Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AMC MCQ - Key points > GI brief > Flashcards

GI brief Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the first step in the management of a patient with hematemesis.

A

Establish an IV line and administer normal saline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If pt needs blood: hametestmessis

A

packed RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the investigation of choice for hematemesis?

A

Upper GI endoscopy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the diagnosis for an infant with persistent non-bilious vomiting starting at 2-6 weeks, marked dehydration, and weight loss?

A

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (CHPS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inv of choice of CHPS:

A

US.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment of CHPS?

A

First correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, then consider surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • Vomiting at 2-6 Ws+ marked dehydration, bad general condition:
A

CHPS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • Vomiting at 2-6 Ws+ NO dehydration, good general condition:
A

GERD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the presentation of a patient with acquired pyloric stenosis.

A

Long-standing history of peptic ulcer disease, recurrent vomiting occurring 1 hour after a meal, and a succussion splash on physical exam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the first most common cause of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A

H. pylori infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the second most common cause of PUD?

A

Smoking (other causes include stress, alcohol, NSAIDs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inv of choice of PUD:

A

upper GI endoscopy (biopsy only from gastric cancer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the regimen for eradicating H. pylori?

A

Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, proton pump inhibitor (PPI).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is metronidazole removed from the regimen for H. pylori eradication?

A

Due to bacterial resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the follow-up test after treatment for H. pylori infection?

A

Urea breath test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the best advice for a patient with PUD?

A

Stop smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

TTT of Pt with PUD develops hematemesis:

A

1st step: IV line& normal saline. If need blood: packed RBCs.

Then: endoscopy& injection of adrenaline or heat probe if visible bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the first step in the treatment of a patient with PUD who develops hematemesis.

A

Establish an IV line, administer normal saline, and consider packed red blood cells if needed. Then proceed to endoscopy and consider injection of adrenaline or heat probe if visible bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pt with PUD develops severe abdominal pain referred to back:

A

perforation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first step investigation in suspected perforation in a patient with PUD?

A

Perform an erect x-ray to check for air under the diaphragm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TTT of perforation:

A

resuscitation 1st & then surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the symptoms of early dumping syndrome?

A

Nausea, abdominal pain, fullness, diarrhea, and flushing within 1 hour after a meal. mainly due to hypovelemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the symptoms of late dumping syndrome?

A

Symptoms occurring 1-3 hours after eating, mainly due to hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for dumping syndrome?

A

Diet modification, including light frequent meals with decreased carbohydrate content.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the treatment of choice for morbid obesity with a BMI over 35.

A

Surgery, specifically gastric band ligation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the diagnosis when a patient with a history of gastric band ligation presents with severe vomiting?

A

Band slip.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the preferred investigation for band slip after gastric band ligation?

A

Barium meal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is band slip typically treated?

A

Surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define the prophylaxis for bleeding of esophageal varices.

A

Beta-blockers (BBs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the treatment for ruptured esophageal varices, similar to upper GI bleeding, along with Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)?

A

Same as upper GI bleeding + FFP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the likely condition when an exam shows peri-anal swelling in a patient with bleeding per rectum and the bleeding is painless.

A

Piles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the probable diagnosis when an exam reveals peri-anal swelling in a patient with painful bleeding per rectum?

A

Peri-anal hematoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Old pt with bleeding per rectum DT piles:

A

colonoscopy is a MUST.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How should recurrent pilo-nidal sinus be managed effectively?

A

Radical excision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define the most common cause of peri-anal fistula.

A

Anal abscess.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the most common cause of recurrent peri-anal fistula?

A

Crohn’s disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MCC of multiple anal fissures:

A

chrone’s disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe the most important examination for a patient with an anal fissure.

A

Just inspection (No digital rectal examination).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the primary treatment for an anal fissure?

A

Local glyceryl trinitrate cream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How should an anal fissure in Crohn’s disease be managed?

A

Infliximab.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most likely cause when a mother reports finding blood in her infant’s diaper?

A

Anal fissure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the most common causes of bleeding per rectum overall.

A

Piles and fissure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the most common cause of bleeding per rectum in infants?

A

Anal fissure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MCC in adult: bleeding per rectum

A

upper GIT bleeding (peptic ulcer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Another MCC in adult:bleeding

A

MCC in adult: diverticulosis (cancer must be excluded).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

BPR in pt with AF:

A

ischemic colitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

1st episode of BPR in old pt: investigation.

A

colonoscopy is a MUST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How should bleeding per rectum be managed initially?

A

IV line and normal saline; administer packed RBCs if needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the next step if upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy fail to reveal the site of bleeding?

A

Capsule endoscopy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Define the most common hernia to complicate.

A

femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a significant sign indicating a complication of a hernia?

A

No impulse on cough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe the diagnosis when a patient with a hernia develops vomiting, absolute constipation, and abdominal distension.

