Emergency 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the importance of establishing and securing the airway in emergency surgery

A

It is always the first step in management, with altered mental status being a common indication for intubation in trauma patients.

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2
Q

What is the first step in managing a cervical neck injury in emergency surgery?

A

The first step is to apply a cervical collar.

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3
Q

Define the hemodynamic changes indicating hypovolemia in emergency surgery

A

Pulse change is the first indicator, followed by a drop in blood pressure after at least 20-25 blood loss.

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4
Q

How is pericardial tamponade diagnosed and treated in emergency surgery?

A

Diagnosis includes distended neck veins, high central venous pressure, and treatment involves immediate pericardiocentesis.

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of tension pneumothorax in emergency surgery?

A

It presents with distended neck veins, high central venous pressure, respiratory distress, absent breath sounds, and tracheal deviation.

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6
Q

Do you know the management steps for flail chest in emergency surgery?

A

Treatment includes pain control, supplemental oxygen, strapping the chest, and positive pressure mechanical ventilation.

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7
Q

How is traumatic aortic rupture managed in emergency surgery?

A

It requires surgery and is usually caused by severe trauma to the chest wall, often at the descending aorta.

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8
Q

Describe the diagnosis and treatment of epidural hematoma in emergency surgery

A

It occurs after side head trauma, involves rupture of the middle meningeal artery, and presents with specific symptoms requiring urgent surgical intervention.

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9
Q

What are the indications for surgery in head trauma cases in emergency surgery?

A

Comminuted or depressed skull fractures require surgical intervention, while closed fractures with no symptoms may not need treatment.

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10
Q

Describe the honeymoon period in head trauma patients.

A

It is the period when the patient immediately awakes and appears normal after the injury.

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11
Q

What are the typical signs of Cushing’s reflex in head trauma patients with increased intracranial pressure?

A

Hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory depression.

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12
Q

Define subdural hematoma.

A

It is bleeding from the venous system, often caused by head trauma, leading to fluctuating consciousness, gradual headaches, memory loss, and personality changes. Long period of loss of consciousness

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13
Q

How is a subdural hematoma diagnosed?

A

Through a CT scan showing a concave crescent-shaped hematoma.

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14
Q

What is the treatment approach for subdural hematoma if lateralizing signs and midline displacement are present?

A

Emergency craniotomy.

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15
Q

Describe diffuse axonal injury.

A

It results from acceleration-deceleration injuries to the head, leading to deep unconsciousness and a terrible prognosis.

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16
Q

What is the recommended management for elevated intracranial pressure?

A

Head elevation, hyperventilation, avoiding fluid overload, and using medications like mannitol and furosemide.

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17
Q

What is the first step in managing penetrating abdominal trauma?

A

Controlling the site of bleeding by applying direct pressure.

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18
Q

What should be done if an object is embedded in a patient with penetrating trauma?

A

Never remove it in the ER; only remove it in the operating room under general anesthesia.

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19
Q

Describe the priority in managing abdominal trauma after controlling bleeding.

A

Fluid resuscitation with normal saline and setting up large gauge IV lines.

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20
Q

What is the recommended type of fluid for blood transfusion in abdominal trauma?

A

Even where there is significant disruption of solid organs with haemodynamic insatiability conservative management is usually possible with adequate resuscitiation.
Conservative management implies close and continuous observation, and is not the easy option. It should only be undertaken only in an institution where rapid access to surgical intervention is available at all times.

ABCDE
Fluid resuscitation with 20 ml / kg normal saline or Hartmans.
Second bolus of fluid as above, if required (see chapter 1.18).
If further boluses of fluid are required, use blood.
Immediate further SURGICAL review.
Pass orogastric tube.
All patients with free intraperitoneal air require a laparotomy.
All penetrating wounds should be explored in theatre under general anaesthetic (see chapter 1.9).
Intra-peritoneal bleeding is not an indication for laparotomy, so Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL) has no significant role in children.
Children with a history of significant trauma or high impact trauma should be admitted for observation even in the absence of examination findings. Racgp

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21
Q

When should a knife at the chest be removed in a trauma scenario?

A

Only in the operation room after specific steps like intubation, chest tube insertion, and under general anesthesia.

