Peds 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the management of breast milk jaundice?

A

Temporary cessation of breast feeding for 2 days then resume breast feeding.

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2
Q

Describe the first step in the management of neonatal jaundice.

A

Check total and direct bilirubin levels.

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3
Q

How is neonatal hypoglycemia initially treated?

A

With IV glucose.

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4
Q

Define the term ‘choanal atresia’.

A

A condition where there is a blockage of the back of the nasal passage.

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5
Q

What is the test of choice if choanal atresia is suspected?

A

Catheter test.

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6
Q

Describe the management of innocent murmur.

A

Reassure, but refer to a pediatrician if necessary.

Management:
- Regular Monitoring: Monitor during routine check-ups.
- Parental Reassurance: Reassure parents about the benign nature of the murmur.

| Criteria | Details |
|————–|————-|
| Loud or Harsh Murmur | Grade ≥3/6, harsh, or long-lasting. |
| Diastolic or Continuous Murmur | Murmurs that occur during diastole or are continuous. |
| Unaffected by Position | Murmurs that do not change with position. |
| Radiating Murmurs | Radiate to the neck or back. |
| Associated Symptoms | Presence of shortness of breath, chest pain, fatigue, syncope. |
| Abnormal Signs | Clubbing, cyanosis, ejection clicks, added heart sounds, tachycardia, hypertension. |
| Family History | Family history of congenital heart disease or sudden cardiac death. |
| Syndromic Features | Other congenital anomalies present. |

Referral:
- Refer to a pediatric cardiologist for further evaluation and management if any of the above suspicious or pathological characteristics are present.

Criteria | Details |
|————–|————-|
| Soft and Low-Pitched | Typically Grade 1-2/6. |
| Systolic Murmurs | Occur during systole. |
| Position Dependent | Murmurs often change or disappear when the child is upright. |
| Localized | Heard best at the left lower sternal border or apex. |
| No Associated Symptoms | No shortness of breath, chest pain, fatigue, cyanosis. |
| No Abnormal Signs | Absence of clubbing, cyanosis, clicks, added sounds, tachycardia, hypertension. |

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7
Q

What is the most important complication of measles?

A

Otitis media.

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8
Q

How is bronchiolitis diagnosed in a child under 2 years old?

A

By the presence of wheezes.

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9
Q

What is the course of action in mild to moderate croup?

A

Inhaled cortisone

mild: no treatment
moderate/severe:
-Dexamethasone 0.3 mg/kg orally (first-line);
- Prednisolone 1mg/kg orally, or
- Budesonide 2mg by nebulizer
most severe with significant airway obstruction/fatigue: Adrenaline 1% (1:100, 10mg/ml) solution 0.05ml/kg/dose

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10
Q

How is severe croup treated?

A

With inhaled nebulized adrenaline.

mild: no treatment
moderate/severe:
-Dexamethasone 0.3 mg/kg orally (first-line);
- Prednisolone 1mg/kg orally, or
- Budesonide 2mg by nebulizer
most severe with significant airway obstruction/fatigue: Adrenaline 1% (1:100, 10mg/ml) solution 0.05ml/kg/dose

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11
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of a child with epiglottitis.

A

Symptoms include fever, sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and a characteristic with the neck extended and the chin pointing upwards.

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12
Q

What is the causative organism of epiglottitis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae.

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13
Q

What is the recommended treatment for epiglottitis?

A

Hospital admission and intubation.

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14
Q

Define Kawasaki disease.

A

A condition characterized by prolonged fever and a specific set of clinical criteria including conjunctivitis, rash, erythema, adenopathy, and mucous membrane involvement.

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15
Q

How is Kawasaki disease diagnosed?

A

Fever for 5 days or more plus 4 of the following criteria (CREAM): Conjunctivitis, Rash, Erythema, Adenopathy, and Mucous membrane involvement.

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16
Q

Describe the most important investigation in Kawasaki disease.

A

Echocardiogram (echo) to assess for cardiac complications.

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17
Q

What are the most serious complications of Kawasaki disease?

A

Myocarditis and coronary aneurysm.

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18
Q

Do you know the first-line treatment for Kawasaki disease?

A

Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) is the first line, followed by aspirin as the second line.

