TDM - THERAPEUTIC DRUG MONITORING Flashcards

1
Q

Typical Effectiveness of Route of Exposure

A

intravenous > inhalation > intraperitoneal injection
> intramuscular injection > ingestion > topical

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2
Q

intravenous route of administration is associated with ___ % bioavailability

A

100

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3
Q

orally administered drug should achieve % bioavailability

A

70% 0.7 fraction

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4
Q

5 pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug concentration

A

liberation
absorption
distribution
metabolism
excretion

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5
Q

refers to the release of the drug

A

liberation

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6
Q

is the transport of drug from the site of administration to the blood

A

absorption

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7
Q

refers to the delivery of the drug to the tissues

A

distribution

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8
Q

is the process of chemical modification of the drug by cells

A

metabolism

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9
Q

is the process by which the drug and its metabolites are excreted from the body

A

excretion

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10
Q

most drugs are absorbed in what way

A

passive diffusion

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11
Q

tablets and capsules require dissolution before being absorbed; liquid solutions are rapidly absorbed

true or false

A

true

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12
Q

weak acids are absorbed in ___ while weak bases are in ___

A

stomach; intestine

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13
Q

the process wherein the drugs are effective in the body tissues, not generally in the blood

A

distribution

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14
Q

the relationship between distribution of substances between tissue and blood levels is termed as

A

distribution space

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15
Q

the rate at which a particular drug is cleared from the circulation is dependent not only on the type of drug itself, but also on a patient’s capacity to metabolize and excrete it

A

excretion

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16
Q

causes of drug toxicity

A

elevated concentration of free drug
abnormal response to drug after administration
the presence of active drug metabolites

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17
Q

these drugs are used for treatment of arrhythmias and congestive heart failure

A

cardioactive drugs

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18
Q

classification of cardioactive drugs

A

class I (rapid sodium channel blockers)
class II (beta receptor blockers)
class III (potassium channel blockers)
class IV (calcium channel blockers)

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19
Q

class 1 cardioactive drugs example

A

quinidine, procainamide, lidocaine

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20
Q

class II cardioactive drugs example

A

PROPANOLOL

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21
Q

class III cardioactive drugs example

A

AMIODARONE

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22
Q

class IV cardioactive drugs example

A

VERAPAMIL

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23
Q

is a cardiac glycoside for treatment of atrial arrhythmia and congestive heart failure

A

digoxin

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24
Q

digoxin, when taken in large doses it inhibits Na-K-ATPase thus it decreases ___

A

K and Mg, and increase Ca

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25
Q

effect of digoxin to hyperthyroid individuals

A

resistant

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26
Q

toxic effects of digoxin

A

nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, premature ventricular contractions, and atrioventricular bode blockage

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27
Q

therapeutic level of digoxin

A

0.5-2 ng/ml

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28
Q

toxic level of digoxin

A

> 2 ng/ml

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29
Q

is used to correct ventricular arrhythmia for treatment of acute myocardial infarction

A

lidocaine (xylocaine)

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30
Q

it is administered by continuous IV infusion after a loading dose

A

lidocaine (xylocaine )

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31
Q

lidocaine is also known as

A

xylocaine

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32
Q

cardioactive drugs that can be used as a local anaesthetic

A

lidocaine(xylocaine)

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33
Q

lidocaine(xylocaine) is can’t be administered ___ due to almost complete hepatic removal of the absorbed drug

A

orally

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34
Q

toxic effect of lidocaine(xylocaine)

A

congestive heart failure and heart block

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35
Q

toxicity level of lidocaine(xylocaine)

A

> 4 -8 ug/ml

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36
Q

a naturally occurring drug for the treatment of arrhythmia

A

quinidine

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37
Q

quinidine is almost ___ protein bound

A

85%

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38
Q

quinidine’s elimination

A

hepatic metabolism

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39
Q

route of delivery of quinidine

A

oral administration

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40
Q

quinidine’s common formulation

A

quinidine sulfate and quinidine gluconate

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41
Q

toxic level of quinidine

A

> 5 ug/ml

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42
Q

toxic effects of quinidine

A

cinchonism, blood dyscrasia, hepatitis

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43
Q

procainamide is also called as

A

pronestyl

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44
Q

describe the absorption of procainamide(pronestyl) in GIT

A

rapid and complete

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45
Q

elimination of procainamide(pronestyl)

A

renal filtration
hepatic metabolism

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46
Q

route of delivery of procainamide(pronestyl)

A

oral

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47
Q

toxic level of procainamide(pronestyl)

A

> 12 ug/ml

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48
Q

toxic effects of procainamide(pronestyl)

A

reversible lupus-like syndrome (ANA)
nephrotic syndrome
urticaria

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49
Q

it is used to treat cardiac arrhythmias and used as a substitute for quinidine

A

disopyramide

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50
Q

route of disopyramide

A

orally

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51
Q

describe the absorption of disopyramide in GIT

A

rapid and complete

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52
Q

elimination of disopyramide

A

renal filtration

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53
Q
A
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54
Q

toxic level of disopyramide

A

10 ug/ml

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55
Q

toxic effects of disopyramide

A

bradychardia and atrioventricular node blockage

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56
Q

a beta-receptor-blocking drug

A

propanolol

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57
Q

propanolol is used in the treatment of

A

angina pectoris, hypertension, and coronary artery disease

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58
Q

propanolol’s effect to thyroid hormones

A

suppresses the conversion of T4 to T3

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59
Q

it is used in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis

A

propanolol

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60
Q

therapeutic range of propanolol

A

50-100 ng.ml

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61
Q

toxic effects of propanolol

A

bradycardia, arterial insufficiency (raynaud’s type), platelet disorder, and pharyngitis

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62
Q

amiodarone is also called as

A

cordarone

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63
Q

it blocks potassium channel in the cardiac muscle

A

amiodarone (cordarone)

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64
Q

amiodarone (cordarone) is used for treatment of

A

ventricular arrhythmia

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65
Q

it is an iodine containing drug which can cause hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism

A

amiodarone (cordarone)

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66
Q

toxic level of amiodarone (cordarone)

A

> 2.5 ug/ml

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67
Q

toxic effects of amiodarone (cordarone)

A

bradychardia, hepatitis, photodermatitis, and thyroid dysfunction

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68
Q

is used for treatment of angina, hypertension, and supraventricular arrhythmia

A

verapamil

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69
Q

therapeutic range of verapamil

A

80-400 ng/ml

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70
Q

verapamil’s toxic effects

A

hypotension, peripheral edema, and ventricular fibrillation

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71
Q

list down the aminoglycosides antibiotics

A

gentamicin
tobramycin
amikacin
kanamycin
neomycin
streptomycin

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72
Q

purpose of aminoglycosides

A

treatment of gram-negative bacterial infections;

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73
Q

route of aminoglycosides

A

intramuscular or intravenous

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74
Q

absorption of aminoglycosides in GIT

A

not well absorbed from the GIT

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75
Q

aminoglycosides can cause damage to which cranial nerve

A

8th cranial nerve (hearing loss )

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76
Q

aminoglycosides’ elimination

A

renal filtration

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77
Q

toxic effects of aminoglycosides

A

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

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78
Q

toxic levels of amikacin and kanamycin

A

> 30 ug/ml

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79
Q

toxic levels of gentamicin and tobramycin

A

12-15 ug/ml

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80
Q

it is the antibiotic and glycopeptide against gram positive cocci and bacilli

A

vancomycin

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81
Q

vancomycin’s route of administration

A

IV infusion

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82
Q

describe the oral absorption of vancomycin

A

poor oral absorption

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83
Q

its toxic side effects occur in the therapeutic range (5-10 ug/ml)

A

vancomycin

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84
Q

elimination of vancomycin

A

renal filtration and excretion

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85
Q

toxic effects of vancomycin

A

“red man syndrome”
nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity

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86
Q

this antibiotic is distributed to all tissues and concentrates in the CSF

A

chlorampenicol

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87
Q

chlorampenicol is ___% protein bound

A

50%

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88
Q

describe the GIT absorption of chlorampenicol

A

rapidly absorbed

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89
Q

toxic level of chlorampenicol

A

> 25 ug/ml

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90
Q

toxic effects of chlorampenicol

A

blood dyscrasia and cytoplasmic vacuolation (erythroid and myeloid cells )

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91
Q

it is a long-acting barbiturate that controls grand mal tonic-clonic seizure and focal epileptic

A

phenobarbital

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92
Q

this anti epileptic drug is not used for petit mal seizure

A

phenobarbital

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93
Q

used for treating withdrawal symptoms in infant whose mothers are addicted to opiate or barbiturate

A

phenobarbital

94
Q

an anti epileptic drug that is used to treat cases of congenital hyperbilirubinemia

A

phenobarbital

95
Q

majority of phenobarbital taken is stored in

96
Q

elimination of phenobarbital

A

hepatic metabolism

97
Q

therapeutic level of phenobarbital

A

20-40 ug/ml

98
Q

toxic effects of phenobarbital

A

nystagmus
stupor
ataxia
respiratory depression

99
Q

phenytoin is also called as

A

phenytoin (dilantin )

100
Q

it controls tonic clonic and simple partial seizures

A

phenytoin (dilantin )

101
Q

phenytoin (dilantin) is not used for what type of seizure

A

petit mal and atomic seizures

102
Q

route of phenytoin (dilantin)

A

intravenous

103
Q

describe the GIT absorption of phenytoin (dilantin)

A

incomplete

104
Q

elimination of phenytoin (dilantin)

A

hepatic pathway (zero order kinetics )

105
Q

major toxicity effect of phenytoin (dilantin)

A

initiation of seizures
tetragonic action (cleft lip and palate)
nystagmus

106
Q

therapeutic range of phenytoin (dilantin)

A

10-20 ug/ml

107
Q

toxic level of phenytoin (dilantin)

A

> 20 ug/ml

108
Q

phenytoin (dilantin) ‘s injectable proform

A

fosphenytoin

109
Q

valproic acid is also called as

110
Q

used for treatment of petit mal (absence seizure ), atomic, and grand mal seizures

A

valproic acid (depakene)

111
Q

valproic acid (depakene)’s route of administration

112
Q

describe the GIT absorption of valproic acid (depakene)

A

rapid and complete

113
Q

valproic acid (depakene) protein bound percentage

114
Q

why do valproic acid (depakene) needs monit0ring after 6 months of therapy

A

hepatic dysfunction is observable

115
Q

valproic acid (depakene)’s elimination

A

hepatic metabolism

116
Q

therapeutic level of valproic acid (depakene)

A

50-100 ug/ml

117
Q

valproic acid (depakene)

toxic level of > 100 ug/ml will cause

A

nausea
lethargy
weight gain

118
Q

valproic acid (depakene)

toxic level of > 200 ug/ml will cause

A

pancreatitis
hallucinations
hyperammonemia

119
Q

carbamazepine is also called as

120
Q

a tricyclic compound related to imipramine

A

carbamazepine (tegretol)

121
Q

effective for grand mal seizures and for treating seizures accompanied by pain

A

carbamazepine (tegretol)

122
Q

route of carbamazepine (tegretol)

123
Q

elimination of carbamazepine (tegretol)

A

hepatic metabolism

124
Q

idiosyncratic effect of carbamazepine (tegretol)

A

rashes
leukopenia
nausea
vertigo
febrile reactions

125
Q

therapeutic level of carbamazepine (tegretol)

A

4-16 ug/ml

126
Q

toxic level of carbamazepine (tegretol)

A

> 12 ug/ml

127
Q

toxic effects of carbamazepine (tegretol)

A

hematologic dyscrasias
aplastic anemia
irregular pulse
ataxia

128
Q

this antiepileptic drug has antineuralgic action and is 70-805 protein bound

A

carbamazepine (tegretol)

129
Q

drug of choice for controlling petit mal (absence of seizure )

A

ethosuximinde (zarontin)

130
Q

route of ethosuximinde (zarontin)

A

orally administered

131
Q

how many percent is ethosuximinde (zarontin) protein bound?

A

free in the serum and not protein bound

132
Q

toxic level of ethosuximinde (zarontin)

A

> 100 ug/ml

133
Q

toxic effects of ethosuximinde (zarontin)

A

GIT disturbances
ataxia
SLE
aplastic anemia
pancytopenia

134
Q

this anti epileptic drug is similar to neurotransmitter gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

A

gabapentin (neurontin)

135
Q

gabapentin (neurontin) is used in

A

partial seizures and as an adjunctive therapy

136
Q

route of gabapentin (neurontin)

137
Q

percent of gabapentin (neurontin) being bound to protein

A

not bound to plasma proteins

138
Q

elimination of gabapentin (neurontin)

A

unchanged in urine and not metabolized in humans

139
Q

toxic effects of gabapentin (neurontin)

A

ataxia and somnolence (drowsiness )

140
Q

other seizure drugs of interest that is used as an adjunct drug for partial seizures

A

topiramate
lamotrigine (lamictal )
felbamate

141
Q

psychoactive drug that is used for treatment of manic-depressive illness (bipolar disorders )

142
Q

psychoactive drugs that is a drug of choice for the prevention of chronic cluster headache

143
Q

effect of psychoactive drugs - lithium, to thyroid hormone

A

inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and release, inhibits iodine update causing hypothyroidism

144
Q

psychoactive drug that is a cationic metal that does not bind to proteins

145
Q

lithium’s route of administration

A

orally and absorption is rapid and complete

146
Q

psychoactive drug that go along with lithium, together, they inhibit the action of ADH on the kidneys

A

demeclocycline

147
Q

elimination of lithium

A

renal filtration

148
Q

toxic effects of lithium

A

severe dehydration
nephrotoxicity
hypothyroidism

149
Q

toxic effect of lithium if 1.2-2 mmol/l

A

apathy, lethargy, speech difficulties

150
Q

toxic effect of lithium if >2 mmol/l

A

seizures
muscle rigidity
coma

151
Q

psychoactive drug that is used for the treatment of depression, insomnia, extreme apathy, and loss of libido

A

tricyclic antidepressants

152
Q

route of tricyclic antidepressants

A

orally administered

153
Q

example of tricyclic antidepressants

A

imipramine, amitriptyline, doxepin, nortriptyline, trazadone

154
Q

elimination of tricyclic antidepressants

A

hepatic metabolism

155
Q

toxic effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A

drowsiness
blurred vision
memory loss
seizure
cardiac arrhythmia
Parkinsonsian syndrome
unconsciousness

156
Q

this psychoactive drug has the ability to block the re-uptake of serotonin in central serotonergic pathways

A

fluoxetine (prozac)

157
Q

this psychoactive drug is used for treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorders

A

fluoxetine (prozac)

158
Q

toxic effects of fluoxetine (prozac)

A

attempted suicide, decreased libido, and sexual function

159
Q

the only bronchodilator in the book of rodriguez

A

theophylline

160
Q

theophylline belongs to the ___ class

A

methylated xanthine

161
Q

theophylline

its action is specific to the relaxation of ___

A

bronchial smooth muscle

162
Q

theophylline is used for the treatment of

A

asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

163
Q

it is therapeutic for primary apnea of prematurity

A

theophylline

164
Q

used to treat the absence of respiratory effort in newborn infants

A

theophylline

165
Q

effect of theophylline to histamine and proinflammatory agents

166
Q

route of administration of theophylline

A

initially administered intravenously then orally

167
Q

percent of theophylline of protein bound

168
Q

can theophylline cross placenta?

A

yes, and teratogenic in pregnant females

169
Q

theophylline

the best predictor of toxicity is the

A

the blood level of the drug and not the early signs or symptoms of toxicity

170
Q

elimination of theophylline

A

renal filtration and hepatic metabolism

171
Q

toxic level of theophylline

A

> 20 ug/ml

172
Q

toxic effects of theophylline

A

GI bleeding
seizures
tachycardia
syncope

173
Q

an immunosuppressive drug that inhibits the cellular immune response by clocking production of interleukin 2

A

cyclosporine

174
Q

an immunosuppressive drug that is used to prevent the rejection of allogenic organ transplants

A

cyclosporine

175
Q

an immunosuppressive drug that is utilized for suppression of acute graft-versus-host disease

A

cyclosporine

176
Q

what are the organs that require high dosage of cyclosporine

A

heart
liver
pancreas

177
Q

an immunosuppressive drug that has marked affinity with RBC

A

cyclosporine

178
Q

erythrocyte-cyclosporine is ___ dependent

A

temperature-dependent

179
Q

cyclosporine’s route of administration

A

orally with 5-50% absorption

180
Q

elimination of cyclosporine

A

hepatic metabolism

181
Q

best sample of cyclosporine determination

A

whole blood (with lysis of RBC to yield the total amount )

182
Q

toxic level of cyclosporine

A

> 500 ng/ml

183
Q

toxic effects of cyclosporine

A

renal tubular and glomerular dysfunction
gi disturbances
hirsutism
hemotologic dyscrasias

184
Q

an immunosuppressive drug that is 100x more powerful than cyclosporine

A

tacrolimus ()

185
Q

tacrolimus is also known as

A

tacrolimus (prograf/fk-506)

186
Q

an immunosuppressive drug that is a macrolide lactone antibiotic

A

tacrolimus (prograf/fk-506)

