Psych 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the symptoms of a panic attack.

A

Symptoms include tachypnea, chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, nausea, trembling, dizziness, fear of dying or going crazy, depersonalization, and perioral and/or acral paresthesias.

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2
Q

What is agoraphobia and how common is it in panic disorder cases?

A

Agoraphobia is the fear of situations that make one feel trapped, helpless, or embarrassed. It is present in 30-50% of panic disorder cases.

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3
Q

How can panic attacks be differentiated from medical conditions?

A

Panic attacks can be differentiated from medical conditions like angina, MI, arrhythmias, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma through specific symptoms and lab findings like alkalosis, hypocapnea, and increased O2.

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4
Q

Define agoraphobia and provide examples of situations that may trigger it.

A

Agoraphobia is the fear of places or situations that make one feel trapped, helpless, or embarrassed. Examples include public transportation, open or enclosed spaces, standing in line, or being in a crowd.

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5
Q

What are the treatment options for panic disorder?

A

Treatment options include cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), benzodiazepines (e.g., clonazepam) for immediate relief, and beta-blockers as a second-line treatment.

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6
Q

Describe social phobia and give an example of a situation that may provoke fear.

A

Social phobia is marked fear provoked by social or performance situations, such as public speaking.

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7
Q

How is dementia characterized and what are the common causes?

A

Dementia is characterized by cognitive impairment with global deficits and stable consciousness. Common causes include Alzheimer’s disease (50%) and multi-infarct dementia (25%).

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8
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for dementia?

A

Diagnostic criteria include memory impairment and at least one of the following: aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, impaired executive function, personality changes, delusions, or hallucinations.

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9
Q

What is the Mini-Mental State Examination used for in dementia diagnosis?

A

The Mini-Mental State Examination evaluates functions like arithmetic, memory, and orientation to assess cognitive impairment severity, with scores ranging from severe (≤9 points) to mild (19-24 points).

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10
Q

Describe Alzheimer’s disease and its characteristics.

A

Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia, not preventable nor curable, with risk factors including being female, family history, head trauma, and Down syndrome.

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11
Q

Describe the typical age range for the onset of Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Usually after 65 years old.

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12
Q

Define the treatment approach for Alzheimer’s disease involving environmental cues and a structured daily routine.

A

Provide environmental cues and a rigid structure for the patient’s daily life.

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13
Q

What are the common cholinesterase inhibitors used in Alzheimer’s treatment?

A

Tacrine and Donepezil.

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14
Q

Explain the key feature affected first in Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Memory.

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15
Q

Describe the least likely aspect to be affected in Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Face recognition.

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16
Q

What is the best treatment for Alzheimer’s disease in patients with cardiac issues?

A

Memantine.

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17
Q

Define Lewy body dementia.

A

Dementia accompanied by Parkinsonism and visual hallucinations.

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18
Q

Describe Pick’s disease including its characteristic features.

A

Atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes, severe personality changes, and strange behavior.

Pick’s disease, also known as frontotemporal dementia (FTD), is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. It is characterized by progressive changes in personality, behavior, and language. Here are the key features of Pick’s disease:

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19
Q

Explain the key characteristics of Huntington’s disease.

A

Autosomal dominant, atrophy of caudate nucleus, triad of dementia, personality changes, and chorea.

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20
Q

Describe the typical age of onset for Parkinsonism.

A

Above 50 years old.

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21
Q

Define the triad of symptoms in normal pressure hydrocephalus.

A

Dementia, urine incontinence, and gait ataxia.

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22
Q

Explain the characteristics of vascular dementia (multi-infarct dementia).

A

More common in males, younger onset than Alzheimer’s, patchy or stepwise course, associated with hypertension, and focal deficits.

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23
Q

Describe pseudodementia and its association with which condition.

A

Pseudodementia is associated with depression.

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24
Q

Define delirium and its key features.

A

An acute disturbance of consciousness with altered cognition, common in children and the elderly, reversible if underlying cause is treated.

