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Committee Exam 4 > TEST 7 > Flashcards

TEST 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects which body system?
a) Respiratory system
b) Digestive system
c) Cardiovascular system
d) Musculoskeletal system

A

Respiratory system

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2
Q

Which gene mutation is responsible for causing cystic fibrosis?
a) BRCA1
b) TP53
c) CFTR
d) APOE

A

CFTR

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3
Q

How is cystic fibrosis inherited?
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X-linked recessive
d) Mitochondrial inheritance

A

Autosomal recessive

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4
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of cystic fibrosis?
a) Chronic cough
b) Enlarged liver
c) Irregular heartbeat
d) Vision loss

A

Chronic cough

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5
Q

Cystic fibrosis affects primarily which ethnic group?
a) Asian
b) African
c) Hispanic
d) Caucasian

A

Caucasian

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6
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the ___________________ gene.

A

CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator)

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7
Q

The thick mucus produced in cystic fibrosis can obstruct the ________________ ducts.

A

Pancreatic

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8
Q

Cystic fibrosis patients often require ________________ supplementation to aid digestion.

A

Enzyme

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9
Q

The sweat of individuals with cystic fibrosis has a higher concentration of ________________.

A

Salt (sodium chloride)

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10
Q

The sweat test is a diagnostic method used to measure the levels of ________________ in individuals suspected of having cystic fibrosis.

A

Chloride

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11
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a curable disease. True or false?

A

False

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12
Q

Cystic fibrosis affects only the lungs. True or false?

A

False

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13
Q

All individuals with cystic fibrosis have the same severity of symptoms. True or false?

A

False

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14
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by exposure to environmental toxins. True or false?

A

False

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15
Q

Cystic fibrosis can be diagnosed prenatally through genetic testing. True or false?

A

True

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16
Q

What is the average life expectancy of individuals with cystic fibrosis?
a) 30-40 years
b) 50-60 years
c) 70-80 years
d) 90-100 years

A

50-60 years

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17
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly affected by cystic fibrosis?
a) Kidneys
b) Lungs
c) Heart
d) Stomach

A

Lungs

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18
Q

Which type of cystic fibrosis is characterized by milder symptoms and a later onset?
a) Classic CF
b) Atypical CF
c) Late-onset CF
d) Variant CF

A

Atypical CF

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19
Q

What is the main cause of death in individuals with cystic fibrosis?
a) Respiratory failure
b) Liver failure
c) Kidney failure
d) Heart failure

A

Respiratory failure

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing cystic fibrosis?
a) Family history of CF
b) Being a carrier of the CF gene
c) Exposure to cigarette smoke
d) Consuming a diet high in sugar

A

Consuming a diet high in sugar

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21
Q

The first gene associated with cystic fibrosis was identified in ___________.

A

1989

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22
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by the production of thick, sticky ___________.

A

Mucus

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23
Q

The ___________________ sweat test is the gold standard for diagnosing cystic fibrosis.

A

Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis

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24
Q

The majority of cystic fibrosis cases are diagnosed in ___________.

A

Childhood

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25
Q

Lung transplantation may be a treatment option for individuals with end-stage ___________ disease.

A

Pulmonary

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26
Q

How is cystic fibrosis typically diagnosed?
a) Blood test
b) Chest X-ray
c) Lung biopsy
d) Sweat test

A

Sweat test

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of cystic fibrosis?
a) Chronic cough
b) Rapid weight gain
c) Bulky stool
d) Salty tasting skin

A

Rapid weight gain

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28
Q

What is the most common complication associated with cystic fibrosis?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Liver cirrhosis
c) Heart disease
d) Lung infections

A

Lung infections

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29
Q

Which of the following is a preventive measure for cystic fibrosis-related complications?
a) Regular exercise
b) Avoiding dairy products
c) Avoiding close contact with animals
d) Genetic counseling and testing

A

Genetic counseling and testing

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30
Q

What is the primary goal of cystic fibrosis treatment?
a) Cure the disease
b) Manage symptoms
c) Prevent complications
d) Reverse lung damage

A

Prevent complications

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31
Q

The thick mucus in cystic fibrosis can lead to ________________.

A

Lung infections

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32
Q

The gold standard for diagnosing cystic fibrosis is a positive result in the ________________ sweat test.

A

Chloride

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33
Q

In cystic fibrosis, the pancreas fails to produce enough ________________.

A

Enzymes

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34
Q

________________ therapy helps to clear mucus from the lungs in individuals with cystic fibrosis.

A

Chest physiotherapy

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35
Q

Cystic fibrosis affects approximately ________________ in every 2,500 to 3,500 Caucasian births.

