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CE 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the below cytokines have a suppressive effect on the immune system?
A) IL-2 (Interleukin-2)
B) IL-10 (Interlcukin-10)
C) IL-8 (Interleukin-8)
D) IL-6 (Interleukin-6)
E) TNF (Tumor Necrotizing Factor)

A

IL-10 (Interlcukin-10)
it is an immunosuppressive cytokine

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2
Q

Which of the below is a marker of B cells?
A) CD 3
B) CD56
C) CD41
D) CD19
E) CD14

A

CD19. CD19 antigen as a pan B cell marker is expressed by almost all B lymphocyte developmental stages from early pre-B cell until final differentiation to plasma cell

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3
Q

Which one is the most distal artery that you can manually feel the pulse of?
A) Arcuate
B) Fibular
C) Dorsalis pedis
D) Deep plantar arch
E) Medial plantar

A

Deep plantar arch

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4
Q

After a bicycle crash you hit your lateral malleolus and it hurts a lot. You apply ice over the lateral malleolus. Which nerve carries these pain and temperature sensations to the spinal cord?
A) Saphenous
B) Sural
C) Deep fibular
D) Lateral plantar
E) Obturator

A

Sural. The Sural nerve lies behind the lateral malleolus along with the short saphenous vein. It supplies the posterior part of the sole, the back of the lower leg, the heel and lateral side of the foot.

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5
Q

After a penetrating injury with a sharp, broad knife from upper thigh region, patient loses cutaneous sensations of the central part of the anterior thigh. Which nerve is possibly injured in this patient?
A) Saphenous
B) Femoral branch of genitofemoral
C) Intermediate cutaneous branch from femoral
D) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
E) Obturator

A

Intermediate cutaneous branch from femoral

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6
Q

Which one can be the sign of superior gluteal nerve injury?
A) Limited flexion of the thigh
B) Inability to internally rotate the femur
C) Pain over the gluteal region
D) Pelvic drop on the other side
E) Dislocation of the hip

A

Pelvic drop on the other side also called Trendelenburg or gluteal gait

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7
Q

Standing up from a chair requires a powerful extension of the thigh. Which muscle provides this
movement?
A) lliopsoas
B) Hamstrings
C) Quadratus femoris
D) Gluteus maximus
E) Adductor magnus

A

Gluteus maximus

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8
Q

After a tibial nerve injury, which muscle can continue its function?
A) Extensor hallucis brevis
B) Lumbrical I
C) Dorsal interosseus II
D) Adductor hallucis
E) Flexor digit minimi brevis

A

Extensor hallucis brevis

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9
Q

A nail enters the center of right foot of a patient during running. What is the first structure this nail
cuts through?
A) Flexor digitorum brevis
B) Quadratus lumborum
C) Flexor digitorum longus
D) Aponeurosis plantaris
E) Abductor hallucis

A

Aponeurosis plantaris

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10
Q

A friend has pain on the posterior side of his right leg during the plantar flexion. You suspect a
muscle cramp. Spasm of which plantar flexor muscle can cause this pain?
A) Tibialis anterior
B) Extensor hallucis longus
C) Biceps femoris
D) Peroneus longus
E) Gastrocnemius

A

Gastrocnemius

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11
Q

Transverse intermuscular septum divides the posterior leg into superficial and deep compartments.
Which one is posterior to this septum?
A) Extensor hallucis longus
B) Soleus
C) Popliteus
D) Tibialis posterior
E) Flexor digitorum longus

A

Soleus

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12
Q

Which structure passes through the tarsal tunnel?
A) Fibularis longus tendon
B) Deep fibular nerve
C) Flexor hallucis longus tendon
D) Tibialis anterior tendon
E) Dorsalis pedis artery

A

Flexor hallucis longus tendon

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13
Q

Which muscle helps the flexor digitorum longus by correcting the “line of pull” of the tendon?
A) Flexor digits minimi brevis
B) Plantar interosseous
C) Flexor hallucis brevis
D) Extensor digitorum brevis
E) Quadratus plantae

A

Quadratus plantae

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14
Q

In anatomical position, which muscle has the superior position?
A) Gemellus inferior
B) Piriformis
C) Quadratus femoris
D) Gemellus superior
E) Obturator externus