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19
Q

Describe the presentation of a child with otitis media.

A

A child with fever, crying, and pulling on their ear.

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20
Q

What is the most common causative organism of otitis media?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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21
Q

How is otitis media treated according to current updates?

A

Initially with paracetamol, then amoxicillin if no response, and amoxicillin-clavulanate if still no response.

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22
Q

Define mastoiditis.

A

Inflammation of the mastoid bone typically presenting with swelling behind the ear.

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23
Q

What is the recommended imaging modality for diagnosing mastoiditis?

A

CT scan.

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24
Q

Describe the treatment of chronic otitis media.

A

Management includes aural toilet and the use of ciprofloxacin ear drops.

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25
Q

What is the most important post-exposure prophylaxis for varicella?

A

Vaccine for immune-competent individuals within 72 hours and intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) for pregnant and immune-compromised individuals.

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26
Q

Describe the school exclusion criteria for varicella.

A

Exclude until the blisters have dried or at least 5 days after the rash appears.

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27
Q

What is the most common complication of mumps in children?

A

Encephalitis.

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28
Q

What is the most common complication of mumps in adults?

A

Orchitis.

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29
Q

Describe the cause of abnormal semen analysis in a patient with a history of mumps and sulfasalazine use.

A

Sulfasalazine, not mumps, is the cause of abnormal semen analysis in this case.

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30
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with a long-standing history of dry cough, especially at night?

A

Bronchial asthma.

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31
Q

Describe the presentation of a patient with long-standing dry cough and fever.

A

Pertussis (whooping cough) should be suspected.

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32
Q

What is the initial investigation of choice in the first 3 weeks of pertussis presentation?

A

PCR of a nasopharyngeal swab.

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33
Q

What is the preferred prevention method for pertussis?

A

Vaccination.

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34
Q

Describe the management of a child with limping.

A

Initial step is usually an x-ray, except in clear cases of transient synovitis where ultrasound is preferred.

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35
Q

What is the diagnosis in a child with a history of camping and malabsorption?

A

Giardiasis, treated with metronidazole.

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36
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of a newborn with esophageal atresia.

A

Frothy saliva and regurgitation of milk.

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37
Q

What is the first step in managing esophageal atresia?

A

Passage of a wide-bore catheter followed by an x-ray.

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38
Q

What is the treatment for esophageal atresia?

A

Surgical intervention.

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39
Q

Define phimosis.

A

Inflammation of the penis leading to the inability to retract the foreskin.

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40
Q

What is the treatment for phimosis?

A

Cortisone cream.

No investigation is required. However, a trial of topical corticosteroid (eg 0.1% betnovate) may be effective, thus avoiding the need for referral. We advise twice-daily application to the narrow (phimotic) segment together with gentle retraction for four weeks.
https://www.racgp.org.au › …PDF
Paediatric surgery for the busy GP – Getting the referral right - RACGP

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41
Q

Describe paraphimosis.

A

Inflammation of the penis with the inability to retract the foreskin forward.

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42
Q

How is paraphimosis treated?

A

Urgent manual reduction; if failed, incision may be necessary.

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43
Q

Define balanitis in children.

A

Whitish discharge on the glans penis; treated with cortisone cream.

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44
Q

What is the medical recommendation regarding circumcision from a medical perspective?

A

It is not recommended.

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45
Q

Describe hypospadias.

A

Urethral opening on the ventral surface of the penis; circumcision is avoided as the foreskin may be used in surgery.

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46
Q

What is the next step if hypospadias is diagnosed?

A

Avoid circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgery.

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47
Q

Do children with urethral stenosis have difficulty initiating micturition?

A

Yes, along with a history of urinary catheterization.

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48
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic investigation for urethral stenosis?

A

Urethroscopy.

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49
Q

How is urethral stenosis treated?

A

Initially with repeated dilation; if unsuccessful, surgery may be required.

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50
Q

Describe toddler diarrhea.

A

Diarrhea in a completely healthy child under 5 years old with normal investigations.

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51
Q

What are the potential consequences of excessive fruit juice consumption in children?

A

Tooth caries, obesity, and diarrhea.

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52
Q

Define constipation in pediatric patients.