A

Intestinal obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the initial step in suspected intestinal obstruction?

A

Abdominal x-ray followed by surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What condition is likely when abdominal swelling is observed below the scar of a previous surgery?

A

Incisional hernia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

MC PF of incisional:

A

hematoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Examination of incisional hernia:

A

ask pt to stand and cough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe the management of an infant with an irreducible inguinal hernia.

A

Surgery as soon as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. If obstruction or strangulation:
A

immediate surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the ‘rule of 6-2’ in the treatment of reducible inguinal hernias in infants?

A

Birth to 6 weeks: surgery in 2 days. 6 weeks to 6 months: in 2 weeks. More than 6 months: in 2 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Umbilical hernia in pediatric:

A

observe if< 4 ys & surgery if > 4 ys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How is a patient with divarication of recti diagnosed?

A

Rising up without support.

62
Q

What is the recommended treatment for divarication of recti?

A

Physiotherapy.

63
Q

What is the most important step in the treatment of a child who ingests a corrosive substance?

A

Endoscopy within 24 hours.

64
Q

Long term TTT of corrosive injury:

A

dilators.

65
Q

Describe the first-line investigation for achalasia.

A

Barium study.

66
Q

What is the preferred investigation for achalasia?

A

Manometry.

67
Q

How is achalasia typically treated?

A

Surgery with ‘Heller myotomy’.

68
Q

What is the treatment of choice for achalasia in elderly patients who are not fit for surgery?

A

Dilators.

69
Q

What is the diagnosis for a young female experiencing attacks of dysphagia and chest pain?

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm.

70
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of esophageal spasm on a barium study?

A

Corkscrew appearance.

71
Q

What is the treatment for esophageal spasm?

A

Nitroglycerine, Calcium Channel Blockers.

72
Q

Describe the diagnosis for a patient with dysphagia, heartburn, and food impaction, with a history of atopic or autoimmune diseases.

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis.

73
Q

What is the preferred investigation for eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Upper GI endoscopy.

74
Q

What is the first-line medical treatment for eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Diet modification. PPI is the first-line medical treatment.

75
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient presenting with heartburn, regurgitation, and retrosternal discomfort?

A

GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease).

76
Q

Describe the best investigation for GERD.

A

24-hour pH monitoring.

77
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for GERD?

A

Conservative
Proton pump inhibitors are the drugs of first choice, given initially once in the morning at standard dose (omeprazole 20 mg, pantoprazole 40 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg, rabepra- zole 20 mg).
https://www.racgp.org.au › …PDF
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease - RACGP

78
Q

What is the first-line medical treatment for GERD?

A

PPI (Proton Pump Inhibitors).

79
Q

What is the investigation of choice for severe cases of GERD?

A

Upper GI endoscopy.

80
Q

Describe the diagnosis for a patient with intermittent dysphagia, postprandial pain, and palpitations.

A

Hiatal Hernia (para-esophageal hernia).

81
Q

What is the preferred investigation for hiatal hernia?

A

Barium study.

82
Q

What is the treatment of choice for hiatal hernia?

A

Surgery.

83
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with prolonged GERD who develops dysphagia and experiences relief of heartburn?

A

Esophageal stricture.

84
Q

Describe the investigation of choice for esophageal stricture.

A

Upper GI endoscopy.

85
Q

What condition is a patient with long-standing GERD at risk of developing?

A

Barrett’s esophagus (precancerous; risk adenocarcinoma of the esophagus)

86
Q

What is the investigation of choice for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus?

A

Endoscopy

87
Q

If metaplasia is detected, what is the recommended procedure?

A

Biopsy

88
Q

What is the suggested action if low-grade dysplasia is found during endoscopy for esophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

Repeat the endoscopy every 6 months

6 months
If LGD persists, consider referral for endoscopic therapy; otherwise, repeat endoscopy every 6 months until clear of dysplasia

89
Q

What is the recommended treatment for high-grade dysplasia in esophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

Ablation or surgery

90
Q

What is the best treatment for esophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

PPI (Proton Pump Inhibitors) - very important

91
Q

Describe the typical patient presentation for esophageal cancer.

A

Old male smoker, alcoholic with recent dysphagia, weight loss

92
Q

What is the most common type of esophageal cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

93
Q

What is the most important risk factor for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus?

A

Barrett’s esophagus

94
Q

Alcoholic vomit up blood after violent retchingor vomiting…

A

Dx: Mallory weiss $.

95
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic procedure for conditions like Mallory-Weiss tears?

A

Endoscopy

96
Q

What is the main treatment approach for Mallory-Weiss tears?

A

Conservative management; if bleeding persists: cauterization or epinephrine injection

97
Q

Describe the presentation of Boerhaave syndrome.