A

Piriformis

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15
Q

Which nerve innervates the sartorius?
A) Pudendal
B) Tibial
C) Femoral
D) Obturator
E) Common fibular

A

Femoral

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16
Q

Which structure is NOT related to the adductor canal?
A) Adductor longus
B) Sartorius
C) Quadratus femoris
D) Vastoadductor membrane
E) Pectineus

A

Pectineus

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17
Q

Which ‘muscular compartment — main innervating nerve” matching is correct?
A) Medial thigh — Obturator
B) Posterior leg — Deep fibular
C) Deep gluteal — Inferior gluteal
D) Anterior leg — Superficial fibular
E) Superficial gluteal — Sciatic

A

Medial thigh — Obturator

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18
Q

Which nerve runs in the groove between iliacus and psoas major?
A) Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
B) Obturator
C) Pudendal
D) Femoral
E) Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

A

Femoral

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19
Q

The genicular plexus around the knee joint is mainly formed by the branches of …
A) Femoral
B) Popliteal
C) Sural
D) Deep artery of the thigh
E) Anterior tibial

A

Popliteal

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20
Q

Which vein first receives the venous blood of a small saphenous vein?
A) Dorsal venous arch
B) Femoral
C) Great saphenous I
D) External iliac
E) Popliteal

A

Popliteal

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21
Q

Which of the following is true?
I- Multiple types of different genomic instabilities may cause possible consequences especially for fertility.
II- Increased weight in men has been associated with a lower testosterone level, poorer sperm quality, and
reduced fertility
III-Stress and anxiety can reduce sperm and semen quality, which could have implications for male
fertility.
IV-Exposure to endocrine-disrupting chemical exposure contributes to decreased semen quality and thus
increased male infertility
A) I-II
B) III-IV
C) I-IV
D) II-III
E) I-II-III-IV

A

I-II-III-IV

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22
Q

Reduced fetal growth is seen in about 10% of the pregnancies but only a minority has a pathological
background and is known as intrauterine growth restriction or fetal growth restriction (IUGR / FGR).
Increased fetal and neonatal mortality and morbidity as well as adult pathologic conditions are often
associated with IUGR. Which of the following is not a risk factor for IUGR?
A) Multiple gestation
B) Congenital infections (Cytomegalovirus, Toxoplasmosis, Tuberculosis)
C) Preeclampsia
D) Being a mother at an early age
E) Smoking

A

Being a mother at an early age

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23
Q

Amniotic fluid is constantly resorbed during pregnancy by the following sequence of events: the fetus
swallows amniotic fluid, amniotic fluid is absorbed into fetal blood through the gastrointestinal tract, and
excess amniotic fluid is removed via the placenta and passed into maternal blood. Swallowing defects
(e.g. esophageal atresia) or absorption defects (e.g., duodenal atresia) result in?
A) Placenta previa
B) Oligohydramnios
C) Renal agenesis
D) Polyhydramnios
E) Hypoplastic lungs

A

Polyhydramnios

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24
Q

_____________ is the portion of the endometrium that underlies the implantation site.
A) Chorion frondosum
B) Decidua capsularis
C) Chorion leve
D) Decidua parictalis
E) Decidua basalis

A

Decidua basalis which is the maternal component of placenta

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25
Q

During the later stages of pregnancy, maternal blood is separated from fetal blood by the
A) Syncytiotrophoblast only
B) Cytotrophoblast only
C) Syncytiotrophoblast and fetal endothelium
D) Syncytiotrophoblast
E) Cytotrophoblast and fetal endothelium

A

Syncytiotrophoblast and fetal endothelium

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26
Q

Intervillous space of the placenta contains
A) Amniotic fluid
B) Maternal blood
C) Fetal blood
D) Maternal and fetal blood
E) Maternal blood and amniotic fluid

A

Maternal blood

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27
Q

Which of the following is FALSE for development of the intraembryonic coelom and angiogenesis?
A) Extraembryonic cavity is the fusion of extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and extraembryonic:
splanchnic mesoderm
B) Intraembryonic coelom (cavity) is the fusion of isolated coelomic spaces in the lateral mesoderm
and cardiogenic mesoderm into a horseshoe-shaped cavity.
C) Vasculogenic is the formation of new vessels by budding and branching from preexisting vessels.
D) During the 20d month, intraembryonic coelom is divided into pericardial cavity, pleural cavities
and peritoneal cavity
E) Visceral lateral mesoderm is together with extraembryonic mesoderm covering yolk sac and
endoderm is called splanchnopleure

A

Vasculogenic is the formation of new vessels by budding and branching from preexisting vessels.

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28
Q

As you know, the neural crest can be divided into four major groups: Cranial, Trunk, Vagal & Sacral
and Cardiac Neural Crest. Which of the following is derived from the Trunk crest?
A) Cornea of Eye
B) Parafollicular Cells of Thyroid
C) Enteric Glia
D) Salivary & Lacrimal Glands

A

Enteric Glia

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29
Q

Disruption results in morphological change of the already formed structure due to exposure to
destructive process. Which of the following is example of this type abnormality?
A) Cleft lip
B) Talipes equinovarus deformity
C) Trisomy 21
D) Simeon crease in hand.
E) Vascular accidents leading to intestinal atresia

A

Vascular accidents leading to intestinal atresia

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30
Q

GLUT allows ___________of glucose from _________ to ____________
A) Uptake / Blood / Only Adipose tissue
B) Release / Liver / Blood
C) Uptake / Blood / Muscles (cardiac, skeletal) and Adipose tissue
D) Entry / Enterocytes / Blood
E) Uptake / Blood / Only Muscles (cardiac, skeletal)

A

Uptake / Blood / Muscles (cardiac, skeletal) and Adipose tissue

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31
Q

Which below are true for Na+K* ATPase?
1) It creates membrane potential across the membranes
2) It creates low intracellular potassium concentration
3) It creates high intracellular sodium concentration
4) It creates high extracellular potassium concentration
5) It creates low intracellular sodium concentration
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 5
E) 1 and 4

A

1 and 5

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32
Q

Which transporter is involved in relaxation of the muscles?
A) Na+ K* ATPase
B) Na+-Ca+2 exchanger
C) H+K- ATPase
D) CI- / HCO-3 transporter
E) SGLT-1

A

Na+-Ca+2 exchanger

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33
Q

Find the false statement about Complex V of the “Mitochondrial Electron Transport System”.
A) It is also named as ATP synthase
B) ATP is synthesized at F domain
C) FI domain extends to the mitosol
D) Protons flow through Fo domain, thus produce electromotive force for ATP synthesis
E) ATP is synthesized over AMP + PPi

A

ATP is synthesized over AMP + PPi

34
Q

Which is the function of H+ ATPase? It maintains ________________
A) Acidic pH in the lysosomes, endosomes, secretory vesicles
B) Fluid secretion in exocrine glands
C) Energy regulation in lysosomes
D) Acidic medium in the stomach
E) Alkaline pH in the intestinal lumen

A

Acidic pH in the lysosomes, endosomes, secretory vesicles

35
Q

The transport of CO: from tissues to the lungs is maintained by the cooperation of enzyme _________ and the ___________ transporter.
A) Selenium / Carbonic lyase / CO: / HCO
B) Zine / Carbonic hydrase / Hx PO: HPO4*
C) Zinc / Carbonic anhydrase / C1 -/ HCO
D) Manganese / Carbonic hydratase / CO; / HCO
E) Magnesium / Carbonic dehydratase / C1-/ HCO

A

Zinc / Carbonic anhydrase / C1 -/ HCO

36
Q

Which type of transporter is CFTR? And where is it located?
A) ABC / Epithelial cell membranes of many tissues as well as in exocrine glands, such as pancreas
B) ABC/ Endocrine glands such as adipose issue
C) MDRI / Exocrine glands such as sweat glands
D) MDRI / Apical plasma membranes of epithelial cells of many tissues
E) None of the choices

A

ABC / Epithelial cell membranes of many tissues as well as in exocrine glands, such as pancreas

37
Q

Which ions can pass through the membranes either by primary active transport or secondary active
transport?
A) K+ ions
B) HCO-3 ions
C) Na+ ions
D) Cl- ions
E) Ca+2 ions