A

Most commonly related to diet.

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53
Q

How long after weaning can constipation occur?

A

It can occur after weaning.

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54
Q

Do infants with constipation since birth likely have meconium ileus or Hirschsprung disease?

A

Yes.

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55
Q

Describe the presentation in functional constipation.

A

A full rectum with stool.

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56
Q

What is the most common cause of anal fissure in infancy?

A

Constipation.

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57
Q

How is acute constipation treated?

A

With an enema.

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58
Q

What is the most effective treatment for constipation?

A

Bowel training.

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59
Q

What is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in children?

A

Constipation.

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60
Q

Describe the presentation of rectal prolapse in children.

A

Rectal prolapse, recurrent chest infections, and failure to thrive may be present.

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61
Q

What is the most important question to ask a child with rectal prolapse?

A

About their bowel habits.

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62
Q

Do children with lactose intolerance typically experience abdominal cramping and diarrhea after consuming lactation or dairy products?

A

Yes.

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63
Q

What is the preferred investigation for lactase intolerance?

A

Hydrogen breath test.

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64
Q

How is lactase intolerance treated?

A

With a lactose-free diet, including lactose-free formula for infants (e.g., soy-based formula).

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65
Q

What is the most common cause of epistaxis in children?

A

Hot weather.

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66
Q

Describe growing pains in healthy children.

A

Leg pain that may awaken the patient from sleep; all investigations are normal.

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67
Q

What is the diagnosis and management of a healthy child crying and pulling their leg to their abdomen with normal investigations?

A

Diagnosis: Infantile colic; Management: Reassurance and diet modification.

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68
Q

Do breath-holding spells typically present with crying followed by cyanosis and then convulsions?

A

Yes.

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69
Q

What does convulsion followed by cyanosis suggest in children?

A

Epilepsy.

70
Q

Define encopresis.

A

Involuntary passage of stool in children over 4 years old.

71
Q

How is encopresis treated?

A

Initially with toilet training; if unsuccessful, diet modification; if still unsuccessful, laxatives may be needed.

72
Q

Define enuresis.

A

Involuntary passage of urine in children over 5 years old.

73
Q

What is the most common cause of enuresis?

A

Psychological factors, but a urine culture must be done first.

74
Q

What is the most common organic cause of enuresis?

A

Urinary tract infection (UTI).

75
Q

What is the most important investigation to be done in enuresis?

A

Urine culture.

76
Q

How should a patient with enuresis who plans to go camping be managed?

A

With desmopressin.

77
Q

What is the best long-term treatment for enuresis?

A

Alarm clock.

78
Q

What is the preferred investigation for hydrocephalus?

A

CT scan (MRI > CT > US).

79
Q

Describe transient synovitis.

A

Limping after a viral upper respiratory tract infection or with the onset of a URI.

80
Q

What is the most common cause of limping in children?

A

Transient synovitis.

81
Q

What is the preferred investigation for transient synovitis?

A

Ultrasound.

82
Q

How is transient synovitis treated?

A

With analgesics and joint traction.

83
Q

What is the first investigation of choice for a limping child?

A

X-ray.

84
Q

What is the first investigation of choice for a child limping after a viral upper respiratory tract infection?

A

Ultrasound.

85
Q

How much fluid does a child need daily?

A

150 ml/kg.

86
Q

Describe GERD in infants with excessive vomiting and good general condition.

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

87
Q

Describe the diagnosis for an infant presenting with excessive vomiting and bad general condition as CHPS.

A

CHPS is the diagnosis.

88
Q

What is the best investigation for GERD?

A

24-hour pH monitoring.

89
Q

What is the best advice to give to a mother with an infant suffering from GERD?

A

Maintain an upright position after feeding.

90
Q

What is the most important question to ask a mother who loses consciousness at her daughter’s wedding with normal physical exam and tests?

A

History of separation anxiety with the child.

91
Q

Define separation anxiety in children.

A

It is not a normal part of development and requires psychological treatment.

92
Q

What is the most common cause of painless bleeding in children under 2 years old?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum.

93
Q

What is the treatment for Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Surgery.

94
Q

How should allergic rhinitis be treated?

A

Intranasal cortisone at night.

