Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the most common causes of death in different age groups as mentioned in the content.

A

Less than 1 year: congenital anomalies; 1-14 years: Non-accidental injuries; 14-25 years and 25-44 years: suicide; 44-65 years: Cardiovascular diseases; More than 65 years: Cardiac disorders.

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2
Q

Define the most common cause of death overall according to the content.

A

Cardiovascular diseases.

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3
Q

How soon will dementia be the leading cause of death in Australia according to the content?

A

Very soon.

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4
Q

Describe the indications for performing a lumbar puncture as outlined in the content.

A

Suspected meningitis, suspected intracranial bleeding, to establish diagnosis for conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) and multiple sclerosis.

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5
Q

Do lumbar punctures have any contraindications according to the content? If so, what are they?

A

Yes, contraindications include signs suggesting raised intracranial pressure and superficial infection at the lumbar puncture site.

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6
Q

Define the most common complication of lumbar puncture as mentioned in the content.

A

Post-lumbar puncture headache.

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7
Q

Describe the precautions to be taken with lumbar puncture according to the content.

A

Coagulation factors and platelet levels are crucial to assess.

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8
Q

Do cat bites and cat scratch disease have different causative organisms according to the content? If so, what are they?

A

Yes, Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella henselae, while cat bites are caused by Pasteurella multocida.

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9
Q

How do cat scratch disease and cat bites differ in terms of lymphadenopathy according to the content?

A

Cat scratch disease presents with lymphadenopathy, while cat bites do not.

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10
Q

Describe the major complications of snake bites as outlined in the content.

A

Complications include necrosis, severe internal bleeding, kidney failure, respiratory failure, coagulopathy, and neurotoxicity.

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11
Q

Define the best investigation method for snake bites according to the content.

A

Biopsy from the bite site.

initial blood tests: coagulation screen (INR, APTT, fibrinogen, D-dimer), FBE and film, Creatine Kinase (CK), Electrolytes, Urea and Creatinine (EUC).racgp

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12
Q

How should first aid be administered in snake bites according to the content?

A

Apply a bandage.

  1. Pressure Immobilisation Bandage.
    -Don’t clean the wound
    -Don’t apply PIB if more than 1 hour has passed since bite,
    2.IV line
    3.Take blood
    4.Give antivenom (Monovalent of most common snakes in area
    preferred)
    - Admit all cases for at least 12 hours
    - Remove PIB when pt is stable
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13
Q

Describe the treatment for snake bites as mentioned in the content.

A

Antivenom should only be administered if symptoms appear, as there is a risk of severe anaphylaxis and death.

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14
Q

Do Staphylococcus species cause food toxicity according to the content? If so, what are the common symptoms?

A

Yes, Staphylococcus can cause abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting within 6 hours after a meal.

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15
Q

Describe the management of human bites.

A
  1. Clean and debride the wound
  2. Give prophylactic penicillin and tetanus toxoid
  3. Provide hepatitis B and HIV infection prophylaxis
  4. Avoid suturing
  5. If infection occurs, take a swab and administer metronidazole and cefotaxime.
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16
Q

Define malignant hyperthermia and its treatment options.

A

Malignant hyperthermia is a condition triggered by inhalational anesthetic agents and succinylcholine, leading to symptoms like tachycardia, rigidity, fever, rhabdomyolysis, and DIC. Treatment involves Dantrolene and supportive care.

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17
Q

How is pituitary apoplexy characterized and managed?

A

Pituitary apoplexy presents with sudden onset headache, nausea, vomiting, diplopia, and visual blurring HYPOTENSION. Diagnosis involves CT or MRI, with transsphenoidal surgical decompression as the treatment of choice.

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18
Q

Describe the characteristics and treatment of subphrenic abscess.

A

Subphrenic abscess involves fluid accumulation between the diaphragm, liver, and spleen, often post-surgical operations like splenectomy. Symptoms include cough, dyspnea, absent breath sounds, and dullness in percussion. Diagnosis is by CT scan, and treatment involves drainage.

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19
Q

What are the types of jellyfish stings and their first aid measures?

A

Types include Blue bottle and major box. For Blue bottle stings, wash the site, remove tentacles, and use hot water immersion. For major box stings, apply vinegar, remove tentacles, and consider hospital transfer for analgesia and antivenom if needed.

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20
Q

Describe the clinical presentation and management of epigastric hernia in children.

A

Epigastric hernia in kids presents as swelling above the umbilicus and typically resolves spontaneously. No specific treatment is usually required.

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21
Q

Define prolactinoma, its types, clinical presentations in males and females, and initial investigations.

A

Prolactinoma is a pituitary tumor categorized as microprolactinoma (<10 mm) or macroprolactinoma (>10 mm). Females may present with infertility, oligomenorrhea, amenorrhea, and galactorrhea, while males may have decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, infertility, and gynecomastia. Initial investigations include prolactin levels and MRI imaging.

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22
Q

How is prolactinoma typically managed, and what are the first-line treatment options?

A

Prolactinoma is primarily managed medically regardless of tumor size. Dopamine agonists like bromocriptine or cabergoline are the first-line treatments. Surgery, specifically trans-sphenoidal approach, is considered when medical management fails.

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23
Q

Describe the management of acute adenitis in children.

A

Management involves oral antibiotics for 10 days with a review in 48 hours. Flucloxacillin is commonly used.

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24
Q

What is Bell’s palsy characterized by?

A

It presents as acute unilateral lower motor neuron facial nerve weakness.

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25
Q

How is Bell’s palsy usually treated?

A

Care of the eye is crucial, and steroids are the drug of choice for treatment.

26
Q

Define incarcerated uterus.

A

It occurs when a growing retroverted uterus becomes wedged into the pelvis.

27
Q

Describe Hirschsprung disease.

A

It is characterized by the absence of ganglia in the distal colon, leading to functional obstruction.

28
Q

What are the symptoms of mesenteric adenitis?

A

Symptoms include mild abdominal pain, mild diarrhea, and high fever.

29
Q

How is flat head syndrome managed?

A

It typically corrects itself by the baby’s first birthday, and changing the baby’s sleep position can help.

30
Q

What is tracheomalacia characterized by?

A

It is defined as weakness of the walls of the trachea, leading to breathing difficulties.

31
Q

Describe the treatment for tracheomalacia.

A

Treatment involves humidified air, careful feedings, and antibiotics for infections.

32
Q

What are the common causes of cervical lymphadenopathy in children?

A

It usually occurs after viral infections.

33
Q

What investigations are recommended for persisting adenitis (>2 weeks)?

A

Recommended investigations include FBE/film, serology for EBV, CMV, HIV, Mantoux test, CXR, and excision biopsy if needed.

34
Q

What is the fate of Bell’s palsy in most cases?

A

Complete recovery is expected within three months.

35
Q

What is the most common cause of presentation at the ER in cases of incarcerated uterus?

A

Urinary retention is the most common cause.

36
Q

What is the management approach for urinary retention in cases of incarcerated uterus?

A

If urinary retention occurs, a Foley catheter may be inserted, and the obstetrician may attempt to manipulate the uterus.

37
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Hirschsprung disease?

A

Surgical resection is the treatment of choice.

38
Q

What are the symptoms of flat head syndrome?

A

Symptoms include a flat area on the back or one side of the head, bulging on one side, and an unbalanced look to the face.

39
Q

What are the types of flat head syndrome?

A

Types include plagiocephaly (flattening on one side) and brachycephaly (disproportionately wide head).

40
Q

What causes tracheomalacia?

A

Tracheomalacia is caused by weakness in the walls of the trachea.

Tracheomalacia is caused by several factors:

  1. Congenital Factors:
    • Congenital tracheomalacia occurs due to defects in the tracheal cartilage during development.
  2. Acquired Factors:
    • Prolonged intubation or tracheostomy.
    • Chronic infections or inflammation.
    • External compression by tumors or vascular anomalies.
    • Trauma to the trachea.

For more detailed information, refer to the RACGP guidelines.

41
Q

What exams are commonly used to diagnose tracheomalacia?