A

1

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36
Q

Cystic fibrosis affects both males and females equally. True or false?

A

True

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37
Q

Lung transplantation is a potential treatment option for end-stage cystic fibrosis. True or false?

A

True

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38
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by a bacterial infection. True or false?

A

False

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39
Q

Exercise is not recommended for individuals with cystic fibrosis. True or false?

A

False

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40
Q

Newborn screening can help detect cystic fibrosis early. True or false?

A

True

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41
Q

Which of the following organs is commonly affected by cystic fibrosis, leading to digestive problems?
a) Liver
b) Pancreas
c) Kidneys
d) Spleen

A

Pancreas

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42
Q

What type of therapy involves inhaling a mist of salty water to help clear mucus from the airways?
a) Oxygen therapy
b) Gene therapy
c) Pulmonary rehabilitation
d) Nebulized therapy

A

Nebulized therapy

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43
Q

Which of the following is a potential complication of cystic fibrosis in males?
a) Infertility
b) Ovarian cysts
c) Uterine fibroids
d) Breast cancer

A

Infertility

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44
Q

Which of the following medications is commonly used to thin mucus and improve lung function in individuals with cystic fibrosis?
a) Insulin
b) Antibiotics
c) Bronchodilators
d) Corticosteroids

A

Bronchodilators

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45
Q

What is the average age of diagnosis for cystic fibrosis?
a) Birth
b) 2 years
c) 10 years
d) 18 years

A

2 years

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46
Q

The most common mutation in cystic fibrosis is known as ________________.

A

F508del (phenylalanine deletion)

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47
Q

Cystic fibrosis can lead to malnutrition and ________________.

A

Failure to thrive

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48
Q

The introduction of ________________ in the 1950s significantly improved the survival rates for individuals with cystic fibrosis.

A

Antibiotics

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49
Q

The median predicted survival age for individuals with cystic fibrosis is currently around ________________ years.

A

40

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50
Q

All surgeries for cystic fibrosis are very dangerous due to post-operative complications. True or false?

A

True

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51
Q

Enzymes are a type of:
a) Carbohydrate
b) Protein
c) Lipid
d) Nucleic acid

A

Protein

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52
Q

Enzymes function as:
a) Catalysts
b) Energy sources
c) Structural components
d) Genetic material

A

Catalysts

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53
Q

The specific region of an enzyme where a substrate binds is called the:
a) Active site
b) Inactive site
c) Binding site
d) Substrate site

A

Active site

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54
Q

Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by:
a) Decreasing temperature
b) Increasing pH
c) Lowering activation energy
d) Increasing substrate concentration

A

Lowering activation energy

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55
Q

Enzymes are highly specific in their catalytic activity due to:
a) Size
b) Shape
c) Charge
d) Temperature

A

Shape

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56
Q

The lock and key model and the induced fit model are two models used to explain:
a) Enzyme inhibition
b) Enzyme denaturation
c) Enzyme kinetics
d) Enzyme-substrate interaction

A

Enzyme-substrate interaction

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57
Q

Enzymes are usually named by adding the suffix:
a) “-ase”
b) “-ose”
c) “-ide”
d) “-ine”

A

“-ase”

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58
Q

Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Substrate concentration
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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59
Q

Enzymes are commonly classified into several classes based on their:
a) Size
b) Shape
c) Function
d) Charge

A

Function

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60
Q

Enzyme activity can be regulated by:
a) Allosteric regulation
b) Competitive inhibition
c) Covalent modification
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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61
Q

Enzymes are composed of ________________ chains.

A

Polypeptide

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62
Q

The ________________ is the substance on which an enzyme acts.

A

Substrate

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63
Q

Enzymes can be denatured by extreme ________________ and pH.

A

Temperature

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64
Q

Enzymes are reusable and can catalyze ________________ reactions.

A

Multiple

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65
Q

Enzymes can be affected by ________________ and non-competitive inhibitors.

A

Competitive

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66
Q

Enzymes can only catalyze reactions in one direction. True or false?

A

False

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67
Q

Enzymes are consumed during the catalytic process. True or false?

A

False

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68
Q

Enzymes function optimally at any pH value. True or false?

A

False

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69
Q

Enzymes are specific to one type of substrate. True or false?

A

True

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70
Q

Enzymes can function under extreme temperature conditions. True or false?

