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Committee Exam 4 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

read the names of branches of maxillary nerve.

A

zygomatic nerve,
nasopalatine nerve,
posterior superior alveolar nerve,
greater & lesser palatine nerves,
pharyngeal nerve

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2
Q

name the branches of maxillary nerve.

A

zygomatic nerve,
nasopalatine nerve,
posterior superior alveolar nerve,
greater & lesser palatine nerves,
pharyngeal nerve

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3
Q

name the joint connected by a short ligament.

A

sutures/fibrous joints

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4
Q

axial plane divides the body into which parts?

A

superior and inferior

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5
Q

What is the name of the layer covering the bone marrow cavity?

A

endosteum

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6
Q

which is not a styloid muscle?

A

styloid process gives origin to 3 muscles: syloglossus,
stylohyoid,
stylopharyngeus

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7
Q

joint type of synovial joint?

A

hinged synovial

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8
Q

Which bone participates to medial wall of cranium?

A

ethmoid bone

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9
Q

Glenohumeral ligament is not inside the shoulder capsule.

A

just read.

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10
Q

Which structure is most lateral in anatomical position?

A

upper limb: thumb (pollex) is
the most lateral digit,
fifth toe (little toe) is the most lateral digit,
transverse processes of
the lumbar vertebrae,
temporal bones

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11
Q

Which plane can divide deltoid muscle into lateral & medial?

A

sagittal plane

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12
Q

Which of the following muscles has no brevis?

A

Muscles with brevis: Adductor brevis,
Fibularis brevis, Flexor hallucis brevis, Flexor digitorum brevis, Flexor digiti minimi
brevis, Extensor digitorum brevis, Extensor hallucis brevis

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13
Q

Flexor pollicis longus moves?

A

saddle type joint of thumb

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14
Q

Which is an intrinsic back muscle?

A

levator scapulae

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15
Q

Which muscle group is innervated by deep peroneal nerve?

A

anterior leg

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16
Q

Which one does not cause radiocarpal deviation?

A

pronator teres

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17
Q

Both ilioinguinal iliohypogastric nerve penetrates transverse abdominis muscle.

A

just read.

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18
Q

what are the contents of adductor canal or hunter’s canal/tunnel?

A

femoral artery, femoral vein, nerve to vastus medialis
and saphenous nerve

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19
Q

Intracapsular ligament of the knee

A

transverse ligament

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20
Q

Which organelle is involved in sorting & packing?

A

golgi apparatus

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21
Q

diagram which pathway conducts neurons fastest?

A

myelinated with largest diameter

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22
Q

Mutation in a baby’s gene causes?

A

malformation

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23
Q

Mitochondrial DNA contains?

A

maternal DNA

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24
Q

photolase and nucleotide excision repair

A

just read

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25
Q

Bacteria doesn’t have (introns)

A

just read.

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26
Q

DNA Polymerase

A

proofreads its own work

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27
Q

Aziz Sancar discovered?

A

photolyase enzyme

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28
Q

Human Genome project did NOT focus on collecting samples from different species?

A

just read.

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29
Q

mRNA is modified by (capping & polyadenylation) of it’s ends

A

read.

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30
Q

translation takes place in?

A

cytoplasm

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31
Q

liposomes as gene carriers.

A

read.

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32
Q

Apoptosome is constructed out of which parts —> 7-armed complex recruits 7 molecules of procaspase-9 to form apoptosis & formation requires ATP

A

read

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33
Q

death induced by external factor?

A

extrinsic pathway

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34
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused by not being able to repair?

A

thymine dimers

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35
Q

which causes beri beri disease?

A

thiamine B1 deficiency

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36
Q

Align following enzymes & binding proteins in the order in which they function in DNA
replication —> Helicase - Binding Proteins - Primase - DNA Polymerase - Ligase.

A

read.

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37
Q

Viruses can be used for DNA transfer in gene therapy.

A

read.

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38
Q
  • What refers to the synthesis of proteins from rRNA
A

translation

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39
Q

Which one of these is an aneuploid —> Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)

A

read.

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40
Q

Which of these condition causes sunburn & extreme reactions to sunlight due to which
patients can only go out during the night time?