A

Ca+2 ions

38
Q

Which step of glycolysis does fructose bypass?
A) Phosphoglycerate kinase
B) Pyruvate kinase
C) Phosphofructokinase
D) Enolase
E) Phosphoglycerate mutase

A

Phosphofructokinase

39
Q

In gluconcogenesis, in the conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphenolpyruvate step ____________ is the phosphoryl group donor.
A) ATP
B) GDP
C) GTP
D) Pi
E) ADP

A

GTP

40
Q

Find the false statement about regulation of gluconeogenesis
A) High levels of AMP, ADP inhibit Fructose-1,6-biphosphatase
B) High levels of citrate, NADH, AJP stimulate Fructose-1.6-biphosphatase
C) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) and Pyruvate carboxylase are inhibited by AMP and
ADP
D) Acetyl-CoA and long-chain fatty acids stimulate pyruvate carboxylase
E) Alanine and glucagon both inhibit pyruvate carboxylase

A

Alanine and glucagon both inhibit pyruvate carboxylase

41
Q

Find the false statement about Oxaloacetate. It is
A) the main molecule over which gluconeogenesis occurs
B) produced from pyruvate
C) produced from glucogenic amino acids which yield the intermediates of TCA Cycle
D) produced from propionate over succinate
E) produced from glycerol

A

produced from glycerol

42
Q

Find the false statement about delivery of cytosolic hydrogen atoms of glycolysis to the Respiratory chain
A) Hydrogen atoms originate from Glyceraldehyde-3-P-dehydrogenase step
B) In liver, these atoms are delivered to the Respiratory Chain over cytosolic malate dehydrogenase:
and mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase by malate-aspartate shuttle
C) In glycerol-3-P shuttle, GPT reactions occur both in mitosol and cytosol
D) In muscles, these atoms are delivered to the Respiratory chain by glyecrol-3-P dehydrogenase
E) In Malate-aspantate shuttle, AST (GOT) reactions occur both in mitosol and in cytosol

A

In glycerol-3-P shuttle, GPT reactions occur both in mitosol and cytosol

43
Q

Find the false statement about glycogenolysis
A) Glucagon regulates glycogenolysis in liver over cAMP by activation of kinases so that glycogen
phosphorylase (phosphorylase) becomes active
B) Phosphorylase a releases Glucose-1-P molecules from glycogen
C) Phosphorylase is active with phosphoryl group
D) Phosphoprotein phosphatase-1 activates phosphorylase
E) Glycogenolysis in liver ends up with production of free glucoses due the presence of glucose-6-
phosphatase

A

Phosphoprotein phosphatase-1 activates phosphorylase

44
Q

____________ from extrahepatic tissues is carried to liver by Cori cycle. This cycle is very important mainly for _________ under every feeding conditions.
A) Lactic acid / leukocytes
B) Lactic acid / erythrocytes
C) Pyruvic acid / leukocytes
D) Pyruvic acid / erythrocytes
E) Alanine / muscles

A

Lactic acid / erythrocytes

45
Q

GLUT-5 allows ___________ by transport __________
A) Passage of glucose from enterocytes to blood / Primary active
B) Absorption of galactose into enterocytes / Passive
C) Absorption of fructose into enterocytes / Passive
D) Passage of glucose into erythrocytes / Secondary active transport
E) Absorption of fructose into enterocytes / Secondary Active

A

Absorption of fructose into enterocytes / Passive

46
Q

Which enzyme is required for conversion of glucose to galactose as well as the reversible reaction?
A) Undine diphosphogalactose 4-autase
B) Glucose epimerase
C) Galactose reductase I
D) Undine diphosphogalactose 4-epimerase
E) Glucose dehydrogenase

A

Undine diphosphogalactose 4-epimerase

47
Q

2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) shunt requires the enzyme / enzymes.
A) BPG mutase
B) BPG mutase and BPG phosphatase
C) BPG aldolase end BPG enolase
D) BPG phosphatase
E) BPG phosphatase and BPG lyase

A

BPG mutase and BPG phosphatase

48
Q

Glycealdehyde-3-P produced in Pentose phosphate pathway in liver may be used as source for _______
A) Glycogenolysis
B) Reduction of glycerol
C) Fructose production
D) Sorbitol production
E) Gluconeogenesis