A

False

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71
Q

Enzymes are classified as:
a) Organic compounds
b) Inorganic compounds
c) Macromolecules
d) Small molecules

A

Macromolecules

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72
Q

The activity of enzymes can be influenced by:
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Inhibitors
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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73
Q

Enzymes work by:
a) Increasing the concentration of reactants
b) Lowering the activation energy
c) Increasing the concentration of products
d) Decreasing the rate of reaction

A

Lowering the activation energy

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74
Q

Enzymes function best within a specific:
a) pH range
b) Temperature range
c) Pressure range
d) Ionic strength range

A

pH range

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75
Q

Enzymes can be found in:
a) Animals
b) Plants
c) Microorganisms
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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76
Q

Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by lowering the ________________.

A

Activation energy

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77
Q

The reactant that an enzyme acts upon is known as the ________________.

A

Substrate

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78
Q

Enzymes can be inhibited by the binding of ________________ to the active site.

A

Inhibitors

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79
Q

The study of enzymes is known as ________________.

A

Enzymology

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80
Q

Enzymes are involved in various biological processes such as ________________ and metabolism.

A

Digestion

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81
Q

Activation energy is:
a) The energy required for an enzyme to function
b) The energy required to start a chemical reaction
c) The energy released during a chemical reaction
d) The energy stored in an enzyme

A

The energy required to start a chemical reaction

82
Q

The transition state in a chemical reaction is:
a) The state where reactants are at their highest energy level
b) The state where reactants are at their lowest energy level
c) The state where products are at their highest energy level
d) The state where products are at their lowest energy level

A

The state where reactants are at their highest energy level

83
Q

Chymotrypsin is an example of a:
a) Lipase
b) Protease
c) Amylase
d) Polymerase

A

Protease

84
Q

Prosthetic groups are:
a) Small inorganic molecules required for enzyme activity
b) Small organic molecules required for enzyme activity
c) Large protein components of enzymes
d) Active sites on enzymes

A

Small organic molecules required for enzyme activity

85
Q

Coenzymes are:
a) Non-protein organic molecules required for enzyme activity
b) Small inorganic molecules required for enzyme activity
c) Large protein components of enzymes
d) Active sites on enzymes

A

Non-protein organic molecules required for enzyme activity

86
Q

Cofactors are:
a) Non-protein organic molecules required for enzyme activity
b) Small inorganic molecules required for enzyme activity
c) Large protein components of enzymes
d) Active sites on enzymes

A

Small inorganic molecules required for enzyme activity

87
Q

Allosteric regulation is:
a) The regulation of enzyme activity by binding of a molecule at a site other than the active site
b) The regulation of enzyme activity by binding of a molecule at the active site
c) The regulation of enzyme activity by changes in temperature
d) The regulation of enzyme activity by changes in pH

A

The regulation of enzyme activity by binding of a molecule at a site other than the active site

88
Q

Phosphorylation is:
a) The addition of a phosphate group to an enzyme or substrate
b) The removal of a phosphate group from an enzyme or substrate
c) The process of converting an enzyme into an inactive form
d) The process of converting an enzyme into an active form

A

The addition of a phosphate group to an enzyme or substrate

89
Q

An enzyme that requires a metal ion as a cofactor is called a:
a) Metalloenzyme
b) Prosthetic enzyme
c) Coenzyme
d) Holoenzyme

A

Metalloenzyme

90
Q

Which of the following is an example of an allosteric enzyme?
a) Hexokinase
b) Chymotrypsin
c) Catalase
d) DNA polymerase

A

Catalase

91
Q

Enzymes lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction by ________________ the transition state.

A

Stabilizing

92
Q

Allosteric regulation can result in either ________________ or ________________ of enzyme activity.

A

Activation, inhibition

93
Q

Enzymes are consumed during a chemical reaction and need to be replenished. True or false?

A

False

94
Q

Enzymes increase the equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction. True or false?

A

False

95
Q

Chymotrypsin is an enzyme involved in the digestion of carbohydrates. True or false?

A

False

96
Q

Coenzymes are proteins required for enzyme activity. True or false?

A

False

97
Q

Allosteric regulation can modulate enzyme activity to respond to cellular needs. True or false?

A

True

98
Q

The active site of an enzyme is:
a) The region where the enzyme binds to the substrate
b) The region where allosteric regulators bind
c) The region responsible for cofactor binding
d) The region involved in catalysis

A

The region involved in catalysis

99
Q

The pH at which an enzyme exhibits maximum activity is called the:
a) Optimal pH
b) Active pH
c) Substrate pH
d) Enzyme pH

A

Optimal pH

100
Q

Enzyme-substrate specificity is determined by:
a) The shape of the enzyme
b) The charge of the enzyme
c) The size of the enzyme
d) The temperature of the enzyme

A

The shape of the enzyme

101
Q

Competitive inhibitors bind to the ________________ of an enzyme.
a) Active site
b) Allosteric site
c) Cofactor site
d) Transition state

A

Active site

102
Q

Phosphorylation is a common post-translational modification that can regulate enzyme activity by adding a ________________ group.

A

Phosphate

103
Q

The induced fit model of enzyme-substrate interaction suggests that:
a) Enzymes and substrates have a perfect fit at the active site.
b) Enzymes undergo conformational changes upon substrate binding.
c) Enzymes are rigid structures that do not change shape.
d) Enzymes and substrates interact through non-specific electrostatic interactions.

A

Enzymes undergo conformational changes upon substrate binding.

104
Q

According to the induced fit model, the active site of an enzyme:
a) Remains unchanged during the catalytic process.
b) Only binds to substrates of a specific size and shape.
c) Adapts its shape to accommodate the substrate.
d) Binds to the substrate irreversibly.

A

Adapts its shape to accommodate the substrate.

105
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder that affects the metabolism of:
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Fats
d) Nucleic acids

A

Proteins

106
Q

Phenylketonuria is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme:
a) Phenylalanine synthase
b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
c) Phenylalanine deaminase
d) Phenylalanine oxidase

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

107
Q

In Phenylketonuria, the accumulation of phenylalanine in the body can lead to:
a) Brain damage
b) Heart disease
c) Liver failure
d) Kidney dysfunction

A

Brain damage

108
Q

Phenylketonuria can be diagnosed through:
a) Genetic testing
b) Blood tests
c) Urine tests
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

109
Q

The primary treatment for Phenylketonuria is:
a) Restricting dietary intake of phenylalanine
b) Increasing dietary intake of phenylalanine
c) Supplementation with phenylalanine hydroxylase
d) None of the above

A

Restricting dietary intake of phenylalanine

110
Q

The induced fit model suggests that the active site of an enzyme undergoes ________________ changes upon substrate binding.

A

Conformational

111
Q

The basic structural and functional unit of life is the:
a) Tissue
b) Organ
c) Cell
d) Organ system

A

Cell

112
Q

Which of the following is not considered an organelle?
a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Nucleus
d) Ribosome

A

Ribosome

113
Q

The “powerhouse” of the cell, responsible for generating energy, is the:
a) Nucleus
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Mitochondria
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

A

Mitochondria

114
Q

Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?
a) Nucleus
b) Ribosome
c) Lysosome
d) Vacuole

A

Ribosome

115
Q

The organelle that stores genetic material and controls cellular activities is the:
a) Nucleus
b) Chloroplast
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Centriole

A

Nucleus

116
Q

The majority of the cell membrane is composed of:
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Nucleic acids

A

Lipids

117
Q

Which of the following is not a type of lipid found in the cell membrane?
a) Phospholipids
b) Cholesterol
c) Triglycerides
d) Glycolipids

A

Triglycerides

118
Q

The cell membrane is primarily composed of a bilayer of:
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Nucleic acids

A

Lipids

119
Q

The function of the cell membrane is to:
a) Regulate the movement of substances into and out of the cell
b) Store genetic material
c) Produce energy
d) Synthesize proteins

A

Regulate the movement of substances into and out of the cell

120
Q

The cell membrane is selectively permeable, allowing some substances to pass while restricting others. True or False?

A

True

121
Q

The cell membrane is composed of a variety of ________________ and ________________ substances.

A

Organic, inorganic

122
Q

________________ are the building blocks of proteins.

A

Amino acids

123
Q

Carbohydrates play a role in cell recognition and cell-______________ interactions.

A

Adhesion

124
Q

The cell membrane acts as a barrier between the cell’s ________________ and its external environment.

A

Cytoplasm

125
Q

The cell membrane is a rigid structure that does not allow flexibility. True or false?

A

False

126
Q

Lipids are insoluble in water. True or false?

A

True

127
Q

Proteins are the primary components of the cell membrane. True or false?

A

True

128
Q

Carbohydrates are only found in the cytoplasm of the cell. True or false?

A

False

129
Q

The cell membrane is responsible for maintaining the shape of the cell. True or false?

A

True

130
Q

The organelle responsible for detoxification and lipid metabolism in the cell is the:
a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosome
c) Peroxisome
d) Vacuole

A

Peroxisome

131
Q

Which organelle is responsible for packaging and sorting proteins for transport within the cell?
a) Golgi apparatus
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Nucleus
d) Chloroplast

A

Golgi apparatus

132
Q

The cytoskeleton provides structural support and helps with cell movement. True or false?

A

True

133
Q

The ________________ is a network of protein fibers that maintains cell shape and assists in cell movement.

A

Cytoskeleton

134
Q

The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as:
a) A rigid and immovable structure
b) A mosaic of carbohydrates and lipids
c) A dynamic and fluid structure with embedded proteins
d) A model of fluid motion within the cytoplasm

A

A dynamic and fluid structure with embedded proteins

135
Q

_____________ is a field of biology that has practical applications in medicine, health care and laboratory diagnostics.

A

Medical biology

136
Q

________ is NOT a branch of Medical Biology?
a) Biophysics
b) Statistics
c) Biochemistry
d) Embryology

A

Statistics

137
Q

The branch of biology that studies the structure, function, and behavior of cells is called?

A

Cytology

138
Q

An organelle is a specialized subunit, usually within a cell, that has a specific function. True or false?

A

True

139
Q

What are the two types of organelles?

A
  1. Membrane bound
  2. Non-membrane bound
140
Q

_________ has the highest percentage in cell composition.

A

Water (70%)

141
Q

Hydrophilic means _________

A

Water loving

142
Q

Hydrophobic means ________

A

Water fearing

143
Q

Membranous proteins can function as:
a) Enzymes
b) Transporters
c) Receptors
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

144
Q

Which type of membranous protein aids in cell-cell communication?
a) Enzymes
b) Transporters
c) Receptors
d) Anchoring proteins

A

Receptors

145
Q

The cell membrane is selectively permeable, meaning it:
a) Allows any substance to freely pass through
b) Allows only small molecules to pass through
c) Allows only water molecules to pass through
d) Allows certain substances to pass while restricting others

A

Allows certain substances to pass while restricting others

146
Q

Which of the following molecules can directly diffuse through the cell membrane?
a) Glucose
b) Sodium ions
c) Oxygen
d) Proteins

A

Oxygen

147
Q

The cell membrane is impermeable and does not allow any molecules to pass through. True or false?

A

False

148
Q

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is known as:
a) Active transport
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Osmosis
d) Exocytosis

A

Osmosis

149
Q

Membrane transport channels facilitate the movement of ions or molecules by:
a) Active transport
b) Endocytosis
c) Passive diffusion
d) Facilitated diffusion

A

Facilitated diffusion

150
Q

Which of the following is an example of a passive transport mechanism?
a) Active transport
b) Endocytosis
c) Facilitated diffusion
d) Phagocytosis

A

Facilitated diffusion

151
Q

Membrane transport channels are specific to certain molecules or ions. True or false?

A

True

152
Q

The fluid mosaic model suggests that the cell membrane is composed of a ________________ bilayer.

A

Phospholipid

153
Q

Membranous proteins are embedded within the lipid bilayer and can span the entire ________________ of the membrane.

A

Thickness

154
Q

The selective permeability of the cell membrane allows for the regulation of ________________ composition within the cell.

A

Ion

155
Q

Osmosis is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of ________________ concentration to an area of lower concentration.

A

Higher

156
Q

Membrane transport channels act as ________________ for the movement of specific molecules or ions across the cell membrane.

A

Pathways

157
Q

The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as a static and unchanging structure. True or false?

A

False

158
Q

Membranous proteins are only involved in enzymatic reactions. True or false?

A

False

159
Q

The cell membrane is freely permeable to all substances. True or false?

A

False

160
Q

Osmosis requires the expenditure of energy by the cell. True or false?

A

False

161
Q

Membrane transport channels assist in the movement of substances across the cell membrane. True or false?

A

True

162
Q

Which of the following is an example of active transport?
a) Facilitated diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Sodium-potassium pump
d) Simple diffusion

A

Sodium-potassium pump

163
Q

Endocytosis is a cellular process that involves:
a) Movement of molecules out of the cell
b) Movement of molecules into the cell
c) Breakdown of cellular waste
d) Synthesis of proteins

A

Movement of molecules into the cell

164
Q

Pinocytosis is a form of endocytosis that involves:
a) Engulfing large solid particles
b) Engulfing liquid droplets
c) Engulfing bacteria
d) Engulfing oxygen molecules