A

xeroderma pigmentosum

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41
Q

Miller Dieker syndrome (Lissencephaly) is caused by defect in?

A

L1S1

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42
Q

Which one of these isn’t autosomal dominant —> tay sachs (autosomal recessive)

A

read.

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43
Q

Which one of these keeps the strands apart for polymerase

A

binding proteins

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44
Q

Breaks occur at both ends of chromosome & sticky ends unite.

A

ring chromosome

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45
Q

Which of the following gene is mutated in vitamin D resistant rickets?

A

FGF23

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46
Q

HindIII recognition site —> AAGCTT / GATTC —> EcoRI / NotI.

A

READ.

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47
Q

Inactive Rb cause S phase activation

A

read.

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48
Q

cyclin D1 and Cdk 4 ( not other type ) S phase regulators

A

read.

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49
Q

P53 cause transcription of P21 gene to inhibit cell proliferation

A

read.

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50
Q

The concentration of intermediate filaments is illustration sign for?

A

tumor recognition

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51
Q

peptide bond is formed in ————- OF RIBOSOMES

A

A site

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52
Q
  • There is need for primer in order to start transcription
A

read.

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53
Q

Mitochondria usually contain different gene property compare to nuclear genome

A

read.

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54
Q

Proteomics (proteins) and metabolomic (small molecules) definitions

Proteomics is the study of the interactions, function, composition, and structures of proteins and their cellular activities

Metabolomics is the large-scale study of small molecules, commonly known as metabolites, within cells, biofluids, tissues or organisms

A

read.

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55
Q

gap junction doesn’t have cytoskeleton component

A

read.

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56
Q

DNA synthesis: 5n3 direction and is semidiscontinuous

A

read.

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57
Q

Which enzyme separates DNA?

A

helicase

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58
Q

IUPAC naming

A

IUPAC nomenclature is based on naming a molecule’s longest chain of carbons connected by single bonds, whether in a continuous chain or in a ring. All deviations, either multiple bonds or atoms other than carbon and hydrogen, are indicated by prefixes or suffixes according to a specific set of priorities

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59
Q

Substitution reaction definition

A

one or more atoms or groups of atoms in a molecule
are replaced by another atom or group of atoms

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60
Q

Williamson-Ether synthesis; reaction of metal alkoxides and primary alkyl halides and tosylates

A

read.

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61
Q

Best method for the preparation of ethers

A

dehydration of alcohol

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62
Q

Zaitsev’s Rule?

A

when an alkene is produced in an elimination reaction, the major
product is the one with the more highly
- substituted double bond.

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63
Q

ion responsible for depolarization?

A

Na

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64
Q

Smooth muscle contraction is terminated by?

A

Dephosphorylation of myosin chain

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65
Q

Statement about smooth muscle contraction is correct —> Phosphorylation of a myosin
light chain allows actin myosin binding in smooth muscle

A

read.

66
Q

Functional unit of a striated muscle fiber is called?

A

sarcomere

67
Q

Newborns have a lot of?

A

brown adipose tissue

68
Q

Statement about acetylcholinesterase is true —> Degrades neurotransmitter which is found in the neuromuscular junction

A

read.

69
Q

Father of anatomy (Andreas Vesalius)

A
70
Q

Father of blood circulation (William Harvey)

A
71
Q

Which one of the following is the reason of trephenation?
To make the bad spirit that captured the body and soul leave the body

A
72
Q

Which one of the following is the revolutionary concept developped based on life after
death during Assyro-Babylonian civilisation?
a) Metamorphosis
b) Reincarnation
c) Astrology
d) Birth anomalies represented an evil symbol
e) Mummification

A
73
Q

Why snakes are used in Greek medicine (stimulate immune system)

A
74
Q

Hippocrates was (Greek)

A
75
Q

Which civilization called the hospitals Aesclepions (Greek)

A
76
Q

Aurveda knowledge system (India)

A
77
Q

Egyptians invented cauterization

A
78
Q
  • Medical theory of prehistoric times based on basic attempts like licking and blowing —>
    Instinctive medicine
A
79
Q

Macroconidia for identification of molds

A
80
Q

Bacterial spores are very resistant to environmental factors like disinfection

A
81
Q

Lipopolysaccharides in which types of bacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