A

Gluconeogenesis

49
Q

Type 1 glycogenosis is called _________ and the deficient enzyme is ____________
A) von Gierke’s disease / Phosphorylase
B) Cori’s discase / Debranching enzyme
C) Cori’s disease / Phosphorylase kinase
D) von Gicker’s disease / Glucose-6-phosphatase
E) Pompe’s discase / Debranching enzyme

A

von Gicker’s disease / Glucose-6-phosphatase

50
Q

The function of aldolase is ……..
A) To split Fructose-1 6-biphosphate into Glyceraldehyde-3-P and dihydroxyacetone
B) To combine Glyceraldehyde-3-P with dihydroxyacetone
C) To hydrolyze Fructose-16-biphosphate Glyceraldehyde-3-P and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
D) To split Fructose-1,6-biphosphate into Glyceraldehyde-3-P and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
E) To carboxylate Glyceraldehyde-3-P

A

To split Fructose-1,6-biphosphate into Glyceraldehyde-3-P and dihydroxyacetone phosphate

51
Q

_____________ step /steps of glycolysis occur both under aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
A) Glyceraldehyde-3-P dehydrogenase
B) Phosphoglycerate kinase and Pyruvate kinase
C) Glyceraldehyde-3-P dehydrogenase and Phosphoglycerate kinase
D) Pyruvate kinase and Glyceraldehyde-3-P dehydrogenase
E) Glucose-6-phosphatase

A

Phosphoglycerate kinase and Pyruvate kinase

52
Q

NADPH - H + (reducing equivalents) provided by pentose phosphate pathway are used in all of the
below conditions, EXCEPT ____________
A) Syntheses where reduction reactions are required
B) Hydroxylation reactions
C) ATP synthesis
D) Antioxidant activity of glutathione peroxidase
E) Respiratory burst

A

ATP synthesis

53
Q

Which compound does provide ATP during muscle contraction and which enzyme does catalyze the reaction?
A) Creatine phosphate / Creatine kinase
B) Creatine / Creatine kinase
C) Phosphocreatine / Creatine mutase
D) Creatine / Creatine mutase
E) Phosphocreatine / Creatine phosphorylase

A

Creatine phosphate / Creatine kinase

54
Q

Which statement below is not correct? Please choose the best option.
A) Plasmids are divided independently.
B) Bacterial DNA doesn’t have introns.
C) Restriction endonucleases cleave their recognition sequences at staggered sites.
D) Only DNA could be cloned.
E) Bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) vectors are derived from a naturally occurring plasmid of E. coli (the F factor).

A

Only DNA could be cloned.

55
Q

For which restriction enzyme “AAGCTT” is the recognition site? Please choose the best option.
A) HindIII
B) Notl
C) Hpall
D) Tagl
E) Baxlll

A

HindIII

56
Q

Which of the following statements is not true for mitochondrial genome?
A) The mitochondrial genome is the full genetic complement of a mitochondrion.
B) Human mitochondrial DNA contains introns.
C) Mitochondrial DNA is only a small portion of the total DNA of a eukaryotic cell.
D) In most species Mitochondrial DNA is solely inherited from the mother.
E) In human mitochondrial DNA contains approximately 16,600 base pairs.

A

Human mitochondrial DNA contains introns. they lack introns.

57
Q

Which of the statements is not true concerning Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)?
A) SNPs are the key enablers in realizing the concept of personalized medicine.
B) SNPs in humans can affect the onset of several diseases.
C) SNPs in humans can affect immunologic response to pathogens.
D) SNPs in humans can affect response to vaccines.
E) SNPs in humans always have the same frequency in different ethnic groups.

A

SNPs in humans always have the same frequency in different ethnic groups.

58
Q

Please fill the blank with the correct option. ______________ has created the field of genomics-
understanding genetic material on a large scale. As a result of this expansion of genomics into humans
health applications, the field of genomic medicine was born.
A) The Human mRNA Vaccination Project (HMP)
B) The Human Cloning Project (HCP)
C) The Human Proteomics Project (HPP)
D) The Human Genome Project (HGP)
E) The Human Stem Cell Project (HSCP)

A

The Human Genome Project (HGP)

59
Q

Which of the following is not account for a goal of Human Genome Project?
A) It identified all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes in human DNA.
B) It determined the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base pairs that make up human DNA.
C) It transferred related technologies to the private sector.
D) It improved tools for data analysis.
E) It had used conventional techniques for DNA sequencing.

A

It had used conventional techniques for DNA sequencing.

60
Q

Please fill in the blank with the correct option. The set of all messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, or
____________ produced in one or a population of cells.
A) Transcripts
B) Proteoscripts
C) Metabolomics
D) Proteomics
E) Phenomescripts

A

Transcripts

61
Q

Please fill the blank with the correct option. Approximately ________ of genome codes for proteins. Other parts of genome vital for genome structural integrity and regulation.
A) 1.5%
B) 5%
C) 15%
D) 50%
E) 95%

A

1.5%

62
Q

Which of the following is not a practical benefit of learning about DNA?
A) It provides knowledge about the effects of DNA variations among individuals.
B) It provides new ways to diagnose and treat diseases.
C) It could prevent the thousands of disorders
D) It could reduce the understanding of the molecular system in cell.
E) It helps solve challenges in health care.

A

It could reduce the understanding of the molecular system in cell.

63
Q

The definition “the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified population, and the application of this study to control of health problems” refers to,
A) Medicine
B) Clinical medicine
C) Epidemiology
D) Social survey
E) Observations

A

Epidemiology

64
Q

An analytical study is called as _____________ if it is referenced about a point in time.
A) Cross-sectional Study
B) Cohort Study
C) Social Survey
D) Case-Control Study
E) Medicine

A

Cross-sectional Study

65
Q

Proximate components of disease causality refer to ________
A) social mechanism of disease
B) cultural mechanisms of disease
C) environmental mechanisms of disease
D) biological mechanisms of disease
E) historical evolution of disease

A

biological mechanisms of disease

66
Q

Which one cannot be called an observational study?
A) Cross-sectional Study
B) Experimental Studies
C) Case Control Studies
D) Cohort Studies
E) None of them

A

Experimental Studies

67
Q

Choice of Study Design may depend on,
A) Research Questions
B) Research Goals
C) Researcher’s Skills
D) Time and Funds
E) All of them

A

All of them

68
Q

Which one is False?
A) Total probability of sample space is equal to 1
B) Probability of an event must be between 0 and 1
C) Point and cumulative probabilities of a discrete variable can be calculated
D) Joint probability means the intersection probability of two or more variables
E) Point and cumulative probabilities of a continuous variable can be calculated

A

Point and cumulative probabilities of a continuous variable can be calculated

69
Q

Which eating disorder is characterized by binge eating followed by measures to purge the body of the
excess calories?
A) Binge eating disorder
B) Bulimia nervosa
C) Anorexia nervosa
D) Somatization disorders
E) Insomnia

A

Bulimia nervosa

70
Q

___________ are socially learned programs of sexual responsiveness that include prescriptions of what
to do; when, where, and how to do it: with whom or with what to do it: and why it should be done.
A) Sexual scripts
B) Homosexuality
C) Human sexuality
D) Pheromones
E) Sexual drive

A

Sexual scripts

71
Q

Which of the following suggests that the speaker is making the fundamental attribution error?
A) “If I had not gotten married and had children. I could have had an exciting carcer.”
B) “Politics and religion cause more problems than they solve.”
C) “People do not conserve energy in this country because it is still relatively inexpensive.”
D) “The guy at the next table did not leave a tip for the waitress because he is a bad man.”
E) “Tennis players cannot perform well today because weather is too hot”

A

“The guy at the next table did not leave a tip for the waitress because he is a bad man.”

72
Q

While watching one of Shakespeare’s plays, you notice that Lady Macbeth seems to have an anxiety
disorder. In one scene, she repeatedly washes nonexistent blood of her hands. If you were to adopt a
psychodynamic explanation for her behavior, you might suggest that
A) her parents consistently reinforced cleanliness in her childhood.
B) she is suffering from a neurological disorder.
C) her behavior is a consequence of an evolutionary predisposition.
D) it is a blood phobia.
E) Her hand washing is a symbolic representation of an underlying conflict.

