ___________ to the promoter region, preventing transcription initiation.
RNA polymerase
50
Positive regulation can lead to an increase in ___________ of the target gene.
Expression
51
Positive regulation activates gene expression by enhancing the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter region. True or False?
True
52
Negative regulation inhibits gene expression by preventing the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter region. True or False?
True
53
Positive and negative regulation can occur simultaneously for the same gene. True or False?
True
54
Regulatory proteins bind to specific DNA sequences through non-specific interactions. True or False?
False
55
Positive regulation can result in an increased rate of transcription initiation. True or False?
True
56
How does positive regulation affect gene expression levels?
Positive regulation increases gene expression levels.
57
Name a well-known transcription factor involved in positive regulation.
c-Myc
58
How does negative regulation impact gene expression levels?
Negative regulation decreases gene expression levels.
59
What is the role of repressors in negative regulation?
Repressors bind to DNA and prevent or reduce transcription.
60
Give an example of a gene that is negatively regulated.
The p53 gene, involved in cell cycle regulation, is negatively regulated.
61
Prenatal diagnosis is performed to:
a) Determine the sex of the fetus
b) Detect genetic abnormalities or fetal conditions
c) Predict the birth weight of the baby
d) Assess the mother's health during pregnancy
Detect genetic abnormalities or fetal conditions
62
Which of the following is an indication for prenatal diagnosis?
a) Maternal age below 30 years
b) Routine prenatal care visits
c) Family history of genetic disorders
d) Mother's desire for gender determination
Family history of genetic disorders
63
Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) analyzes fetal DNA present in the mother's:
a) Blood
b) Urine
c) Amniotic fluid
d) Cervical mucus
Blood
64
Which prenatal testing method involves analyzing fetal cells obtained through a needle inserted into the uterus?
a) Amniocentesis
b) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
c) Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
d) Maternal serum screening
Amniocentesis
65
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is performed during:
a) Pregnancy
b) Fertilization
c) Embryo development
d) Labor and delivery
Embryo development
66
Ultrasonography uses __________ waves to produce images of the fetus and the mother's reproductive organs.
Sound
67
One of the common indications for prenatal diagnosis is advanced __________ of the mother.
Maternal age
68
In amniocentesis, a sample of __________ is collected from the amniotic sac surrounding the fetus.
Amniotic fluid
69
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) involves obtaining a sample of tissue from the __________ of the developing placenta.
Chorion
70
Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) can detect certain genetic conditions by analyzing cell-free __________ in the maternal blood.
Fetal DNA
71
Prenatal diagnosis can detect chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders in the fetus. True or False?
True
72
Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) carries no risk to the fetus as it involves analyzing the mother's blood. True or False?
True
73
Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS) are invasive prenatal testing methods. True or False?
True
74
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is performed during pregnancy to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus. True or False?
False
75
Ultrasonography is a safe and commonly used imaging technique during pregnancy. True or False?
True
76
Which prenatal testing method is typically performed between 10 and 13 weeks of pregnancy?
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
77
What is the primary advantage of non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) compared to invasive methods?
NIPT carries no risk of miscarriage.
78
Name a genetic condition that can be detected through amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
79
What is the purpose of maternal serum screening during pregnancy?
Maternal serum screening assesses the risk of certain chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
80
How does ultrasonography help in prenatal care?
Ultrasonography provides visual images of the fetus, allowing assessment of fetal development and identification of any abnormalities.
81
Mutations are:
a) Heritable changes in DNA sequence
b) Temporary changes in DNA sequence
c) Changes that only affect somatic cells
d) Changes that only affect germline cells
Heritable changes in DNA sequence
82
Chromosomal mutations involve alterations in:
a) Individual nucleotides
b) Single genes
c) Chromosome structure or number
d) DNA replication process
Chromosome structure or number
83
Point mutations are characterized by:
a) Alterations in chromosome structure
b) Changes in a single nucleotide
c) Loss or gain of entire chromosome
d) Rearrangement of gene order
Changes in a single nucleotide
84
Substitution mutation refers to:
a) Addition of nucleotides
b) Deletion of nucleotides
c) Replacement of one nucleotide with another
d) Rearrangement of chromosomal segments
Replacement of one nucleotide with another
85
Frameshift mutation occurs due to:
a) Insertion or deletion of nucleotides
b) Replacement of one nucleotide with another
c) Translocation of chromosomal segments
d) Inversion of chromosome segment
Insertion or deletion of nucleotides
86
Polymorphism refers to the presence of ___________ genetic variants in a population.
Multiple
87
Classification of genetic disorders is based on the mode of ___________.
Inheritance
88
Single gene disorders are caused by mutations in a ___________ gene.
Single
89
Personalized medicine aims to provide customized ___________ based on an individual's genetic makeup.
Treatments
90
Mutations can have beneficial, neutral, or ___________ effects on an organism.
Harmful
91
Mutations can occur spontaneously or be induced by environmental factors. True or False?
True
92
Chromosomal mutations can involve changes in the structure or number of chromosomes. True or False?
True
93
Point mutations can result in the substitution, insertion, or deletion of nucleotides. True or False?
True
94
Frameshift mutations always cause a change in the reading frame of the gene. True or False?
True
95
Polymorphisms are always associated with disease conditions. True or False?
False
96
Name one example of an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
Cystic fibrosis
97
Which genetic disorder is caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion?
Huntington's disease
98
What is the classification of a genetic disorder that is caused by mutations in the sex chromosomes?
Sex-linked genetic disorder
99
Name a chromosomal disorder that results from an extra copy of chromosome 21.
Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
100
How does personalized medicine utilize genetic information in treatment decisions?
Personalized medicine uses genetic data to tailor treatments and interventions according to an individual's genetic profile.
101
Gene therapy is an approach that involves:
a) Modifying proteins in the body
b) Modifying genes within the cells
c) Replacing all genes in an organism
d) Manipulating viruses to treat diseases
Modifying genes within the cells
102
Recombinant DNA molecules are created by:
a) Combining DNA from different sources
b) Removing all DNA from a cell
c) Modifying RNA within the cell
d) Replacing genes in an organism
Combining DNA from different sources
103
Gene transfection methods are used to:
a) Deliver genes into cells
b) Inhibit gene expression
c) Modify proteins within cells
d) Delete genes from an organism
Deliver genes into cells
104
Protein therapy and gene therapy differ in that:
a) Protein therapy targets genes, while gene therapy targets proteins
b) Protein therapy modifies proteins, while gene therapy modifies genes
c) Protein therapy is more effective than gene therapy
d) Protein therapy and gene therapy are the same approach
Protein therapy modifies proteins, while gene therapy modifies genes
105
Gene therapy has been successful in treating:
a) Cancer
b) Neurodegenerative diseases
c) Genetic disorders
d) All of the above
All of the above
106
Gene therapy for Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) involves the insertion of a functional ___________ gene into the patient's cells.
Immune
107
In viro therapy utilizes ___________ to deliver therapeutic genes into target cells.
Viruses
108
Ex vivo therapy involves ___________ cells from a patient, genetically modifying them, and then reintroducing them back into the patient.
Removing
109
One of the challenges in gene therapy is ensuring ___________ and long-term expression of the therapeutic gene.
Stable
110
Gene inactivations can be achieved through the use of ___________ nucleases, which can target and disable specific genes.
Engineered
111
Gene therapy involves the delivery of genetic material into cells to treat or prevent diseases. True or False?
True
112
Recombinant DNA molecules are created by combining DNA from the same source. True or False?
False
113
Gene transfection methods are used to deliver genes into cells and enable gene expression. True or False?
True
114
Protein therapy is more commonly used than gene therapy in medical practice. True or False?
False
115
Gene therapy has shown promising results in treating genetic disorders such as cystic fibrosis and hemophilia. True or False?
True
116
What is the underlying cause of Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
Defects in immune system genes
117
Name the viral vector commonly used in gene therapy for SCID.
Retrovirus or lentivirus
118
How does gene therapy for SCID aim to restore immune function?
By introducing a functional copy of the defective gene into the patient's cells
119
What type of cells are typically targeted for gene therapy in SCID?
Hematopoietic stem cells
120
What are the potential benefits of gene therapy for SCID patients?
Restoration of immune function and reduced susceptibility to infections
121
Gregor Mendel conducted his experiments on inheritance using which plant species?
a) Pea plants
b) Rose plants
c) Tomato plants
d) Sunflower plants
Pea plants
122
In modern terms, inheritance refers to the passing of genetic traits from:
a) Parent to offspring
b) Sibling to sibling
c) Grandparent to grandchild
d) Cousin to cousin
Parent to offspring
123
The law of segregation states that:
a) Genes are located on chromosomes
b) Alleles separate during gamete formation
c) Offspring inherit traits from both parents
d) Dominant alleles are always expressed over recessive alleles
Alleles separate during gamete formation
124
Mendel's model of inheritance involved the concept of:
a) Blending of traits
b) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
c) Independent assortment of alleles
d) Direct transmission of traits
Independent assortment of alleles
125
Punnett squares are used to:
a) Determine the probability of specific trait combinations in offspring
b) Determine the genetic code of an individual
c) Analyze the structure of chromosomes
d) Determine the dominance of a trait
Determine the probability of specific trait combinations in offspring
126
In a testcross, an individual with the ___________ genotype is crossed with an individual with the recessive genotype.
