Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AMC MCQ - Key points > ECG > Flashcards

ECG Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the initial management steps for a patient presenting with lightheadedness, dizziness, and a pulse rate below 50 beats per minute.

A

First step: administer atropine. If no response after 3 doses of atropine, consider transcutaneous pacing. If there is still no improvement, consider transvenous pacing (not typically done in the ER).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient diagnosed with SVT and hemodynamic instability (hypotension, chest pain)?

A

Cardioversion with a DC shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How should SVT patients with hemodynamic stability be initially managed?

A

First step: vagal stimulation (e.g., carotid massage). If there is no response, consider IV adenosine. If still no response, consider calcium channel blockers (CCBs) or beta blockers (BBs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define VT and outline the management approach for a patient with VT and hemodynamic instability.

A

VT stands for ventricular tachycardia. For a patient with VT and hemodynamic instability, cardioversion with a DC shock is recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the management approach for a patient with palpitations and ECG showing polymorphic VT known as Torsade de Pointes.

A

The immediate management includes administering magnesium sulfate. The drug of choice for Torsade de Pointes is Amiodarone. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable, defibrillation is necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient with Wolf Parkinsonian White syndrome (WPW) presenting with SVT?

A

Adenosine is the preferred treatment for SVT in patients with WPW. The best long-term treatment is catheter ablation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the management approach for a patient with palpitations and ECG showing irregular, narrow complex tachycardia indicative of atrial fibrillation (AF).

A

The most common cause of AF is not specified in the content.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most important investigation to be done in a patient with atrial fibrillation and suspected hyperthyroidism?

A

TSH, T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the drug of choice for atrial fibrillation in a patient with hyperthyroidism?

A

Beta-blocker (BB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does an ECG showing an extra QRS complex with no preceding P-wave indicate?

A

Premature ventricular contraction (PVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common cause of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)?

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most dangerous cause of PVCs, especially post-myocardial infarction?

A

Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In a patient with polycythemia vera (PCV) who is asymptomatic, what is the recommended treatment?

A

No treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In a symptomatic patient with polycythemia vera (PCV), what is the recommended treatment? In ECG

A

Beta-blocker (BB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does an ECG showing 1st degree heart block (PR interval >0.2 sec) with each P wave followed by a QRS complex indicate?

A

No treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does an ECG showing progressive PR interval prolongation followed by a dropped QRS complex indicate?

A

Second degree AV block type I (Mobitz type I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does an ECG showing a regular PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex indicate?

A

Second degree AV block type II (Mobitz type II)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does an ECG showing no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes indicate?

A

Third degree AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the management approach for first-degree AV block?

A

No treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the management approach for second-degree AV block type I, even if symptomatic?

A

No treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the management approach for second-degree AV block type II, even if asymptomatic?

A

Pacemaker insertion

The management of second-degree AV block type II, even if asymptomatic, involves:

  1. Cardiology Referral: Immediate referral to a cardiologist for further evaluation and management.
  2. Monitoring and ECG: Continuous ECG monitoring to assess the degree of block and identify any progression to complete heart block.
  3. Permanent Pacemaker: Consideration for permanent pacemaker insertion due to the high risk of progression to complete heart block and sudden cardiac arrest.

For more detailed guidelines, refer to the RACGP guidelines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the management approach for third-degree AV block?

A

Pacemaker insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name important drugs that can cause hyperkalemia.

A

ACE inhibitors, Beta-blockers, NSAIDs, Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the first step in managing hyperkalemia with significant ECG changes (wide QRS complex)?