A
82
Q

false about prokaryotics…

A
83
Q
  • multisystem organisms…
A
84
Q

Which is an asexual fungal spore (Arthrospere)

A
85
Q

Which is a sexual fungal spore (Ascospore)

A
86
Q

steps of viral replication: (recognition, attachment, penetration uncoating ,
macromolecular synthesis, assembly)

A
87
Q

Which of the following cells have an ability to kill virus loaded cells directly without
antigen presentation by Major histocompatibility complex? Natural Killer Cells

A
88
Q
  • Which of the below cells is introducing antigen to T And B Cells in lymph node? Mature
    dendritic cells
A
89
Q

Which one of these produces antibodies —> plasma cells

A
90
Q

immune cells in old age causes —> Decreased T cell, Reduced B cell function,
Changes in innate immunity, Increased autoimmunity

A
91
Q

Which of the following is NOT an antigen presenting cell —> T-lymphocyte

A
92
Q

Specialized Connective Tissue? Dense Regular Tissue

A
93
Q

Lamina of nuclear envelope stabilize by laminin and collagen type IV

A
94
Q

Lamina of nuclear envelope stabilize by laminin and collagen type IV

A
95
Q

Goblet cell in epithelium of lung and intestine

A
96
Q

The blood between intervillous space contain maternal blood

A
97
Q

ou attend a lecture on the physiology of lactation and breast-feeding. Under the
influence of pregnancy-associated hormones, epithelial cells of the mammary gland
secrete lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins. The lipid components of breast milk are
released from the apical surface of the glandular epithelial cells as a lipid droplet within
an envelope of the plasma membrane. Which of the following terms best describes this
mechanism of secretion? Apocrine

A
98
Q

6 steps or tissue processing in order: 1)fixation, 2) dehydration, 3) clearing, 4) infiltration,
5) embedding, 6) trimming

A
99
Q
  • Between which two layers is the extraembryonic mesoderm located (Cytotrophoblast
    and exocoelomic membrane)
A
100
Q

Until 20 weeks the placenta continues to grow wider and the placenta, membrane
consists of (Syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, connective tissue of the villus and fetal
endothelium)

A
101
Q

When you want to create a ligament/tendon-like structure you need to make dense
regular connective tissue

A
102
Q

In which cartilage can you find type 2 ct? (Hyaline cartilage)

A
103
Q
  • Which of the following microscopic techniques would you prefer first to investigate
    prepared slides (Slides with Hematoksilen and Eozin vs..)?
    a) Scanning electronmicroscopy
    b) Transmission electronmicroscopy
    c) Fluorescent microscopy
    d) Dark field microscopy
    e) Light microscopy
    (Light microscope) as first choice when analyzing blood smear
A
104
Q

Osteoclasts in howships lacuna

A
105
Q

Invasive tests (Cordocentesis- after week 18, Amniocentesis- only 14-16 weeks,
Chorionic Villus Sampling- only 8-10 weeks)

A
106
Q

Noninvasive methods (Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein, First and second-trimester
maternal serum screening, Ultrasonography, Isolation of fetal cells from maternal
circulation)

A
107
Q

Human childhood period Development in humans (between infancy and adolescence)

A
108
Q

Infertility definition (not being able to get pregnant (conceive) after one year (or longer) of
unprotected sex)

A
109
Q

cell membrane definition

A

The cell membrane, also called the plasma membrane, is found in all cells and separates the interior of the cell from the outside environment. The cell membrane consists of a lipid bilayer that is semipermeable. The cell membrane regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell.