A

A laryngoscope is often used for diagnosis.

Initial Exam:
- CT Scan: Provides detailed imaging to evaluate the tracheal structure and identify any anatomical abnormalities. It is a good starting point for assessing suspected tracheomalacia.

Best Exam:
- Bronchoscopy: Considered the gold standard, it allows direct visualization of the trachea to observe dynamic collapse during breathing, confirming the diagnosis of tracheomalacia.

For more detailed information, refer to the RACGP guidelines.

42
Q

What is the cause of mesenteric adenitis?

A

It is usually caused by a viral infection.

43
Q

What is the recommended investigation for acute adenitis?

A

No blood investigations are typically needed.

44
Q

What is the treatment approach for mesenteric adenitis?

A

Usually, no treatment is necessary other than pain relief.

45
Q

Describe Red Man Syndrome.

A

Red Man Syndrome is a reaction characterized by flushing, erythema, and pruritus that can occur with rapid infusion of vancomycin.

46
Q

How can Red Man Syndrome be avoided?

A

Red Man Syndrome can be avoided by administering vancomycin slowly and in a diluted form.

47
Q

Define lidocaine toxicity.

A

Lidocaine toxicity refers to the signs and symptoms such as circumoral numbness, facial tingling, restlessness, vertigo, tinnitus, slurred speech, and seizures that can occur with local anesthetic toxicity.

48
Q

What is the importance of giving bad news in person rather than over the telephone?

A

Giving bad news in person allows for better assessment of the patient’s perception, provision of knowledge and information, addressing emotions with empathy, and summarizing the strategy.

49
Q

Describe Gallstone ileus.

A

Gallstone ileus is a small bowel obstruction caused by a gallstone getting stuck in the small intestine, leading to symptoms like pneumobilia, evidence of obstruction on imaging, and requiring fluid resuscitation and surgical intervention if initial management fails.

50
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss, most pronounced at higher frequencies.

51
Q

Explain Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.

A

Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a benign but locally aggressive vascular tumor that can present with chronic epistaxis, nasal obstruction, facial dysmorphism, conductive hearing loss, diplopia, and proptosis if it extends into the orbit.

52
Q

What are the symptoms of a fractured nose?

A

Symptoms of a fractured nose include pain, swelling, bleeding, and deformity.

53
Q

What is the initial treatment for a fractured nose?

A

The initial treatment for a fractured nose is closed reduction surgery, with rhinoplasty considered if deformity persists after swelling resolves.

54
Q

Describe the symptoms of a retro-pharyngeal abscess.

A

Symptoms include fever, sore throat, dysphagia, odynophagia, trismus, pain on neck extension, and a history of local trauma to the pharynx like a fish bone.

55
Q

What is the most common virus causing nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

The most common virus causing nasopharyngeal carcinoma is EBV (Epstein-Barr virus).

56
Q

Define hypothermia.

A

Hypothermia is when the body’s core temperature falls below 35.0 °C.

57
Q

How can hypothermia be managed in severe cases?

A

Severe hypothermia can be managed by rewarming the individual.

58
Q

Do you know the types of smokers?

A

There are two types of smokers: nicotine-dependent (more than 10 cigarettes or with withdrawal symptoms) and non-nicotine dependent.

59
Q

Describe the management of nicotine-dependent smokers.

A

Management includes counseling, nicotine replacement therapy (first line, safe in kids, pregnant, and cardiac patients), varenicline (most effective but not safe in pregnancy and cardiac patients), and bupropion (avoid in patients with a history of seizures).

60
Q

What is the most accurate way to assess the development of children in terms of BMI?

A

The most accurate way to assess the development of children is by using BMI on a centile chart.

61
Q

How can maximum protection from pertussis be provided to newborns?

A

Maximum protection can be provided by administering the dTap vaccine to the mother in the third trimester, to the baby immediately after birth, and to carers of the infants, especially if they are above 50 years old.

62
Q

What vaccines are recommended for the elderly?

A

Influenza vaccine should be given yearly, and the Pneumococcal vaccine should be given once after the age of 65 years.