A

Alcoholic with severe chest pain, pleural effusion after violent retching or vomiting hypotension

98
Q

What is the main treatment for Boerhaave syndrome?

A

Emergent surgery

99
Q

At what age should screening for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) start with colonoscopy?

A

12 years old

100
Q

What is the fate of individuals with FAP?

A

100% develop cancer

101
Q

What is the main treatment approach for FAP once polyps start to appear?

A

Surgery

102
Q

What syndrome is characterized by FAP, epidermoid cysts, desmoid tumors, and osteomas?

A

Gardner’s syndrome

103
Q

What syndrome involves hamartomatous polyps of the colon, lip pigmentation?

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

104
Q

What is the most common premalignant colonic adenoma?

A

Villous adenoma

105
Q

Which type of colonic adenoma is most likely to cause electrolyte disturbances?

A

Villous adenoma

106
Q

Which type of colonic polyp has the least malignant potential?

A

Tubular adenoma

107
Q

What are the most common symptoms of cancer in the cecum?

A

Anemia, pallor, and fatigue

108
Q

What are the most common symptoms of cancer in the rectum?

A

Bleeding per rectum

109
Q

What are the most common symptoms of cancer in the left colon?

A

Altered bowel habits

110
Q

What is the preferred investigation for colon cancer?

A

Colonoscopy

111
Q

What should be considered in an old male with iron deficiency anemia?

A

Colon cancer until proven otherwise

In an older male with iron deficiency anemia, several key considerations should be taken into account to identify the underlying cause:

  1. Gastrointestinal Bleeding:
    • Colorectal Cancer: This is a significant concern and should be ruled out through appropriate screening, including colonoscopy.
    • Gastric Ulcers: Upper GI endoscopy can help detect peptic ulcers or other sources of upper GI bleeding.
    • Diverticulosis: Common in older adults and can lead to chronic blood loss.
  2. Dietary Insufficiency:
    • Assess dietary intake to ensure that there is sufficient iron intake. This is less common but should still be considered.
  3. Malabsorption Syndromes:
    • Celiac Disease: Can lead to poor absorption of iron from the diet.
    • Atrophic Gastritis: Common in the elderly and can affect iron absorption.
  4. Chronic Diseases:
    • Chronic kidney disease, heart failure, or chronic inflammatory diseases can contribute to anemia of chronic disease, which may coexist with iron deficiency.
  5. Medications:
    • Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and anticoagulants can cause GI bleeding.
  1. History and Physical Examination:
    • Detailed history of GI symptoms, medication use, and dietary habits.
    • Physical examination focusing on signs of chronic disease or GI pathology.
  2. Laboratory Tests:
    • Complete blood count (CBC) with iron studies (serum iron, ferritin, total iron-binding capacity).
    • Stool occult blood test to check for hidden GI bleeding.
  3. Endoscopic Procedures:
    • Colonoscopy: To rule out colorectal cancer and other sources of lower GI bleeding.
    • Upper GI Endoscopy: To detect upper GI sources of bleeding.
  4. Other Imaging:
    • If endoscopy is inconclusive, consider imaging studies like CT enterography to evaluate the small intestine.

For more detailed information, refer to the RACGP guidelines and other authoritative sources such as:
- RACGP Clinical Guidelines: Iron Deficiency Anaemia
- UpToDate: Evaluation of Iron Deficiency in Adults

112
Q

What is the first step in the evaluation of a patient with suspected colon cancer?

A

FOBT (Fecal Occult Blood Test); if positive finding: colonoscopy

  1. Initial Assessment:
    • History: Detailed medical and family history.
    • Physical Examination: Includes a digital rectal exam.
  2. Screening Tests:
    • Fecal Occult Blood Test (FOBT).
    • Fecal Immunochemical Test (FIT).
  3. Diagnostic Procedures:
    • Colonoscopy: Gold standard for diagnosis.
    • Flexible Sigmoidoscopy: If colonoscopy is not available.
    • CT Colonography: Alternative if colonoscopy is not possible.
  4. Imaging Studies:
    • CT Scan: Abdomen and pelvis.
    • MRI: For local spread, especially in rectal cancer.
  5. Laboratory Tests:
    • Complete Blood Count (CBC).
    • Liver Function Tests.
    • Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA).
  6. Multidisciplinary Team Review:
    • Refer for further management and treatment planning.

For more details, refer to the RACGP guidelines.

113
Q

What is the initial step for high-risk patients in colon cancer screening?

A

Colonoscopy from the beginning

114
Q

What is the recommended treatment sequence for colon cancer patients?

A

Chemotherapy and radiotherapy pre-operatively, followed by chemotherapy post-operatively

115
Q

What is the follow-up protocol after surgery for colon cancer?

A

Colonoscopy every year and CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen)

116
Q

Old age with prolonged constipation develops painless bleeding per rectum

A

Diverticulosis.