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22
Q

Describe the procedure for intraosseous cannulation in children.

A

Intraosseous cannulation in children is typically performed in the proximal tibia.

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23
Q

What is the recommended initial bolus fluid for children in trauma situations?

A

.

Choice of Fluid
The preferred fluid type for IV maintenance is sodium chloride 0.9% with glucose 5%

Alternative maintenance fluid options include:
Plasma-Lyte 148 with glucose 5% (contains 5 mmol/L of potassium) - generally stocked in tertiary paediatric centres and intensive care
Hartmann’s with glucose 5%
Glucose 5% should be given in maintenance fluids for children with no other source of glucose. Racgp

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24
Q

List the most commonly affected organs in blunt abdominal trauma after a car accident involving a restrained driver.

A

The spleen, liver, and kidney are the most commonly affected organs in blunt abdominal trauma.

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25
Q

What are the clinical presentations of internal bleeding in blunt abdominal trauma?

A

Clinical presentations of internal bleeding in blunt abdominal trauma include hypotension, tachycardia, abdominal wall ecchymosis, abdominal rigidity, and tenderness.

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26
Q

What does the FAST exam stand for in trauma assessment?

A

The FAST exam stands for Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma.

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27
Q

When is the FAST exam typically performed in trauma patients?

A

The FAST exam is performed in unstable trauma patients.

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28
Q

What is the purpose of a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL) in trauma assessment?

A

DPL is done to evaluate for hemoperitoneum in trauma patients.

29
Q

Describe the role of CT with contrast in stable trauma patients.

A

CT with contrast is used in stable trauma patients to detect liver, splenic, or kidney injuries.

30
Q

What is the most common injured organ in spleen injuries?

A

The spleen is the most commonly injured organ in trauma injuries.

31
Q

Explain the significance of left upper quadrant abdominal pain in spleen injuries.

A

Left upper quadrant abdominal pain is a significant symptom in spleen injuries.

32
Q

Describe the management of liver trauma in most cases.

A

Most cases of liver trauma heal by conservative treatment.

33
Q

What are the common clinical presentations of kidney injury?

A

Common clinical presentations of kidney injury include hematuria and flank pain.

34
Q

What is the preferred imaging modality for kidney injury assessment?

A

CT with contrast is the preferred imaging modality for kidney injury assessment.

35
Q

In acute abdomen cases, what is the recommended imaging for esophageal perforation?

A

Gastrograffin contrast esophagogram is the recommended imaging for esophageal perforation.

36
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction overall?

A

Hernia is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction overall.

37
Q

Describe the complications associated with a femoral hernia.

A

Femoral hernias are known to complicate and cause intestinal obstruction.

38
Q

What is the common cause of intestinal obstruction in patients with a history of prior surgery?

A

Adhesions are a common cause of intestinal obstruction in patients with a history of prior surgery.

39
Q

Explain the significance of sudden abdominal pain in elderly patients with a history of volvulus.

A

Sudden abdominal pain in elderly patients with a history of volvulus is significant and indicative of a specific condition.

40
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of diverticulitis.

A

Colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distension, diffuse tenderness, hyperactive bowel sounds due to peristaltic rush.

41
Q

What is the diagnostic approach for intestinal obstruction?

A

Abdominal x-ray showing dilated bowel loops with multiple air fluid levels, followed by CT scan.

42
Q

How is fecal impaction typically managed?

A

Enema is the main treatment, along with manual removal; surgery is rarely needed.

  1. Initial Approach:
    • Manual disimpaction: Breaking up and removing the impacted stool manually.
  2. Medications:
    • Laxatives: Osmotic or stimulant laxatives to soften the stool and stimulate bowel movements.
    • Enemas: Saline or phosphate enemas to soften and expel the stool.
  3. Supportive Measures:
    • Hydration: Ensure adequate fluid intake.
    • Dietary Changes: Increase dietary fiber.
  4. Follow-up and Prevention:
    • Regular monitoring.
    • Implement long-term bowel management strategies to prevent recurrence.

For more detailed information, refer to the RACGP guidelines on fecal impaction management.

43
Q

Define volvulus and specify the common site of occurrence.

