Pharmacology general- less important Flashcards

1
Q

Alkaloids drug word ending

A

End in “ine”

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2
Q

Glycosides end in

A

-in

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3
Q

Cream

A

A semisolid preparation of oil, water, and a medicinal agent.

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4
Q

Parenteral administration (general)

A

Injection
Approximately 10 routes
the most commonly used are the intramuscular, subcutaneous, and IV routes

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5
Q

Commonly used needle gauges for dogs and cats

A

Dogs: 20, 21, 22, 25
Cats: 22, 25

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6
Q

Commonly used needles for large animals

A

Swine:16, 18
Cattle: 16, 18
Horse: 16, 18, 20

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7
Q

Commonly used needles for small exotics

A

23, 25, 27

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8
Q

Guidelines for Parenteral Doses Cats IM

A

Cats weighing less than 9 lb (4.09 kg), 0.5 to 1 mL
Cats weighing more than 9 lb (4.09 kg), 1 to 1.5 mL

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9
Q

Guidelines for Parenteral Doses Dogs IM

A
  • Dogs weighing up to 10 lb (4.55 kg), 0.5 to 1 mL
  • Dogs weighing 10 (4.55 kg) to 30 lb (13.64 kg), 1 to 2 mL
  • Dogs weighing more than 30 lb (13.64 kg), 2 to 4 mL
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10
Q

List Topical routes of medication

A

Transdermal Route
Topical Ophthalmic
Aural Route
(this card seems incomplete)

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11
Q

Drugs affect the nervous system by (edit)

A

*Imitating neurotransmitters
*Interfering with neurotransmitter release
*Blocking the attachment of neurotransmitter release
*Interfering with breakdown or reuptake of neurotransmitters at a synapse

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12
Q

Thiopental

A

Barbiturate
It is alkaline, which means that it is tissue irritating and must be given IV, and should be given slowly.

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13
Q

Three Categories of tranquillizers

A

alpha-2 agonists
adrenergic blocking agents,
drugs that depress the thalamus and hypothalamus.

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14
Q

What part of the CNS do dissociative agents impact

A

*Depress the thalamus and cerebral cortex.

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15
Q
A
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16
Q

Norepinephrine:

A

Its primary influence is that of a vasopressor (to raise blood pressure).

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17
Q

Dopamine

A

is a precursor of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
used to treat shock and congestive heart failure
increase renal perfusion.
Increases blood pressure and cardiac output.

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18
Q

Alpha Blockers NEEDS EDITING

A

Alpha blockers have had limited use in veterinary medicine.
Adrenergic (Sympatholytic) Blocking Agents
* Yohimbine is used for xylazine antagonism.
* Acepromazine: causes vasodilation. It is used as a sedative, tranquilizer, and preanesthetic adjunct.

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19
Q

Benzodiazepine Derivatives

A

CNS system
Diazepam works through depression of the thalamus and hypothalamus (most important thing to remember)
Diazepam is an example
produces sedation, muscle relaxation, appetite stimulation (especially in cats), and anticonvulsant activity.

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20
Q

Inhalant Anesthetics

A
  • converted from a liquid to a gaseous phase by an anesthetic vaporizer
    *produce unconsciousness, analgesia, and muscle relaxation through mechanisms not fully understood. (Key point)
    *They enter and exit the body through the lungs
    *Characteristics important to the understanding of inhalant agents include the MAC, partition coefficient, and vapor pressure
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21
Q

benzodiazepines interact with

A

bind with and promote GABA activity in the cerebral cortex and in subcortical areas

Diazepam, alprazolam, and lorazepam

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22
Q

Move
Azapirones

A

Anti-anxiety
Its antianxiety effect is thought to be caused by blocking serotonin receptors.
It possesses no muscle relaxant, anticonvulsant, or sedative effects.

Buspirone

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23
Q

Move
Dexmedetomidine Oromucosal Gel

A

It binds with the alpha-2 receptors in the brainstem, preventing release of norepinephrine
Decreased levels of norepinephrine reduce the levels of anxiety and fear.

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24
Q

Dexmedetomidine Oromucosal Gel

A

It binds with the alpha-2 receptors in the brainstem, preventing release of norepinephrine
Decreased levels of norepinephrine reduce the levels of anxiety and fear.