A

Calcium gluconate administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Name important drugs that can cause hypokalemia.
Loop diuretics, Amiodarone, thiazide,nitrate
26
What does an ECG showing an M-shaped pattern in leads V1 and V2 indicate?
Right bundle branch block (RBBB)
27
What does an ECG showing an M-shaped pattern in leads V5 and V6 indicate?
Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
28
Describe the significance of LBBB in the context of cardiac arrest management.
LBBB is important to consider in cardiac arrest situations.
29
What is the best step to maintain the airway in a cardiac arrest scenario?
Perform a head lift jaw thrust maneuver.
30
What is the first step to take in a cardiac arrest situation?
Initiate CPR.
31
What is the first drug to be administered during a cardiac arrest?
Administer IV adrenaline.
32
What is the recommended action for a shockable rhythm like pulseless V.Tach and V.Fibrillation?
Perform immediate cardioversion.
33
How should non-shockable rhythms like asystole and pulseless electrical activity be managed?
Initiate CPR and administer drugs.
34
What step has the best long-term effect after a cardiac arrest?
Using a defibrillator is crucial for long-term outcomes.
35
What is the recommended treatment for asystole and pulseless electrical activity?
Perform CPR and administer epinephrine.
36
How can the best neurological outcome be achieved after recovery from a cardiac arrest?
Consider induced hypothermia.
37
What is the first step in dealing with ventricular fibrillation?
Administer a DC shock. How to deal with ventricular fibrillation????? 1st step………………………….……DC shock If still VF ……………………………CPR for 2 minu If return to sinus rhythm……continues CPR
38
If ventricular fibrillation persists, what should be done next?
Continue CPR for 2 minutes.How to deal with ventricular fibrillation????? 1st step………………………….……DC shock If still VF ……………………………CPR for 2 minu If return to sinus rhythm……continues CPR
39
First line for AF with
hyperhyrodism………BB First line for mitral valve prolapsed……BB First line ttt for HOCM……….BB First line ttt for angina………BB First medical ttt for aortic dissection…….BB TTT of essential tremors……….BB
40
What is the initial drug of choice for premature ventricular beats and hyperthyroidism ?
Begin treatment with a beta-blocker if necessary.
41
What is the first-line treatment for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
Administer adenosine followed by calcium channel blockers or beta-blockers.
42
What is the first-line treatment for Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW)?
Use amiodarone as the initial treatment.
43
What is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes?
Administer magnesium sulfate.
44
What is the first-line treatment for supraventricular tachycardia?
Adenosine then cc or bb
45
What is the first-line treatment for unstable ventricular tachycardia?
Cardioversion
46
Describe the first-line treatment for ventricular fibrillation.
Dc shock
47
What is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Atropine
48
What is the first-line treatment for COPD?
Oxygen
49
What is the first-line treatment for pericarditis?
NSAIDs
50
What is the first-line treatment for pericardial tamponade?
Pericardiocentesis
51
What is the first-line treatment for ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?
Angioplasty PCI
52
What is the first-line treatment for non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (non-STEMI)?
Heparin
53
What is the first-line treatment for unstable angina?
Heparin
54
What is the first-line treatment for variant angina?
Calcium channel blockers (CCB)
55
What is the first-line treatment for cocaine-induced angina?
Calcium channel blockers (CCB)
56
What is the first-line treatment for hyperlipidemia?
Statin
57
What is the best lifestyle recommendation for asthma?
Avoid smoking
58
What is the best lifestyle recommendation for hypertension (HTN)?
Lose weight
59
What is the best lifestyle recommendation for osteoarthritis (OA)?
Lose weight
60
What is the first drug of choice for aortic regurgitation?
ACE inhibitors
61
What is the first drug of choice for diabetes mellitus (DM) with hypertension?
ACE inhibitors
62
What is the first-line treatment for DM with proteinuria?
ACE inhibitors
63
What is the recommended treatment for hypertension with unilateral renal artery stenosis?
ACE inhibitors
64
What is the best treatment for renal artery stenosis?
Stent placement
65
What is the first-line treatment for hypertension with hyperthyroidism?
Beta blockers
66
What is the first-line treatment for hypertension with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Alpha blockers
67
What is the first-line treatment for hypertension with essential tremors?
Beta blockers
68
Describe the management for first-degree heart block.
No specific treatment
69
Describe the management for Mobitz type 1 heart block.
No specific treatment
70
What is the treatment for Mobitz type 2 heart block?
Pacemaker
71
What is the treatment for third-degree heart block with cannon waves?
Pacemaker
72
What is the most common cause of death following myocardial infarction (MI)?
Ventricular arrhythmias

AMC MCQ - Key points (49 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions