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Committee Exam 4 > TEST 10 > Flashcards

TEST 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a fundamental unit of measurement?
a) Meter
b) Kilogram
c) Second
d) Volt

A

Volt

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2
Q

The SI unit of force is __________.

A

Newton

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3
Q

Dimensions represent the physical nature of a quantity and are independent of the unit used to measure it. True or false?

A

True

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
a) Velocity
b) Acceleration
c) Temperature
d) Displacement

A

Temperature

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5
Q

The SI unit of electric current is __________.

A

Ampere

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6
Q

Scalars have magnitude but no direction. True or false?

A

True

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7
Q

Which of the following is a derived unit?
a) Meter
b) Kilogram
c) Second
d) Newton

A

Newton

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8
Q

The dimensional formula for force is __________.

A

[M][L][T]^-2 (Mass x Length x Time^-2)

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9
Q

Vectors can be added or subtracted using the rules of vector algebra. True or false?

A

True

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10
Q

Which of the following is not a base unit in the SI system?
a) Ampere
b) Kelvin
c) Candela
d) Gram

A

Gram

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11
Q

The SI unit of temperature is __________.

A

Kelvin

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12
Q

The magnitude of a vector can be negative. True or false?

A

False

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13
Q

Which of the following is a fundamental unit of measurement?
a) Coulomb
b) Joule
c) Pascal
d) Meter

A

Meter

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14
Q

The dimensional formula for energy is __________.

A

[M][L]^2[T]^-2 (Mass x Length^2 x Time^-2)

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15
Q

Scalars can be multiplied or divided without considering their direction. True or false?

A

True

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16
Q

Which of the following is not a base quantity?
a) Length
b) Time
c) Speed
d) Mass

A

Speed

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17
Q

The SI unit of pressure is __________.

A

Pascal

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18
Q

The displacement of an object is a vector quantity. True or false?

A

True

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19
Q

Which of the following is a derived quantity?
a) Ampere
b) Meter
c) Candela
d) Coulomb

A

Coulomb

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20
Q

The dimensional formula for velocity is __________.

A

[L][T]^-1 (Length x Time^-1)

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21
Q

Vectors can be multiplied or divided using scalar multiplication/division. True or false?

A

True

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22
Q

Which of the following is not a unit standard?
a) MKS system
b) CGS system
c) FPS system
d) MLS system

A

MLS system

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23
Q

The SI unit of electric charge is __________.

A

Coulomb

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24
Q

The direction of a vector is specified by its angle with respect to a reference axis. True or false?

A

True

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25
Q

Which of the following is not a dimensionless quantity?
a) Temperature
b) Angle
c) Relative density
d) Refractive index

A

Temperature

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26
Q

Which of the following is a vector quantity?
a) Mass
b) Weight
c) Force
d) Torque

A

Force

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27
Q

The force acting on an object due to gravity is called __________.

A

Weight

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28
Q

The weight of an object can change depending on its location in the universe. True or false?

A

True

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29
Q

Which law states that every particle in the universe attracts every other particle with a force directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?
a) Newton’s First Law
b) Newton’s Second Law
c) Newton’s Third Law
d) Gravitational Law

A

Gravitational Law

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30
Q

The point in an object where its entire mass can be considered to be concentrated is called the __________.

A

Center of Mass

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31
Q

Torque is a measure of the force’s ability to rotate an object around a specific axis. True or false?

A

True

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32
Q

Which of the following is a condition for equilibrium in the human body?
a) Acceleration
b) Unbalanced forces
c) Equal and opposite forces
d) Unstable posture

A

Equal and opposite forces

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33
Q

Newton’s first law of motion is also known as the law of __________.

A

Inertia

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34
Q

An object at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an unbalanced force. True or false?

A

True

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35
Q

Which law states that the rate of change of momentum of an object is directly proportional to the applied force and occurs in the direction in which the force is applied?
a) Newton’s First Law
b) Newton’s Second Law
c) Newton’s Third Law
d) Law of Conservation of Momentum

A

Newton’s Second Law

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36
Q

The force required to keep an object moving with constant velocity is __________.

A

Zero

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37
Q

The weight of an object held in the hand is equal to the force exerted by the hand on the object. True or false?

A

True

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38
Q

Which of the following is an example of a contact force?
a) Gravity
b) Magnetism
c) Friction
d) Electrostatic force

A

Friction

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39
Q

The SI unit of force is __________.

A

Newton

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40
Q

The center of mass of an object always coincides with its geometric center. True or false?

A

False

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41
Q

Which of the following statements best describes torque?
a) The resistance to motion of an object.
b) The force exerted on an object.
c) The ability to do work.
d) The rotational equivalent of force.

A

The rotational equivalent of force.

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42
Q

In a system in equilibrium, the sum of all forces and torques acting on the system is __________.

A

Zero

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43
Q

Newton’s third law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. True or false?

A

True

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44
Q

Which law states that an object in a state of motion will continue to stay in state of motion until an external force is applied to it?
a) Newton’s First Law
b) Newton’s Second Law
c) Newton’s Third Law
d) Law of Universal Gravitation

A

Newton’s First Law

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45
Q

The weight of an object is equal to the force of gravity acting on it. True or false?

A

True

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46
Q

The center of mass of an object can be located outside of the object itself. True or false?

A

True

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47
Q

Which of the following factors affects the weight of an object?
a) Mass
b) Volume
c) Density
d) Temperature

A

Mass

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48
Q

The turning effect produced by a force is called __________.

A

Torque

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49
Q

An object in equilibrium has no net force acting on it. True or false?

A

True

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50
Q

Which law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction?
a) Newton’s First Law
b) Newton’s Second Law
c) Newton’s Third Law
d) Law of Conservation of Energy

A

Newton’s Third Law

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51
Q

Which of the following is an example of a lever system in the human body?
a) Biceps muscle
b) Femur bone
c) Heart muscle
d) Spinal cord

A

Biceps muscle

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52
Q

In the human body, the __________ acts as a lever, enabling movement and force generation.

A

Skeletal system

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53
Q

The mechanical advantage of a lever system is determined by the ratio of the effort arm to the resistance arm. True or false?

A

True

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54
Q

Which type of lever system is most commonly found in the human body?
a) First-class lever
b) Second-class lever
c) Third-class lever
d) Fourth-class lever

A

Third-class lever

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55
Q

In a third-class lever system, the __________ is located between the fulcrum and the effort.

A

Load or resistance

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56
Q

The human jaw joint is an example of a first-class lever system. True or false?

A

True

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57
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanical advantage of a lever system?
a) The force applied by the muscle
b) The distance traveled by the bone
c) The ratio of the output force to the input force
d) The speed at which the lever system operates

A

The ratio of the output force to the input force

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58
Q

The mechanical advantage of a lever system can be increased by increasing the length of the __________.

A

Effort arm

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59
Q

In a second-class lever system, the load is located between the fulcrum and the effort. True or false?

A

False

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60
Q

Which of the following is an example of a second-class lever system in the human body?
a) Elbow joint
b) Knee joint
c) Ankle joint
d) Calf muscles

A

Calf muscles

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61
Q

The human body utilizes lever systems to generate __________.

A

Movement and mechanical advantage

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62
Q

Lever systems in the human body allow muscles to generate greater force than the force applied by the muscle itself. True or false?

A

True

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63
Q

Which class of lever system offers the greatest mechanical advantage?
a) First-class lever
b) Second-class lever
c) Third-class lever
d) Fourth-class lever

A

Second-class lever

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64
Q

In a first-class lever system, the __________ is located between the fulcrum and the load.

A

Effort

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65
Q

Lever systems in the human body always operate at maximum mechanical advantage. True or false?

A

False

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66
Q

Which of the following is an example of a fourth-class lever system in the human body?
a) Shoulder joint
b) Wrist joint
c) Hip joint
d) Neck muscles

A

Shoulder joint

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67
Q

The mechanical advantage of a lever system can be increased by decreasing the length of the __________.

A

Resistance arm

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68
Q

Lever systems in the human body are only involved in movement and do not play a role in force generation. True or false?

A

False

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69
Q

Which lever system is characterized by having the effort, load, and fulcrum all on the same side?
a) First-class lever
b) Second-class lever
c) Third-class lever
d) Fourth-class lever

A

Third-class lever

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70
Q

The __________ is the point or axis around which a lever system rotates.

A

Fulcrum

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71
Q

Lever systems in the human body always operate at a mechanical disadvantage. True or false?

A

True

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72
Q

Which of the following is an example of a lever system involved in human body movement?
a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Quadriceps muscle
d) Kidney

A

Quadriceps muscle

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73
Q

The human elbow joint is an example of a __________ lever system.

A

First-class

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74
Q

Lever systems in the human body can be found in various anatomical structures, including joints and muscles. True or false?

A

True

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75
Q

Which class of lever system is most efficient for generating speed and range of motion?
a) First-class lever
b) Second-class lever
c) Third-class lever
d) Fourth-class lever

A

Third-class lever

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76
Q

Electric shock occurs when:
a) A person comes into contact with a live electrical wire
b) A person touches a non-conductive surface
c) A person stands near an electrical appliance
d) A person wears insulating gloves

A

A person comes into contact with a live electrical wire

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77
Q

Electrocution refers to:

A

Death caused by electric shock

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78
Q

Primary electrical injuries are caused by the direct flow of electric current through the body. True or false?

A

True

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79
Q

Which of the following is an example of a secondary injury related to electric shock?
a) Burns caused by electrical current
b) Fractures from falling due to a shock
c) Respiratory distress
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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80
Q

The main effects of electrical current on the human body include:

A

Burns, muscle contractions, cardiac arrest, nerve damage

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81
Q

Electric current always takes the path of least resistance through the body. True or false?

A

True

82
Q

Safe levels of electric current for the human body are generally below:
a) 1 milliampere (mA)
b) 10 milliamperes (mA)
c) 100 milliamperes (mA)
d) 1 ampere (A)

A

1 milliampere (mA)

83
Q

Electric shocks can cause __________ injuries even if they do not result in immediate harm.

A

Internal

84
Q

The severity of electric shock injuries depends on the voltage and duration of exposure. True or false?

A

True

85
Q

Which of the following is an example of a primary electrical injury?
a) Broken bones
b) Cardiac arrhythmia
c) Respiratory distress
d) Lacerations

A

Cardiac arrhythmia

86
Q

Electrical security systems, such as __________, are used to protect against electric shock.

A

Grounding, circuit breakers, residual current devices (RCDs), insulation

87
Q

Electric shocks can cause long-term health effects, such as neurological disorders. True or false?

A

True

88
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of electric shock in the home?
a) Overloading electrical outlets
b) Proper grounding of electrical devices
c) Use of insulated electrical wiring
d) Regular maintenance of electrical systems

A

Overloading electrical outlets

89
Q

The most dangerous type of electrical current for the human body is __________ current.

A

Alternating

90
Q

Electrical burns can be caused by both thermal effects and electrical energy transfer to body tissues. True or false?

A

True

91
Q

Which of the following is an example of a secondary injury related to electric shock?
a) Electric shock-induced seizures
b) Cardiac fibrillation
c) Tissue necrosis
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

92
Q

The severity of an electric shock injury can be influenced by factors such as:

A

Current intensity, voltage, pathway, duration of exposure

93
Q

Electric shock can cause immediate loss of consciousness and respiratory failure. True or false?

A

True

94
Q

The electrical resistance of the human body can vary depending on factors such as:
a) Skin moisture
b) Body temperature
c) Thickness of the skin
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

95
Q

Safe electrical practices include __________ to prevent electric shock.

A

Insulating electrical wires, using safety equipment (e.g., gloves, goggles), regular inspection and maintenance of electrical systems

96
Q

Direct current (DC) is generally less dangerous to the human body than alternating current (AC). True or false?

A

True

97
Q

Which of the following is a primary electrical injury caused by electric shock?
a) Thermal burns
b) Respiratory distress
c) Falls from muscle contractions
d) Bone fractures

A

Falls from muscle contractions

98
Q

Electrical security systems, such as __________, can detect and interrupt dangerous electrical faults.

A

Ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCIs), arc fault circuit interrupters (AFCIs)

99
Q

Electric shock can cause immediate cardiac arrest by disrupting the heart’s normal electrical rhythm. True or false?

A

True

100
Q

Which of the following is considered a dangerous level of electric current for the human body?
a) 1 milliampere (mA)
b) 10 milliamperes (mA)
c) 100 milliamperes (mA)
d) 1 ampere (A)

A

1 ampere (A)

101
Q

The primary function of a microscope is to:
a) Magnify objects
b) Illuminate objects
c) Stain objects
d) Measure objects

A

Magnify objects

102
Q

Optical resolution refers to the ability of a microscope to distinguish between __________.

A

Two closely spaced objects as separate entities

103
Q

Numerical aperture (NA) is a measure of the resolving power of a microscope. True or false?

A

True

104
Q

Which of the following parts of a microscope controls the amount of light entering the objective lens?
a) Condenser
b) Diaphragm
c) Eyepiece
d) Stage

A

Diaphragm

105
Q

In bright field microscopy, the specimen appears __________ against a bright background.

A

Dark

106
Q

Phase contrast microscopy enhances the visibility of transparent or low-contrast specimens. True or false?

A

True

107
Q

Which type of microscopy is commonly used for studying living cells and tissues?
a) Bright field microscopy
b) Dark field microscopy
c) Phase contrast microscopy
d) Fluorescence microscopy

A

Phase contrast microscopy

108
Q

A fluorescence microscope uses __________ to visualize specific molecules in a sample.

A

Fluorescent dyes or labels

109
Q

Confocal microscopy allows for optical sectioning and 3D reconstruction of samples. True or false?

A

True

110
Q

Which type of microscope uses a focused beam of electrons to produce high-resolution images?
a) Optical microscope
b) Fluorescence microscope
c) Phase contrast microscope
d) Electron microscope

A

Electron microscope

111
Q

The objective lens of a microscope is responsible for __________.

A

Magnifying the specimen

112
Q

Dark field microscopy is particularly useful for visualizing transparent or unstained specimens. True or false?

A

True

113
Q

Which part of the microscope is used to adjust the focus and position of the specimen?
a) Stage
b) Eyepiece
c) Condenser
d) Diaphragm

A

Stage

114
Q

The numerical aperture of a microscope lens is determined by the __________.

A

Refractive index of the medium between the lens and the specimen

115
Q

The eyepiece of a microscope is also known as the ocular lens. True or false?

A

True

116
Q

Which type of microscopy is commonly used in biological research for visualizing specific molecules or structures within cells?
a) Bright field microscopy
b) Phase contrast microscopy
c) Fluorescence microscopy
d) Confocal microscopy

A

Fluorescence microscopy

117
Q

A confocal microscope uses a __________ to eliminate out-of-focus light and improve image contrast.

A

Pinhole aperture

118
Q

Electron microscopes have higher resolution than optical microscopes due to the shorter wavelength of electrons. True or false?

A

True

119
Q

Which type of microscope uses scattered light to create an image of the specimen against a dark background?
a) Bright field microscopy
b) Dark field microscopy
c) Phase contrast microscopy
d) Fluorescence microscopy

A

Dark field microscopy

120
Q

The condenser of a microscope is responsible for __________.

A

Focusing the light onto the specimen

121
Q

Phase contrast microscopy allows for visualization of transparent specimens without the need for staining. True or false?

A

True

122
Q

Which type of microscopy is commonly used to study surface structures and topography of samples?
a) Bright field microscopy
b) Dark field microscopy
c) Phase contrast microscopy
d) Scanning electron microscopy

A

Scanning electron microscopy

123
Q

The resolution of an optical microscope is ultimately limited by the __________.

A

Wavelength of light used for illumination

124
Q

A fluorescence microscope can detect and visualize specific molecules even in highly complex samples. True or false?

A

True

125
Q

The total magnification of a microscope is calculated by multiplying the magnification of the __________.
a) Objective lens and the eyepiece
b) Condenser and the stage
c) Diaphragm and the stage
d) Eyepiece and the stage

A

Objective lens and the eyepiece

126
Q

The lens maker equation relates the focal length of a lens to its:
a) Refractive index
b) Radius of curvature
c) Lens thickness
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

127
Q

A lens is a transparent optical device that refracts __________.

A

Light

128
Q

Convex lenses converge light rays to a focal point. True or false?

A

True

129
Q

Which type of lens is thinner in the middle and causes light rays to diverge?
a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
c) Plano-convex lens
d) Biconvex lens

A

Concave lens

130
Q

The power of a lens is measured in __________.

A

Diopters (D)

131
Q

The power of a lens is directly proportional to its focal length. True or false?

A

True

132
Q

Which type of lens corrects nearsightedness (myopia)?
a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
c) Plano-convex lens
d) Biconvex lens

A

Concave lens

133
Q

The F-stop of a camera lens controls the __________.

A

Aperture size

134
Q

A larger aperture (smaller F-stop number) allows more light to pass through the lens. True or false?

A

True

135
Q

The aperture in a camera lens affects the:
a) Depth of field
b) Focal length
c) Shutter speed
d) ISO sensitivity

A

Depth of field

136
Q

The human eye works similarly to a camera, with the __________ functioning as the lens.

A

Cornea

137
Q

The cornea is primarily responsible for focusing incoming light onto the retina. True or false?

A

True

138
Q

The process of focusing the lens of the eye to view objects at different distances is known as:
a) Accommodation
b) Refraction
c) Reflection
d) Scattering

A

Accommodation

139
Q

The power of the eye refers to its ability to __________.

A

Refract light

140
Q

The power of the eye is primarily determined by the cornea. True or false?

A

True

141
Q

Which part of the eye is responsible for adjusting the shape of the lens during accommodation?
a) Iris
b) Pupil
c) Ciliary muscle
d) Retina

A

Ciliary muscle

142
Q

The condition of the eye where the focal point falls in front of the retina, causing distant objects to appear blurry, is called __________.

A

Myopia or nearsightedness

143
Q

n a camera lens, a higher F-stop number (smaller aperture) results in a larger depth of field. True or false?

A

True

144
Q

Which type of lens corrects farsightedness (hyperopia)?
a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
c) Plano-convex lens
d) Biconvex lens

A

Convex lens

145
Q

The shape of the lens is controlled by the __________.

A

Ciliary muscles

146
Q

The retina is responsible for converting light into electrical signals that are sent to the brain for visual processing. True or false?

A

True

147
Q

The power of a lens can be calculated using the formula:
a) P = 1/f
b) P = f + D
c) P = f/D
d) P = f x D

A

P = 1/f

148
Q

The opening in the center of the iris that controls the amount of light entering the eye is called the __________.

A

Pupil

149
Q

The power of the eye can be adjusted through the contraction and relaxation of the ciliary muscles. True or false?

A

True

150
Q

The condition of the eye where the focal point falls behind the retina, causing near objects to appear blurry, is called __________.
a) Myopia
b) Hyperopia
c) Astigmatism
d) Presbyopia

A

Hyperopia

151
Q

Spherical aberration is an optical aberration that results in:
a) Blurred edges in the image
b) Color fringing
c) Distortion of straight lines
d) Uneven illumination

A

Blurred edges in the image

152
Q

Chromatic aberration occurs due to the __________ of different wavelengths of light.

A

Dispersion

153
Q

Chromatic aberration can be corrected by using a combination of lenses with different refractive indices. True or false?

A

True

154
Q

Comatic aberration, also known as coma, causes:
a) Blurred edges in the image
b) Color fringing
c) Distortion of straight lines
d) Uneven illumination

A

Distortion of straight lines

155
Q

Astigmatism is an optical condition that leads to __________.

A

Blurred or distorted vision at all distances

156
Q

Astigmatism is caused by an irregularly shaped cornea or lens, resulting in different focal lengths in different meridians. True or false?

A

True

157
Q

Which of the following corrective measures can be used to address astigmatism?
a) Glasses with cylindrical lenses
b) Refractive surgery
c) Contact lenses
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

158
Q

Spherical aberration can be minimized by using __________ lenses.

A

Aspheric

159
Q

Chromatic aberration causes color fringing or halos around objects in an image. True or false?

A

True

160
Q

The correction of chromatic aberration can be achieved through the use of:
a) Achromatic lenses
b) Apochromatic lenses
c) Diffraction gratings
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

161
Q

Comatic aberration can be reduced by using __________ lenses.

A

Aperture stops or stops with a circular shape

162
Q

Astigmatism can cause both nearsightedness (myopia) and farsightedness (hyperopia) simultaneously. True or false?

A

True

163
Q

The correction of astigmatism involves the use of lenses with __________.
a) Cylindrical power
b) Spherical power
c) Multifocal power
d) Aspheric power

A

Cylindrical power

164
Q

Spherical aberration is more pronounced when using a __________ lens.

A

Wide aperture

165
Q

Chromatic aberration occurs due to the variation in the refractive index of the lens material for different wavelengths of light. True or false?

A

True

166
Q

Which of the following aberrations is most commonly associated with a point light source appearing as a comet-shaped image?
a) Spherical aberration
b) Chromatic aberration
c) Comatic aberration
d) Astigmatism

A

Comatic aberration

167
Q

The correction of astigmatism involves combining a spherical lens with a __________ lens.

A

Cylindrical

168
Q

Astigmatism can cause distorted vision, both in terms of shapes and lines. True or false?

A

True

169
Q

Achromatic lenses are designed to minimize:
a) Spherical aberration
b) Chromatic aberration
c) Comatic aberration
d) Astigmatism

A

Chromatic aberration

170
Q

Spherical aberration can be reduced by using a __________ aperture.

A

Small

171
Q

Astigmatism is a refractive error, meaning that it affects the way light is focused by the eye. True or false?

A

True

172
Q

A cylindrical lens is used to correct astigmatism in which meridian of the eye?
a) Vertical meridian
b) Horizontal meridian
c) Oblique meridian
d) All meridians equally

A

All meridians equally

173
Q

Spherical aberration is more pronounced when using __________ lenses.

A

Low-quality or poorly manufactured

174
Q

Astigmatism can cause headaches and eyestrain, especially during prolonged visual tasks. True or false?

A

True

175
Q

Apochromatic lenses are designed to correct:
a) Spherical aberration
b) Chromatic aberration
c) Comatic aberration
d) Astigmatism

A

Chromatic aberration

176
Q

Light is an example of:
a) Transverse wave
b) Longitudinal wave
c) Surface wave
d) None of the above

A

Transverse wave

177
Q

Light is an electromagnetic wave that can travel through a vacuum at a speed of approximately __________ meters per second.

A

29.9 million meters per second

178
Q

Light waves exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. True or false?

A

True

179
Q

A photon is the:
a) Unit of light intensity
b) Unit of electric charge
c) Unit of light wavelength
d) Fundamental particle of light

A

Fundamental particle of light

180
Q

The phenomenon in which two light waves overlap and form regions of constructive and destructive interference is called __________.

A

Interference

181
Q

In the double-slit experiment, interference patterns are observed when light passes through two closely spaced slits. True or false?

A

True

182
Q

Diffraction is the bending of light waves as they:
a) Reflect off a surface
b) Refract through a medium
c) Pass through an opening or around an obstacle
d) Interfere with each other

A

Pass through an opening or around an obstacle

183
Q

The study of light and its interaction with matter is explained by the __________ theory of light.

A

Electromagnetic theory

184
Q

Reflection is the process by which light waves bounce off a surface. True or false?

A

True

185
Q

Refraction is the process in which light waves:
a) Reflect off a surface
b) Scatter in different directions
c) Change direction as they pass from one medium to another
d) Interfere with each other

A

Change direction as they pass from one medium to another

186
Q

Snell’s law describes the relationship between the __________ and the angle of refraction.

A

angle of incidence

187
Q

According to Snell’s law, the angle of incidence is directly proportional to the angle of refraction. True or false?

A

False

188
Q

The index of refraction of a medium is a measure of:
a) The speed of light in that medium
b) The density of the medium
c) The amount of light absorbed by the medium
d) The amount of light scattered by the medium

A

The speed of light in that medium

189
Q

The angle of incidence is measured between the incident ray and the __________ line.

A

Normal

190
Q

The angle of refraction is always smaller than the angle of incidence when light passes from a less dense medium to a more dense medium. True or false?

A

True

191
Q

When light waves undergo total internal reflection, they are:
a) Reflected back into the same medium
b) Transmitted into a different medium
c) Absorbed by the medium
d) Refracted at a different angle

A

Reflected back into the same medium

192
Q

The law of reflection states that the angle of incidence is equal to the __________.

A

Angle of reflection

193
Q

The angle of incidence and the angle of refraction are always measured with respect to the normal line. True or false?

A

True

194
Q

The color of light that has the shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum is:
a) Red
b) Green
c) Blue
d) Violet

A

Violet

195
Q

The phenomenon of colors separating into a spectrum when passing through a prism is called __________.

A

Dispersion

196
Q

Different materials have different indices of refraction, which causes light to bend differently when passing through them. True or false?

A

True

197
Q

The law of reflection applies to which type of surfaces?
a) Smooth and polished surfaces
b) Rough and uneven surfaces
c) Only metallic surfaces
d) Only transparent surfaces

A

Smooth and polished surfaces

198
Q

Diffuse reflection occurs when light waves are reflected __________ off a rough surface.

A

In many directions

199
Q

The speed of light is constant regardless of the medium through which it passes. True or false?

A

False

200
Q

The phenomenon in which light waves bounce off a surface at various angles is called:
a) Diffraction
b) Refraction
c) Polarization
d) Scattering

A

Scattering

Committee Exam 4 (35 decks)

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