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25
Q

treatments of the respiratory system include the following:

A

Control of secretions—
Control of reflexes—suppression of nonproductive coughing
Maintaining airflow to the alveoli (lung cells that contain air)

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26
Q

Control of respiratory secretions medication

A

agents designed to loosen mucus (mucolytics) or decrease secretions through eliminating the cause of added secretions

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27
Q

Control of reflexes respiratory- medication

A

—suppression of nonproductive coughing

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28
Q

To maintain airflow to the alveoli (lung cells that contain air)

A

Block bronchoconstriction or use breathing machines to help get air into the lungs

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29
Q
A
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30
Q

Doxapram

A

A central nervous system stimulant that’s used after anesthesia to help stimulate breathing or treating newborn animals.

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31
Q

Cromolyn sodium

A

A mast cell stabilizer that prevents histamine release and is used to treat allergic airway disease. Naloxone is used to stimulate breathing in narcotic overdoses. Yobine is used to stimulate respiration in a xylazine overdose

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32
Q

Ventilation (respiratory pharmacology)

A

*movement of air into and out of the lungs.
– inspiratory portion of ventilation is usually an active process
—Forced inspiration may be associated with upper airway obstruction
– expiration is usually a passive process.
—–active expiration may be related to intrathoracic airway obstruction.

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33
Q

Distribution (respiratory pharmacology)

A

distributing of inspired gases throughout the lungs.

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34
Q

Diffusion (respiratory pharmacology)

A

movement of gases across the alveolar membrane.

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35
Q

Perfusion (respiratory pharmacology)

A

supply of blood to the alveoli. The ratio of perfusion to ventilation of the alveoli is normally close to 1:1.

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36
Q

Loop diuretics

A

Highly potent diuretics that inhibit the tubular (kidney)reabsorption of sodium.
Act rapidly
Promote the excretion of chloride, potassium, and water. Some patients receiving long-term loop diuretic therapy may also need potassium supplementation.

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37
Q

Osmotic diuretics

A

Administered intravenously exerts high osmotic pressure in the kidney tubules and Osmotic diuretics limiting tubular reabsorption causing diuresis .

Water is drawn into the glomerular filtrate, which reduces its reabsorption rate and increases the excretion of water

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38
Q

Thiazide Diuretics

A

Thiazide diuretics reduce edema by inhibiting reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and water. Their duration of action is longer than that of loop diuretics.

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39
Q

Potassium-Sparing Diuretics

A

Have weaker diuretic and antihypertensive effects than other diuretics; therefore, they conserve potassium.

These agents are also referred to as aldosterone antagonists
This enhances the excretion of sodium and water and reduces the excretion of potassium.

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40
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

A

A cholinergic agent
It binds with receptors on smooth muscles, the
–permeability of the cell membrane changes
—– calcium and sodium enter cells
——- Depolarization of the cell membrane occurs, and muscle contraction is achieved.

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41
Q

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Physiology

A

Cells in the kidney release an enzyme called renin; renin converts angiotensinogen (produced in the liver) to angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is converted into angiotensin II by ACE. Angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands and causes retention of sodium and water.

42
Q

Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors (pharmacology)

A

Decrease the production of uric acid
used in combination with a rx diet for the dissolution of ammonium acid urate uroliths (Stones).
Once dissolution occurs a long term rx diet prescribed

43
Q

urate calculolytic diet

A

Urate stones can dissolve.
Calculolytic diets decrease excretion of uric acid and ammonium ions, alkalinize urine, and increase urine volume.

44
Q

atonic, neuropathic urinary bladder.

A

No sense of fullness. Bladder expands Eventually urination occurs but it may cause damage to smooth muscle junctions

45
Q

Issues with improving contractibility of the heart

A

Uses up more oxygen
Can potentially become damaged
Is more likely to suffer from arrhythmias

46
Q

Digitalis

A

A Cardiac glycosides
Slows the rate of contraction
Increases the excitability of the heart muscle
Increases contractility

47
Q

Digitalis side effects/issues

A

Anorexia
Vomiting
Diarrhea
Various arrhythmias

Cats more sensitive than dogs
interacts with many other drugs

48
Q

Epinephrine should be diluted …

A

before administration to a 1:10,000 solution from its supplied 1:1000 form.