95
Q

Describe the condition where chronic cough and rhinorrhea improve with antihistamines.

A

Post-nasal drip.

96
Q

What are the symptoms of anaphylaxis after a bee sting or peanut ingestion?

A

Hives, hypotension, wheezy chest, and possibly lip and tongue swelling.

97
Q

What is the most common cause of anaphylaxis?

A

Food, followed by bee stings and drugs.

98
Q

What is the treatment of choice for anaphylaxis?

A

IM epinephrine at the thigh.

99
Q

What is the recommended dose of epinephrine for different age groups during anaphylaxis?

A

Adults >12 years: 0.5mg IM, Children 6-12 years: 0.3mg IM, Children <6 years: 0.15mg IM.

100
Q

What should a patient with recurrent anaphylaxis carry?

A

An epinephrine pen.

101
Q

What is the likely cause of sudden onset respiratory distress and localized wheezes in children?

A

Foreign body inhalation.

102
Q

Describe the diagnosis for a male child with recurrent chest and gastrointestinal infections, decreased immunoglobulins, and lymphoid tissue.

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia.

103
Q

What is the treatment for X-linked agammaglobulinemia?

A

IVIG.

104
Q

What condition presents with recurrent infections, suppurative lymphadenitis, and gingival abscesses?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD).

105
Q

What is the most affected cell type in CGD?

A

Neutrophils.

106
Q

What is the most common organism causing infections in CGD?

A

Staphylococcus aureus.

107
Q

Which enzyme is affected in CGD?

A

NADPH oxidase.

108
Q

What is the specific test used to diagnose CGD?

A

Nitroblue tetrazolium test.

109
Q

What is the first step in managing head injury in children?

A

Follow a flow chart.

110
Q

What is the recommended action for a child with head trauma and a skull fracture who develops convulsions, recurrent vomiting, or altered mental status?

A

CT scan is necessary.

111
Q

What should be done for a child with head trauma, no loss of consciousness, and only one episode of vomiting?

A

Reassure the parents.

112
Q

What is the management for a child with head trauma, persistent headache, and two episodes of vomiting?

A

Observe for 4 hours.

113
Q

What is the immediate intervention if the Glasgow Coma Scale is less than 8 in a child with head trauma?

A

Immediate intubation.

114
Q

Explain the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive diseases.

A

Both chromosomes are required for the individual to be affected.

115
Q

Explain the inheritance pattern of autosomal dominant diseases.

A

Only one chromosome is needed for the individual to be affected.

116
Q

How should child growth be assessed?

A

Always follow the growth chart.

117
Q

What is the most affected parameter by acute malnutrition?

A

Weight.

118
Q

What follows periods of arrested growth in children?

A

Catch-up growth.

119
Q

What is the best clinical indicator for overweight and underweight in children?

A

BMI growth chart.

120
Q

What is the most common cause of obesity?

A

Overfeeding.

121
Q

Describe the most common cause of Failure to Thrive (FTT).

A

Psychological factors.

122
Q

What is the common presentation of FTT when accompanied by constipation?

A

FTT with constipation only.

123
Q

What is the first step in the management of meconium-stained amniotic fluid?

A

CTG & scalp pH monitoring

124
Q

Describe the management of neonatal gynecomastia.

A

Observe (never squeeze).

125
Q

How should a child with an insect in the ear be treated as the first step?

A

Kill it by oil, then removal with forceps or ear toilet.

126
Q

Define the term ‘symmetrical IUGR’ and its most common causes.

A

Defect in both BPD and abdominal width; MCC: chromosomal abnormalities, congenital infection.

127
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a child with a fish bone in the larynx?

A

Laryngoscopy.

128
Q

Describe the management of short stature, delayed puberty, and precocious puberty.

A

First step: x-ray to detect bone age (BA). If CA > BA: reassure, if BA > CA: concerning.

129
Q

How should a child with a battery ingested and located in the esophagus be managed?

A

Remove it by endoscope.

130
Q

What is the most important aspect to check in an immigrant infant from Sudan?

A

Calcium and vitamin D levels (high risk of rickets).

131
Q

Define ‘asymmetrical IUGR’ and its most common causes.

A

Defect in abdominal width but normal BPD; MCC: placental problems like preeclampsia.