110
Q

Glucose galactose and fructose are involved in GLUT…2

A
111
Q

Amylopectin has alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages

A
112
Q

Which compound below has β-(1, 2) glycosidic linkage? Lactose

A
113
Q

(GLUT-4)……….is located on the plasma membranes of myocytes and adipocytes, it is
insulin-…(dependent).. & allows …(passive transport)……

A
114
Q

Which statement is FALSE for NaK ATPase? A) It creates membrane potential across
the membranes B) It creates low intracellular sodium concentration C) It allows
secondary active transport D) It creates high intracellular potassium concentration E) It
creates high intracellular sodium concentration Dogru Sik….:E

A
115
Q

hayluronic acid no covalent bonding with proteins, no sulphate

A
116
Q
  • Aggrecan main proteins of glycans of cartilage/ link proteins & core proteins
A
117
Q

Heparin & heparin sulphate —> increase uptake of fatty acids / lipoprotein lipids/ increase in
concentration of enzyme

A
118
Q

Hyalronic acid TGF/ regulation effect the factor effect

A
119
Q
  • Walls of aorta present in bone & cornea —> Chondrotin sulphate
A
120
Q
  • L-iduronic acid present in heparin
A
121
Q

Heparin & heparin sulphate —> anticoagulant

A
122
Q

Glycolipids —> gangliosides & sulphatides —> acidic Glycolipids

A
123
Q
  • Globosides/cerebrosides —> neutral Glycolipids
A
124
Q

Phosphatidylserine has COO^-

A
125
Q
  • Phosphatidylthalomine has NH3
A
126
Q
  • Cardiolipin is major lipid of mitochondria
A
127
Q
  • Platelet activating factor (PAF) allergic response
A
128
Q

X —> phosphocholine or phosphothanolamin bind to sphingosine … if X be a phosphocholine
sphingomeyline are produced

A
129
Q

cholic acid most abundant in bile acids

A
130
Q

Cholic acid mainly & other bile acids inhibit 7alphahydroxylase —> regulatory step of bile acid
synthesize

A
131
Q

7-alpha-hydroxylase in liver

A
132
Q

7-alpha-dehydroxylation in intestine

A
133
Q

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is a coafactor of 7-alpha-hydroxylase

A
134
Q

Conjugated bile acids are perioxomes of liver

A
135
Q

Conjugated bile acids secreted into intestine / not bile acids

A
136
Q

Free primary bile acids convert to secondary bile acids in intestine

A
137
Q
  • PGHS —> 2 enzyme activity / COX & peroxi
A
138
Q
  • Thromboxane & prostacyclins are antagonistic
A
139
Q
  • Tryptophen —> all of them have a phenyl ring
A
140
Q

arginine & histidine (in children) —> semi essentia

A
141
Q
  • homocysteine & homoserine —> intermediate in amino acid metabolism
A
142
Q

Tropocollagen basic structure of unit of collagen

A
143
Q
  • Glycine, x, y —> X = proline / Y= 4-hydroxyproline
A
144
Q

Ascorbic acid is necessary for hydroxylation of proline & lysine residues

A
145
Q

microfibrils cross-link by covalent bonds between lysl & hydroxylyl residues

A
146
Q

Cross-linking enzyme —> lysl oxidase & copper is coafactor

A
147
Q

deamination —> uracil & cytosine

A
148
Q

TP converted to cAMP by adenylyl-cyclase

A
149
Q

Vitamin B3 —> nicotinamide

A
150
Q

Coenzyme A we have vitamin B5/ AMP

A
151
Q

competitive inhibition is between succinate & fumarate

A
152
Q

Malonate is the competitive inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase

A
153
Q

Lead poisoning —> non competitive inhibition type I / Vm decreases but Km remains same

A
154
Q

Non competitive inhibition type II —> inhibitor binds to ES complex not free enzyme / Vm & Km
decrease

A
155
Q

phenylalanine converted to tyrosine through tetrahydrobiopterin
* Phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase —> aka phenylalanine hydroxylase

A
156
Q

fattyacyl-CoA desaturase enzyme system —> cytochrome B5 (cyt b5) involved
* FADH2 oxidized & cyt b5 reduced

A
157
Q

catalytic unit of glucose-6-phosphatase in lumen of ER

A
158
Q
  • G protein activate adenylyl cyclase
A
159
Q
  • Phosphorylase kinase B & protein kinase A —>
    allosteric activation by cAMP
A
160
Q

Gluts —> 166/167
* 169 —> oxidative & nonoxidative part
* 180 —> second diagram
* 184 —> second diagram cori cycle
* 187 —> first diagram (know all of it)
* Complexes of respiratory chain
368/370/377(both) —> know shape
* 364 adipose tissue, first diagram

A

Committee Exam 4 (35 decks)

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