117
Q

What is the most common site for diverticulosis?

A

Sigmoid colon

118
Q

What is the main treatment approach for diverticulosis?

A

Increase fiber diet

119
Q

Describe the presentation of a patient who develops fever and left lower quadrant pain. What is the likely diagnosis in this case?

A

Patient with diverticulosis presenting with fever and LLQ pain is likely diagnosed with acute diverticulitis.

120
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for investigating acute diverticulitis?

A

CT scan is the imaging modality of choice for acute diverticulitis.

121
Q

What is the initial treatment approach for acute diverticulitis, focusing on intravenous fluids and antibiotics? What is the next step if perforation occurs?

A

Initial treatment for acute diverticulitis involves conservative management with IV fluids and antibiotics. Surgery is indicated in case of perforation.

122
Q

Define the most common cause of painless rectal bleeding in the elderly population.

A

Diverticulosis is the most common cause of painless rectal bleeding in the elderly.

123
Q

Describe the typical symptoms seen in a patient with chronic abdominal pain, distension, and alternating diarrhea and constipation.

A

Symptoms of IBS include chronic abdominal pain, distension, and alternating diarrhea and constipation.

124
Q

What is the recommended drug for treating IBS?

A

The drug of choice for treating IBS is an SSRI.

125
Q

What is the most common cause of bloody diarrhea?

A

Campylobacter is the most common cause of bloody diarrhea.

126
Q

What is the second most common cause of bloody diarrhea?

A

Shigella is the second most common cause of bloody diarrhea.

127
Q

How would you manage traveler’s diarrhea caused by E. coli?

A

Traveler’s diarrhea caused by E. coli is managed mainly with fluid replacement.

128
Q

Describe the most common cause of diarrhea in pediatric patients.

A

The most common cause of diarrhea in pediatrics is viral infections.

129
Q

What is the most common virus causing diarrhea in children?

A

Rotavirus is the most common virus causing diarrhea in kids.

130
Q

What neurological condition can present with diarrhea followed by weakness and areflexia?

A

Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) can present with diarrhea followed by weakness and areflexia.

131
Q

What condition is characterized by diarrhea followed by renal impairment?

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) is characterized by diarrhea followed by renal impairment.

132
Q

Describe the presentation of a patient with bloody diarrhea followed by right upper quadrant pain. What is the likely causative agent?

A

Bloody diarrhea followed by RUQ pain is suggestive of amebic infection.

133
Q

What parasite is commonly associated with diarrhea after camping activities?

A

Giardia is commonly associated with diarrhea after camping.

134
Q

Describe the typical presentation of chronic bloody diarrhea in a young male. What condition is often implicated in this scenario?

A

Chronic bloody diarrhea in a young male is often associated with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS).

135
Q

What is a common cause of diarrhea following prolonged antibiotic use?

A

Clostridium difficile infection is a common cause of diarrhea following prolonged antibiotic use.

136
Q

How would you treat Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Clostridium difficile infection is treated with metronidazole or vancomycin.

137
Q

What antibiotic is commonly associated with causing Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Clindamycin is commonly associated with causing Clostridium difficile infection.

138
Q

Diarrhea after eggs or chicken

A

salmonella

139
Q

Diarrhea just hours after meal…..

A

staph toxin

140
Q

Diarrhea in bed ridden with constipation…

A

fecal impaction

141
Q

Main ttt of diarrhea…..

A

fluid

142
Q

Describe the treatment approach for Staphylococcal toxin-induced diarrhea.

A

Staphylococcal toxin-induced diarrhea is primarily managed with fluid replacement.

143
Q

TTT of traveler diarrhea…..

A

fluid only

144
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Shigella or Campylobacter infections?

A

Antibiotics are the treatment of choice for Shigella or Campylobacter infections. Ciproflaxin

145
Q

How would you manage diarrhea caused by Entamoeba histolytica or Giardia lamblia?

A

Diarrhea caused by Entamoeba histolytica or Giardia lamblia is managed with metronidazole.

146
Q

Describe the diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis in a patient with severe watery diarrhea after prolonged antibiotic use. What is the causative organism?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis is diagnosed in a patient with severe watery diarrhea after prolonged antibiotic use, commonly caused by Clostridium difficile.

147
Q

MC antibiotic causing pseudomembranous colitis :

A

clindamycin.

148
Q

If mild diarrhea………..
Clostridium defficle

A

just fluid

149
Q

What is the first-line medical treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Metronidazole is the first-line medical treatment for pseudomembranous colitis.

150
Q

What is the next step if diarrhea persists after treatment with metronidazole for pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Oral vancomycin is the next step if diarrhea persists after treatment with metronidazole for pseudomembranous colitis.

AMC MCQ - Key points (49 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions