Sexually Transmitted Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of genital herpes simplex has higher viral shedding?

A

type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What STI is known as the great imitator?

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What % of patients with chlamydia are asymptomatic?

A

70 women and 50% men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the gram stain appearance of chlamydia?

A

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the risk of PID with chlamydia?

A

9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the risks associated with an episode of PID?

A

ectopic pregnanyc and tubal factor infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the common female presentations for chlamydia?

A

post-coital or intermenstrual bleeding; lower abdo pain; dyspareunia and mucopurulent cervicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What ar ethe common male presentations for chlamydia?

A

urethral discharge; dysuria; urethritis; epididymo-orchitis; proctitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the symptoms with lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

rectal pain; discharge and bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the risk of other STIs associated with lymphgranuloma venerum?

A

high risk- 67% HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When can chlamydia be tested for after exposure?

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the test for females for chlamydia?

A

vulvovaginal swab NAAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the test for males for chlamydia?

A

first void urine NAAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When should a rectal swab for chlamydia be added with MSM?

A

if has receptive anal intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the incubation period of urethral infection in men for gonorrhoea?

A

2-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the risk of transmission of gonorrhoea from an infected woman to male?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Waht is the risk of transmission of gonorrhoea from infected man to female?

A

50-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the presentation of gonorrhoea in males?

A

urethral discharge; dysuria; asymptomatic (<10%)- pharyngeal/rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the presentation of gonorrhoea in females?

A

asymptomatic (upto 50%); altered/increased vaginal discharge; dysuria; pelvic pain

20
Q

What is the first line treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

ceftriaxone 500mg IM and azithromycin 1G

21
Q

What is the second line treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

cefixim 400mg oral

22
Q

What should be done in all patients after treatment of gonorrhoea?

A

test of cure

23
Q

What is the incubation time for genital herpes?

A

3-6 days

24
Q

How long does the primary infection of genital herpes last?

A

14-21 days

25
Q

What are the symtpoms of a primary genital herpes infection?

A

blistering and ulceration of the external genitalia; pain; external dysuria; vaginal or urethral discharge; local lymphdenopathy; fever and myalgia

26
Q

What type of HSV is recurrent episodes more common with?

A

HSV-2

27
Q

What are the symptoms in recurrent episodes?

A

localised anogenital tinglin, burning or soreness, unilateral, small blisters and ulcers

28
Q

How long does it take a recurrent episode of genital herpes to resolve?

A

5-7 days

29
Q

What is the treatment for genital herpes?

A

oral aciclovir; topical lidocaine if very painful

30
Q

What is the investigation fro genital herpes?

A

swab base of ulcer for HSV PCR

31
Q

When is viral shedding higher?

A

more frequent in first year of infection; more in individuals with frequent recurrences; reduced by suppressive therapy

32
Q

What is the lifetime risk of acquiring HPV infection?

A

80%

33
Q

What types of HPV cause anogenital warts?

A

6 and 11

34
Q

What are the treatment option for HPV?

A

podophyllotoxin; imiquimod; cryotherapy; electrocautery

35
Q

What is the MOA of podophyllotoxin (Warticon)?

A

cytotoxic

36
Q

What is the MOA of imiquimod?

A

immune modifier

37
Q

What bacterium causes syphilis?

A

treponema pallidum

38
Q

How can syphilis be transmitted?

A

sexual contact; trans-placental/during birth; blood transfusions; non-sexual contact-healthcare workers

39
Q

What stages of syphilis are infective?

A

primary; secondary and early latent

40
Q

What is the mean incubation period for syphilis?

A

21 days

41
Q

Aside from a chancre what other signs are seen with priamry syphilis?

A

non-tender local lymphadenopathy

42
Q

What are the symptosm of secondary syphilis?

A

skin- macular; follicular or pustular rash on palms and soles; lesions of mucous membranes; generalised lymphadenopathy; patchy alopecia; condylomata lata

43
Q

What is condylomata lata?

A

highly infectious lesion which exudes a serum teeming with treponemes

44
Q

What is the screening serological test for syphilis?

A

ELISA/EIA (enzyme immunoassay)

45
Q

What is the treatment for early syphilis?

A

benzathine penicillin x1

46
Q

What is the treatment for late syphilis?

A

benzathine penicillin x3

47
Q

How much should titres decrease by 3-6 months in early syphilis?

A

four-fold