132
Q

How should a child with a bloody vaginal discharge and suspected foreign body in the vagina be treated?

A

Removal under general anesthesia.

133
Q

Describe the management of foreign body aspiration in infants.

A

First step: x-ray; TTT: removal under anesthesia.

134
Q

What is the management approach for a child with decreased breast milk production?

A

Increase frequency of breastfeeding.

135
Q

Describe the management of a Mongolian spot in a neonate.

A

Reassure the parents.

136
Q

What is the most common complication in an infant of a diabetic mother?

A

Hypoglycemia.

137
Q

Define congenital torticollis.

A

Firm painless swelling at birth with later head tilt to one side.

138
Q

How would you manage a cystic hygroma in a neonate?

A

Remove by surgery.

139
Q

What is the recommended treatment for hemangioma if it does not spontaneously disappear by 7-8 years of age?

A

Cortisone is the first-line treatment.

140
Q

Describe the presentation of a neonate with neonatal abstinence syndrome.

A

High pitched cry, sweating, tremor, vomiting, diarrhea, and possibly convulsions.

141
Q

What is the initial management for a neonate with neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A

Opioids.

142
Q

How would you diagnose imperforate anus in a newborn?

A

X-ray with the patient upside down.

143
Q

Define the management of duodenal atresia in a neonate.

A

Surgery.

144
Q

What is the recommended treatment for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

A

Surfactant.

145
Q

What is the antidote for paracetamol toxicity?

A

IV N-acetyl cysteine

146
Q

Describe the symptoms of aspirin toxicity.

A

Vomiting, tinnitus, hyperventilation

147
Q

What are the metabolic changes in aspirin toxicity related to respiration?

A

Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation

148
Q

What is the first step in treating organophosphate compound (OPC) poisoning?

A

Remove patient’s clothes

149
Q

What are the symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning in a person working in a garage after a BBQ party?

A

Headache, irritability, lethargy, cherry red skin color

150
Q

What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

High flow oxygen

151
Q

What are the symptoms of OPC poisoning in a farmer?

A

Lacrimation, salivation, urination, defecation, rhinorrhea, bronchorrhea, wheezy chest, decreased BP and pulse rate, pinpoint pupils

152
Q

What is the antidote for OPC poisoning?

A

Oximes

153
Q

What is the treatment for iron poisoning?

A

Deferoxamine

154
Q

What is the first step in managing a child who ingested white pills and developed arrhythmia?

A

Perform an ECG

155
Q

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of hemophilia?

A

X-linked

156
Q

What is the preferred type of milk for individuals with lactose intolerance?

A

Soy-based milk

157
Q

What is the most common cause of delayed milestones in children?

A

Prematurity

158
Q

What should be considered in a child with delayed milestones and a history of prolonged jaundice or ICU stay?

A

Neurological problem

159
Q

What is the first step in managing dehydration in a child?

A

Attempt oral feeding; if unsuccessful, administer IV fluids

160
Q

When is direct hyperbilirubinemia diagnosed?

A

When direct bilirubin is more than 20% of the total bilirubin

161
Q

What condition should be suspected in a child with prolonged jaundice, constipation, hypotonia, and mental retardation?

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

162
Q

What is the treatment for a child with a sting bite and limited swelling or rash only?

A

Oral antihistamine (oral promethazine)

163
Q

What is the treatment for a child with a sting bite presenting with rash, wheezy chest, hypotension, or vomiting?

A

IM adrenaline

164
Q

What is the most important investigation for a drowsy child in the morning?

A

Blood sugar measurement

165
Q

What is the normal age for a 9-year-old girl to start menstruation?

A

Normal puberty

166
Q

What is the term for a 2-year-old girl starting menstruation?

A

Precocious puberty

167
Q

What is the term for breast enlargement in a 2-year-old girl without other signs of puberty?

A

Thelarche

168
Q

What is the likely condition in a baby with rapidly increasing head size?

A

Hydrocephalus

169
Q

Describe the characteristics of a tall boy with infertility, gynecomastia, and mental retardation.

A

Klinefelter syndrome

170
Q

What is the initial investigation for infertility in a boy suspected of having Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Testosterone level measurement