Dominant
127
The law of independent assortment states that alleles for different traits segregate ___________ of each other during gamete formation.
Independently
128
A monohybrid cross involves the inheritance of a single ___________.
Trait
129
A dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of ___________ different traits.
Two
130
The degrees of dominance refer to the extent to which one allele's phenotype is ___________ over another allele.
Expressed
131
Mendel's experiments on pea plants led to the discovery of basic principles of inheritance. True or False?
True
132
In Mendel's model, each trait is controlled by a pair of alleles, one from each parent. True or False?
True
133
Punnett squares are graphical representations used to predict the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring. True or False?
True
134
In a testcross, an individual with a homozygous dominant genotype is crossed with an individual with a homozygous recessive genotype. True or False?
True
135
The law of independent assortment states that alleles for different traits are always inherited together. True or False?
False
136
In snapdragons, flower color is an example of:
Incomplete dominance
137
What does codominance refer to?
Both alleles are expressed fully in the heterozygous condition.
138
Pleiotropy refers to a phenomenon where:
A single gene influences multiple traits or characteristics.
139
Epistasis occurs when:
The expression of one gene is dependent on the presence of another gene.
140
Give an example of a trait in humans that exhibits codominance.
ABO blood type system
141
Recombinant DNA technology involves the:
a) Extraction of DNA from a single source
b) Combination of DNA from different sources
c) Destruction of DNA within a cell
d) Amplification of RNA sequences
Combination of DNA from different sources
142
DNA sequencing is a technique used to:
a) Determine the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule
b) Measure the concentration of proteins in a sample
c) Identify specific genes in a genome
d) Visualize cellular structures using fluorescent dyes
Determine the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule
143
Karyotyping is a method used to:
a) Analyze DNA sequence variations
b) Visualize chromosomes and detect chromosomal abnormalities
c) Determine protein expression patterns
d) Amplify DNA fragments for cloning
Visualize chromosomes and detect chromosomal abnormalities
144
Western blotting is a technique used to:
a) Visualize DNA fragments on a gel
b) Detect specific proteins in a sample
c) Determine the sequence of amino acids in a protein
d) Analyze gene expression patterns
Detect specific proteins in a sample
145
The Southern blot technique is used to:
a) Analyze RNA molecules
b) Detect specific DNA sequences in a sample
c) Determine protein-protein interactions
d) Study the structure of lipids
Detect specific DNA sequences in a sample
146
Confocal microscopy is a technique that provides ___________ resolution and optical sectioning of fluorescently labeled samples.
High
147
In vivo imaging refers to the visualization of biological processes ___________ the living organism.
Within
148
Microarrays are tools used to study ___________ expression of thousands of genes simultaneously.
Gene
149
DNA fingerprinting is a technique used to establish ___________ identity or genetic relationships between individuals.
Genetic
150
Recombinant DNA technology allows for the creation of genetically modified organisms. True or False?
True
151
DNA sequencing can provide information about the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule. True or False?
True
152
Karyotyping can be used to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome. True or False?
True
153
Western blotting allows for the detection of specific proteins in a sample based on their molecular weight. True or False?
True
154
The Southern blot technique is used to analyze RNA molecules. True or False?
False
155
Microarrays are used to study gene expression patterns but cannot analyze DNA sequence variations. True or False?
False
156
What is the primary target of DNA fingerprinting?
Repeating DNA sequences (microsatellites or minisatellites)
157
Name one application of DNA fingerprinting.
Forensic investigations
158
DNA fingerprinting can be used to establish paternity or maternity. True or False?
True
159
What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting technique?
Differences in the number and pattern of repeats in specific DNA sequences
160
DNA fingerprinting relies on the use of which molecular biology technique?
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
161
Microarrays can be used to study:
Gene expression patterns, single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), and copy number variations (CNVs)
162
DNA sequencing can provide information about genetic variations and mutations. True or false?