A

Volvulus is the twisting of a loop of the intestine, with the sigmoid colon being the most common site.

44
Q

What distinguishes the clinical presentation of volvulus from fecal impaction?

A

Volvulus presents with sudden onset symptoms, while fecal impaction is characterized by long-standing constipation and fecal soiling.

45
Q

Describe the management of intussusception.

A

Hydrostatic reduction, often performed with a barium or air enema, is the preferred diagnostic and therapeutic procedure.

46
Q

What are the common causes of paralytic ileus?

A

Abdominal operations, spine fracture, electrolyte imbalances (hypokalemia, uremia, DKA), and peritonitis.

47
Q

What are the clinical features of intestinal pseudoobstruction?

A

Abdominal pain, nausea, severe distension, vomiting, dysphagia, diarrhea, and constipation are common symptoms.

48
Q

How does fecal impaction differ from volvulus in terms of presentation?

A

Fecal impaction is more common and presents with symptoms related to chronic constipation and fecal soiling, while volvulus has a sudden onset and empty rectum on examination.

49
Q

Describe Kawasaki disease.

A

Kawasaki disease is an illness that causes inflammation in the walls of medium-sized arteries throughout the body, most commonly affecting children.

50
Q

Define Parkinson’s disease.

A

Parkinson’s disease is a progressive nervous system disorder that affects movement, characterized by tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with balance.

51
Q

How is acute diverticulitis diagnosed?

A

Acute diverticulitis is diagnosed through a CT scan, with contrast studies or endoscopy not recommended during the acute phase.

52
Q

Do you treat acute appendicitis with antibiotics before appendectomy?

A

Yes, IV antibiotics are typically administered before performing an appendectomy for acute appendicitis.

53
Q

Describe the Psoas sign in the context of appendiceal perforations.

A

The Psoas sign involves flexion of the hip against resistance and is seen in cases of localized right lower quadrant findings more than 10 days after the onset of appendicitis.

54
Q

What is the first step in managing toxic megacolon in ulcerative colitis?

A

The first step in managing toxic megacolon is decompression and fluid resuscitation.

55
Q

How is ischemic colitis diagnosed?

A

Ischemic colitis is diagnosed through angiography.

56
Q

Define surgical jaundice.

A

Surgical jaundice refers to obstructive jaundice caused by conditions like tumors, leading to bile flow obstruction.

57
Q

What is the investigation of choice for diagnosing choledocholithiasis?

A

The investigation of choice for diagnosing choledocholithiasis is abdominal ultrasound or sonogram.

58
Q

Describe biliary colic.

A

Biliary colic is characterized by colicky pain in the upper right quadrant that radiates to the right shoulder and back, often associated with gallstones.

59
Q

Describe acute cholecystitis

A

Inflammation of gallbladder often caused by a stone blocking the cystic duct, leading to constant pain in the right upper quadrant, fever, leukocytosis, and peritoneal irritation.

60
Q

What is the most important investigation for gallbladder stones?

A

Ultrasound (US).

61
Q

How is acute ascending cholangitis managed?

A

With IV antibiotics and IV fluids, emergency decompression of the common bile duct via ERCP, and subsequent cholecystectomy.

62
Q

Define postcholecystectomy syndrome

A

The presence of abdominal symptoms such as dyspepsia, nausea, vomiting, flatulence, bloating, diarrhea, and persistent pain in the upper right abdomen after cholecystectomy.

63
Q

Describe priapism

A

A medical emergency characterized by a painful and persistent erection caused by engorged corpora cavernosa, often due to venous disorders.

64
Q

What is the first-line treatment for priapism?

A

Repeated saline flushing.

65
Q

What is the cause of a fractured penis?

A

Usually hard sex, often involving a prostitute, leading to a snapping sound and severe pain, requiring immediate surgery.

66
Q

How are gallbladder stones managed if symptomatic?

A

Surgery is indicated once symptoms are present.

67
Q

Define obstructive jaundice

A

A condition where there is obstruction of the common bile duct, leading to high levels of alkaline phosphatase, total and direct bilirubin, fever, and very high WBC count.

68
Q

What is the most common organism causing acute ascending cholangitis?

A

E. coli.