187
Q

tacrolimus (prograf/fk-506)

elevated level are observed in

A

cholestasis

188
Q

elimination of tacrolimus (prograf/fk-506)

A

hepatic metabolism

189
Q

specimen of choice for

A

whole blood

190
Q

toxic effects of tacrolimus (prograf/fk-506)

A

thrombus formation
nephrotoxicity
neurotoxicity

191
Q

this immunosuppressive drug is similar to tacrolimus (prograf/fk-506)

192
Q

rapamycin is also known as

A

rapamycin (sirolimus)

193
Q

rapamycin (sirolimus)’s major side effects

A

lipid abnormalities and thrombocytopenia

194
Q

other immunosuppressive drug that decreases renal allograft rejection

A

mycophenolate mofetil

195
Q

other immunosuppressive drug that inhibits lymphocyte proliferation

A

leflunomide (LFM)

196
Q

other immunosuppressive drug that is used for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

leflunomide (LFM)

197
Q

the 2 antineoplastic drugs in rodriguez book

A

methotrexate
busulfan

198
Q

it is an effective therapy for a variety of neoplastic conditions

A

methotrexate

199
Q

the antineoplastic drug that works as well as immunosuppressive drug

A

methotrexate

200
Q

methotrexate’s effect to DNA synthesis

A

inhibitory in all cells by blocking dihydrofolate reductase

201
Q

is used to reverse the action of methotrexate

A

leucovorin

202
Q

the reversal of action of methotrexate by leucovorin is known as

A

leucovorin rescue

203
Q

toxic level of methotrexate

A

0.01 umol/l

204
Q

toxic effects of methotrexate

A

leicopenia
GI ulceration
thrombocytopenia
cirrhosis

205
Q

is an alkalyting agent used to treat leukemia and lymphomas prior to bone marrow transplantation

206
Q

busulfan’s overdosage may cause

A

hepatic occlusive disease

207
Q

this is a sub item under inflammatory/analgesics

A

salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

208
Q

commonly used analgesic, antipyretic, and anti inflammatory drug

A

salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

209
Q

direct stimulator of the respiratory system and an inhibitor of the kreb’s cycle

A

salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

210
Q

this anti-inflammatory/analgesic has an anticoagulant property (antiplatelet activity by inhibiting the action of cyclooxygenase)

A

salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

211
Q

it decreases thromboxane and prostaglandin formation through inhibition of action of cyclooxygenase

A

salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

212
Q

is the common cause of fatal drug poisoining in children

A

acute aspirin intoxication

213
Q

side effects of salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

A

gastrointestinal disturbance and interference with plt aggregation

214
Q

toxic level of salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

A

> 30 mg/dl

215
Q

therapeutic level of salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) for treatment of headache

216
Q

toxic effects of salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

A

mixed acid-base disturbance (metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis)
hypoglycemia
reye’s syndrome

217
Q

an anti-inflammatory/analgesic that is an inhibitor of prostaglandin metabolism

A

acetaminophen (tylenol)

218
Q

commonly used analgesic and antipyretic drug

A

acetaminophen (tylenol)

219
Q

acetaminophen (tylenol)

overdosage of this drug will leads to

A

hepatoxicity

220
Q

toxic effects of acetaminophen (tylenol)

A

cyanosus due to methemoglobinemia
cns depression
seizure

221
Q

this has analgesic and anti inflammatory actions

222
Q

this anti-inflammatory/analgesic has lower risk of toxicities and salicylates and acetaminophen

223
Q

toxic effects of ibuprofen

A

nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, abdominal pain, edema

224
Q

toxic level of ibuprofen

A

> 100 ug/ml

225
Q

therapeutic level of ibuprofen

A

10-50 ug/ml

226
Q

these drugs block the action of dopamine and serotonin in the limbic system

A

neuroleptics (antipsychotic major tranquilizers)

227
Q

they are used in the treatment of acute schizoprenia

A

neuroleptics

228
Q

monitoring of these drugs in serum is difficult to abundant metabolites for each drug resulting in extensive metabolism in liver

A

neuroleptics (anti-psychotic major tranquilizers )

229
Q

it reflects the lowest level of drug in the blood

A

trough concentration

230
Q

the best specimen for initial investigation of therapeutic drug toxicity since it is most likely to exceed the upper therapeutic limit

A

peak concentration