True
163
Name one commonly used method for DNA sequencing.
Sanger sequencing or Next-generation sequencing (NGS)
164
How does Sanger sequencing work?
It utilizes dideoxynucleotides to terminate DNA strand elongation and generates a set of fragments that represent the DNA sequence.
165
Next-generation sequencing (NGS) techniques enable the sequencing of millions of DNA fragments simultaneously. True or False?
True
166
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used to:
a) Amplify specific DNA sequences
b) Determine protein-protein interactions
c) Analyze RNA expression patterns
d) Visualize cellular structures
Amplify specific DNA sequences
167
Flow cytometry is a method that enables:
a) Visualization of chromosomal abnormalities
b) Identification and sorting of cells based on their physical and chemical properties
c) Detection of specific protein-protein interactions
d) Analysis of lipid composition in biological samples
Identification and sorting of cells based on their physical and chemical properties
168
Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on their ___________.
Size
169
Immunohistochemistry is a method used to visualize the presence and distribution of specific proteins in tissue samples. True or False?
True
170
Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is a technique used to detect and localize specific DNA sequences within cells or tissue samples. True or False?
True
171
Genetic variation can arise from:
a) Mutations
b) Environmental factors
c) Lifestyle choices
d) All of the above
Mutations
172
Genetic disorders can be categorized into:
a) Single gene disorders
b) Chromosomal disorders
c) Multifactorial disorders
d) All of the above
All of the above
173
Mendelian disorders are caused by:
a) Mutations in a single gene
b) Changes in multiple genes
c) Environmental factors only
d) Chromosomal abnormalities
Mutations in a single gene
174
Autosomal recessive (AR) inheritance refers to:
a) Inheritance of a trait on the X chromosome
b) Inheritance of a trait on the Y chromosome
c) Inheritance of a trait on any chromosome other than the sex chromosomes
d) Inheritance of a trait through mitochondrial DNA
Inheritance of a trait on any chromosome other than the sex chromosomes
175
Consanguinity refers to:
a) The mating between individuals who are closely related
b) The mating between individuals who are unrelated
c) The mating between individuals of the same sex
d) The mating between individuals of different species
The mating between individuals who are closely related
176
PKU (Phenylketonuria) is an autosomal ___________ disorder.
Recessive
177
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the ___________ gene.
HBB (Beta-globin)
178
Thalassemia is a group of ___________ disorders characterized by abnormal hemoglobin production.
Blood
179
Galactosemia is an autosomal ___________ disorder that affects the metabolism of galactose.
Recessive
180
CF (Cystic Fibrosis) is caused by mutations in the ___________ gene.
CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator)
181
Albinism is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a lack of pigmentation in the skin, hair, and eyes. True or False?
True
182
Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal dominant disorder. True or False?
False
183
Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is an autosomal recessive disorder affecting cholesterol metabolism. True or False?
False
184
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by brittle bones. True or False?
False
185
Achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in dwarfism. True or False?
True
186
Huntington's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder. True or False?
False
187
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting the connective tissue. True or False?
True
188
Diabetes Mellitus Type 1 (DM Type 1) is an autosomal dominant disorder. True or False?
False
189
Hypertension (high blood pressure) is a genetic disorder. True or False?
False
190
Obesity is primarily caused by genetic factors. True or False?
True
191
Mental retardation can be caused by genetic factors. True or False?
True
192
X-linked diseases are more commonly seen in males than females. True or False?
True
193
Huntington's disease is caused by a mutation in the:
a) BRCA1 gene
b) HTT gene
c) CFTR gene
d) LDLR gene
HTT gene
194
Marfan syndrome affects the:
a) Nervous system
b) Respiratory system
c) Cardiovascular system
d) Digestive system
Cardiovascular system
195
Diabetes Mellitus Type 1 (DM Type 1) is characterized by:
a) Insulin resistance
b) Deficient insulin production
c) Excess insulin production
d) Impaired glucose absorption
Deficient insulin production
196
Obesity is a complex disorder influenced by:
a) Environmental factors only
b) Genetic factors only
c) Both genetic and environmental factors
d) Lifestyle choices only
Both genetic and environmental factors
197
Mental retardation, also known as intellectual disability, can be caused by ___________ factors.
Genetic or environmental
198
X-linked diseases are more commonly seen in females than males. True or False?
False
199
Fragile X syndrome is a common X-linked disorder that causes intellectual disability. True or False?
True
200
Hemophilia is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting blood clotting. True or False?
False