A

Her hand washing is a symbolic representation of an underlying conflict.

73
Q

With respect to the criteria used to label behavior as “abnormal,”
A) none of the criteria are necessary conditions shared by all cases of abnormality.
B) only the criterion of “statistical rarity” is common to all cases of abnormal behavior.
C) only the criterion of “personal distress or disabled functioning” is a necessary condition shared by.
all cases of abnormality.
D) the criterion of “Mal adaptiveness” is a sufficient condition, but not a necessary condition shared by
all cases of abnormality.
E) the criterion of “irrationality” is a sufficient condition, but not a necessary condition shared by all
cases of abnormality.

A

none of the criteria are necessary conditions shared by all cases of abnormality.

74
Q

Which statement best captures Maslow ‘s theory of motivation as covered in the class?
A) The theory is not useful in helping people to understand different aspects of their motivational
experiences.
B) Sell-actualization is not possible.
C) Although the theory is a positive one, its strict hierarchy may break down in some circumstances.
D) Maslow’ theory presents a view of human nature that is too downbeat and pessimistic.
E) The only aspect of the theory that has been supported is the idea of a strict hierarchy of needs.

A

Although the theory is a positive one, its strict hierarchy may break down in some circumstances.

75
Q

Imagine that you have been asked to diffuse the tension and conflict between two rival neighborhood
groups. If you were to apply findings in the Robbers Cave study to your situation, you would:
A) encourage the spread of positive rumors about the opposing groups.
B) promise the group leaders monetary rewards if they can keep the conflict down between the rival groups.
C) establish an all-night basketball league and have the groups compete against one another.
D) engage the groups in cooperative action in pursuit of shared goals.
E) ask them to stop rivalry

A

engage the groups in cooperative action in pursuit of shared goals.

76
Q

Which of the following scenarios is an example of instrumental aggression?
A) The teacher becomes angry at her class and throws an eraser at one child.
B) A girl hits a boy because the boy is calling her names.
C) A group of adolescents ridicules the least popular kid in their class.
D) A man gets mad after missing the bus
E) A hockey player injures an opponent so that his own team will win the game.

A

A hockey player injures an opponent so that his own team will win the game.

77
Q

In Solomon Asch’s experiment, most of the participants:
A) immediately realized that the other “participants” were actually confederates.
B) conformed all of the time.
C) did not conform to the group pressure.
D) conformed some of the time
E) quitted the experiment

A

conformed some of the time

78
Q

This therapy method is designed to reduce the irrational feelings a person has assigned to an object or situation by safely experiencing various aspects of that fear. For example, while working with someone who has a fear of spiders —arachnophobia—a therapist might first ask the person to picture a spider in his or her mind. This might lead to several sessions in which the therapist asks the person to imagine more
intense scenes with the spider, all while teaching coping skills and providing support. Once the anxiety response is reduced, the therapist may progress to real life setting. In this type of method, the therapist might start by placing a contained spider at the far end of the room and lead up to placing the spider in the person’s hand. Name of the method
A) Cognitive restructuring.
B) Exposure therapy
C) Behavioral confirmation
D) Catharsis
E) Cognitive-behavioral therapy

A

Exposure therapy

79
Q

A man feels as though his life is like a rollercoaster. He goes through periods of severe depression that alternate with manic episodes. These symptoms are most similar to those found in
A) dissociative disorder.
B) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) panic disorder.
E) hypochondriasis.

A

bipolar disorder.

80
Q

Mental disorders are best thought of as
A) syndromes that are no longer considered valid by most of the scientific community.
B) separate and distinct categories of mental illnesses.
C) conditions that have a biological reality in the brain.
D) conditions that vary on a continuum from mental health to mental illness.
E) conditions that is very dangerous for patient

A

conditions that vary on a continuum from mental health to mental illness.

81
Q

Cognitive therapy is to behavior therapy as
A) outside is to inside.
B) leader is to follower
C) moods are to feelings.
D) thoughts are to actions
E) unconscious to conscious

A

thoughts are to actions

Committee Exam 4 (35 decks)

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