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25
Q

Explain the common causes of delirium.

A

UTI, medications, surgery, medical problems, substance abuse, organ failure.

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26
Q

Describe the treatment approach for delirium.

A

Treat underlying causes, normalize fluids and electrolytes.

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27
Q

What are the common causes of agitation in hospitalized patients?

A

Delirium and alcohol withdrawal.

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28
Q

Explain the treatment for a violent patient in a hospital setting.

A

Antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol) via IM injection, physical restraints if necessary.

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29
Q

Describe the clinical picture of acute stress disorder.

A

Includes experiencing traumatic events, flashbacks, dreams, avoidance of trauma-related stimuli, increased arousal, anxiety, sleep disturbances, survivor’s guilt, and depression.

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30
Q

What is the difference in duration between acute stress disorder and PTSD?

A

Acute stress disorder lasts within one month of trauma, while PTSD lasts more than one month.

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31
Q

How is depression typically treated in patients with factitious disorder (Munchausen syndrome)?

A

With SSRI medication.

32
Q

Define Munchausen syndrome by proxy.

A

A condition where symptoms and signs are faked by one person for another, often seen in mothers and their children.

33
Q

Describe the characteristics of malingering.

A

Faking symptoms for obvious gain like money, avoiding work, or drugs, common in drug addicts, prisoners, and the military.

34
Q

What is the common scenario in the AMC exam involving a patient with suspected malingering?

A

A young male complaining of severe colic pain and requesting strong analgesics like morphine; first step is to conduct a drug screen.

35
Q

Explain the etiology of Wernicke encephalopathy.

A

It is caused by chronic alcoholism leading to thiamine deficiency.

36
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of Wernicke encephalopathy.

A

Includes ataxia, nystagmus, confusion, and confabulation, often associated with hypoglycemia.

37
Q

What is dissociative fugue characterized by?

A

Sudden travel, assumption of a new personality and name, usually triggered by a stressful event.

38
Q

Describe the clinical features of dissociative identity disorder.

A

More common in females, often related to childhood sexual abuse, involves multiple personalities controlling the person.

39
Q

What are the common characteristics of impulse control disorders?

A

Include kleptomania, pyromania, trichotillomania, and pathological gambling.

40
Q

Describe kleptomania.

A

Primarily seen in females who fail to resist the impulse to steal, with the goal being the act of stealing itself.

41
Q

What are the key features of pyromania?

A

Primarily seen in males with mild mental retardation, involves setting fires on multiple occasions.

42
Q

How is impulse control disorder typically characterized in terms of anxiety?

A

There is increased anxiety before the act followed by a release of anxiety after the act.

43
Q

Describe Trichillomania

A

Trichillomania is a condition where a person compulsively pulls their own hair, leading to hair loss, especially on the scalp. It may also involve eating the pulled hair, which can cause obstructions.

44
Q

Define grief

A

Grief is a natural response to loss, such as divorce, health issues, job loss, financial instability, miscarriage, retirement, death of a pet, serious illness of a loved one, friendship loss, trauma, or selling a family home.

45
Q

What are the stages of grief?

A

The stages of grief are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

46
Q

Describe common symptoms of grief

A

Common symptoms of grief include shock, disbelief, sadness, guilt, anger, fear, and various physical symptoms like fatigue, nausea, weight changes, aches, and insomnia.

47
Q

Differentiate between grief and depression

A

Grief is a natural response to loss, while depression may involve intense guilt, suicidal thoughts, hopelessness, or worthlessness.

48
Q

What is the role of a GP in grief?

A

The role of a GP in grief may involve counseling, supporting the patient, and prescribing drugs like SSRIs for depression if needed.

49
Q

How can you differentiate circumstantiality from tangentiality?

A

Circumstantiality is when a person gives excessive detail but eventually answers the question, while tangentiality involves talking irrelevantly and never addressing the question.

50
Q

Define déjà vu

A

Déjà vu is the sensation of experiencing a current event as if it has been experienced in the past.

51
Q

Explain jamais vu

A

Jamais vu is when a familiar situation is not recognized by the observer, a term used in psychology to describe such experiences.

52
Q

Describe depersonalization disorder

A

A condition where an individual feels detached from their own being, as if they are dreaming or not connected to themselves.

53
Q

What is derealization characterized by?

A

A feeling of unreality or detachment from the world, including individuals.

54
Q

Define delusion of control

A

A belief that one’s thoughts or actions are being controlled by external forces.

55
Q

How is Capgras syndrome described?

A

A disorder where a person believes a close family member has been replaced by an identical-looking impostor.

56
Q

Do individuals with Folie à deux share delusional beliefs?

A

Yes, in shared psychotic disorder, delusional beliefs are transmitted from one individual to another.

57
Q

Describe Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

Characterized by uncontrollable, excessive anxiety or worry about daily activities or events.

58
Q

What are obsessions and compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

A

Obsessions are persistent, unwanted thoughts, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts.

59
Q

How is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) treated?

A

Treatment includes SSRIs, exposure and prevention therapy, and cognitive-behavioral therapy.

60
Q

What are the preferred medications for anxiety disorders?

A

For anxiety disorders, SSRIs, venlafaxine, and sometimes benzodiazepines are used.

61
Q

Describe the stages of sleep

A

Sleep consists of 4 stages, with stages 3 and 4 being deep sleep stages.

62
Q

Describe the sleep changes that occur in the elderly.

A

Total sleep decreases, REM decreases, and stages 3 and 4 tend to vanish.

63
Q

Do narcolepsy patients experience sudden loss of muscle tone?

A

Yes, narcolepsy patients may experience sudden onset of loss of muscle tone precipitated by intense emotion or loud noise.

64
Q

Define cataplexy in the context of narcolepsy.

A

Cataplexy is a pathognomonic symptom of narcolepsy characterized by sudden loss of muscle tone.

65
Q

How are hypnagogic hallucinations different from hypnopompic hallucinations?

A

Hypnagogic hallucinations occur as one is going to sleep, while hypnopompic hallucinations occur upon waking up.

66
Q

Describe sleep paralysis.

A

Sleep paralysis is a condition where a person is awake but unable to move or speak.

67
Q

What is the treatment of choice for narcolepsy?

A

Forced naps at regular times and psycho stimulants are the treatment of choice for narcolepsy.

68
Q

Define sleep apnea.

A

Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder characterized by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep.

69
Q

Do individuals with obstructive sleep apnea experience muscle atonia in the oropharynx, nasal, or tongue area?

A

Yes, individuals with obstructive sleep apnea experience muscle atonia in the oropharynx, nasal, or tongue area.

70
Q

How is central sleep apnea different from obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Central sleep apnea is characterized by a lack of respiratory efforts, while obstructive sleep apnea involves physical obstruction of the airway.

71
Q

Describe the associations and complications of sleep apnea.

A

Associations include depression and mood changes. Complications may include arrhythmias, hypertension, and even sudden death.

72
Q

What is the investigation of choice for sleep apnea?

A

Polysomnography is the investigation of choice for sleep apnea.

73
Q

Describe primary insomnia.

A

Primary insomnia is characterized by bad quality of sleep and can affect up to 30% of the general population.

74
Q

What are some first-line therapy measures for primary insomnia?

A

First-line therapy measures include establishing a regular sleep schedule, limiting caffeine intake, avoiding daytime naps, and using the bedroom for sleep and sexual activity only.

75
Q

Do benzodiazepines serve as the drug of choice for primary insomnia?

A

Yes, benzodiazepines are considered the drug of choice for primary insomnia.

76
Q

How should pharmacotherapy be initiated for primary insomnia?

A

Pharmacotherapy should be initiated with care for short periods of time (< 2 weeks) in cases of primary insomnia.