A

Engulfing liquid droplets

165
Q

Phagocytosis is a form of endocytosis that involves:
a) Engulfing large solid particles
b) Engulfing liquid droplets
c) Engulfing bacteria
d) Engulfing oxygen molecules

A

Engulfing large solid particles

166
Q

The cellular organelle that contains the genetic material and controls cell activities is the:
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Nucleus
d) Lysosome

A

Nucleus

167
Q

The nucleolus is a substructure within the nucleus that is responsible for:
a) Protein synthesis
b) Lipid metabolism
c) Ribosome assembly
d) ATP production

A

Ribosome assembly

168
Q

The nuclear pore complex is responsible for:
a) Regulating the movement of substances into and out of the nucleus
b) Synthesizing proteins
c) Breaking down cellular waste
d) Generating energy

A

Regulating the movement of substances into and out of the nucleus

169
Q

Karyopherins are proteins involved in:
a) Endocytosis
b) Phagocytosis
c) Nucleus structure
d) Nuclear transport

A

Nuclear transport

170
Q

Endocytosis is an active process that requires energy expenditure by the cell. True or False?

A

True

171
Q

Pinocytosis primarily involves the uptake of:
a) Large particles
b) Small molecules
c) Bacteria
d) Oxygen molecules

A

Small molecules

172
Q

Phagocytosis is mainly performed by:
a) Animal cells
b) Plant cells
c) Bacterial cells
d) Fungal cells

A

Animal cells

173
Q

The ________________ is a membrane-bound organelle that houses the genetic material in eukaryotic cells.

A

Nucleus

174
Q

The ________________ is a region within the nucleus where ribosomes are assembled.

A

Nucleolus

175
Q

The ________________ is a complex structure that regulates the passage of molecules in and out of the nucleus.

A

Nuclear pore complex

176
Q

________________ are proteins involved in the transport of molecules into and out of the nucleus.

A

Karyopherins

177
Q

During endocytosis, the plasma membrane forms a ________________ around the engulfed materials.

A

Vesicle

178
Q

Endocytosis is a process that occurs in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. True or false?

A

False

179
Q

Phagocytosis is primarily performed by immune cells to engulf and destroy foreign particles. True or false?

A

True

180
Q

The nucleus is surrounded by a double-layered membrane called the nuclear envelope. True or false?

A

True

181
Q

The nucleolus is responsible for the synthesis of proteins. True or false?

A

False

182
Q

The nuclear pore complex controls the movement of substances between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. True or false?

A

True

183
Q

The process of pinocytosis is also known as:
a) Cell division
b) Cell drinking
c) Cell respiration
d) Cell excretion

A

Cell drinking

184
Q

Phagocytosis is an important process for:
a) Cell growth
b) Cellular communication
c) Cellular digestion
d) Cellular respiration

A

Cellular digestion

185
Q

The nuclear envelope is composed of:
a) Phospholipid bilayer
b) Carbohydrate chains
c) Protein fibers
d) Cholesterol molecules

A

Phospholipid bilayer

186
Q

The nucleolus is involved in the production of:
a) ATP
b) DNA
c) RNA
d) Lipids

A

RNA

187
Q

The nuclear pore complex allows the free diffusion of molecules into and out of the nucleus. True or False?

A

False

188
Q

Pinocytosis involves the formation of small ________________ that contain dissolved molecules.

A

Vesicles

189
Q

Phagocytosis is primarily performed by specialized cells called ________________.

A

Phagocytes

190
Q

The nuclear pore complex is composed of proteins called ________________.

A

Nucleoporins

191
Q

Karyopherins mediate the transport of ________________ and ________________ between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

A

Proteins, nucleic acids

192
Q

Endocytosis is a mechanism for cells to obtain nutrients from the extracellular environment. True or false?

A

True

193
Q

Pinocytosis involves the engulfment of large particles by the cell. True or false?

A

False

194
Q

The nucleolus plays a role in the assembly of ribosomes. True or false?

A

True

195
Q

The nuclear pore complex allows the unregulated passage of molecules in and out of the nucleus. True or false?

A

False

196
Q

Karyopherins are involved in the transport of molecules across the cell membrane. True or false?

A

False

197
Q

NLS (nuclear localization signal) is recognized by nuclear transport receptors called ____________.

A

Importins

198
Q

Nuclear Pore Complexes are made of 30 different pore proteins called ____________.

A

Nucleoporins

199
Q

Nuclear membrane contains ______ number of layers.

A

4

200
Q

Selective uptake of very specific macromolecules is called Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis. True or false?

A

True

Committee Exam 4 (35 decks)

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