49
Q

Dopamine and it’s side effects (cardiac pharmacology)

A

is primarily used during anesthetic emergencies.
Administered as a constant rate infusion

Side effects include tachycardia, dyspnea, and wide ranges of blood pressure changes.

50
Q

Dobutamine (cardiac pharmacology)

A

Is selective for the beta-receptors of the heart, producing increased cardiac output with little tendency to cause arrhythmias or increased heart rate.

given through a drip intravenous catheter as a constant rate infusion.

51
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs can be separated into six groups:

A

1A—quinidine, procainamide
1B—lidocaine
1C—not used
II—propranolol, atenolol, metoprolol (beta-blockers)
III—bretylium, amiodarone (These aren’t often used in veterinary medicine.)
IV—verapamil, nifedipine, diltiazem (calcium-channel blockers)

52
Q

Hydralazine (cardiology)

A

An arteriolar dilator that acts directly on smooth muscle in the arterial wall.

Sometimes a diuretic is used with hydralazine, because the hydralazine may activate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and cause water retention

53
Q

Hydralazine side effects include the following:

A

Hypotension
Vomiting
Diarrhea
Sodium retention
Water retention
Tachycardia

54
Q

Prazosin and side effects

A

Combined dilator that acts by blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptor sites.
The venodilation reduces preload and the arteriolar dilation reduces afterload.

Side effects include hypotension, vomiting, and diarrhea.

55
Q

ACE inhibitors (cardiology)

A

combined vasodilators that act by blocking the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and are often used concurrently with digoxin and furosemide (Lasix).

56
Q

Furosemide (cardiology)

A

a very powerful diuretic of choice for dogs and cats. Long-term therapy with furosemide can cause hypokalemia.

57
Q

Spironolactone (cardiology)

A

works by inhibiting aldosterone and is potassium sparing
a diuretic

58
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs 1a

A

Depress myocardial excitability, prolong the refractory period, decrease automaticity, and increase conduction times.

59
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs 1B

A

Stabilize myocardial cell membranes. By blocking the influx of sodium into the cell, these drugs prevent depolarization and decrease cell automaticity

60
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs Class II

A

These drugs may be used to treat atrial or ventricular arrhythmias, decrease cardiac conduction, reduce cardiac output, and decrease blood pressure.

61
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs Class III

A

treats ventricular arrhythmias

62
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs Class IV

A

work by blocking the channels that permit entry of calcium ions through the cardiac cell membrane.

63
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone

A

(ACTH),
Produced in increasing amounts if pregnancy occurs
this causes the adrenal gland to release cortisol, which in turn leads to the production of estrogen and prostaglandins.

64
Q

Megestrol acetate

A

a progestin used to suppress estrous cycles in dogs.

65
Q

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

A

(MPA) is used to suppress estrous cycles in dogs and cats, and also to treat behavioral problems such as aggression, roaming, and urine spraying.

66
Q

Prostaglandins contraindictations

A

Monitor after administration for side effects, which usually are self-limiting and only last a short time
–panting, tachycardia, or vocalizing.
Be very careful with these drugs if you’re female and possibly pregnant or if you have asthma because these drugs can induce abortions or cause asthma attacks. get prostaglandins on your skin, wash them off right away

67
Q

Melatonin

A

Treats hormone-related hair loss in dogs
to induce sheep to start estrous cycles before their normal breeding season.

68
Q

Diagnosing diabetes mellitus

A

is complicated by the fact that some cats can increase their blood sugar levels as much as two to three times above normal levels if they’re very stressed while blood is collected. Persistently high blood sugar levels and glycosuria (high levels of sugar in the urine) are the hallmarks of diagnosing diabetes mellitus.

69
Q

All medical shampoos should

A

Remain lathered on the skin for a minimum of 10 minutes before rinsing

70
Q

Topical essential fatty acids

A

can help inflamed, itchy, flaky skin.
Examples: Dermoscent, Allerderm

71
Q

Phytosphingosine

A

is an agent that helps to normalize dry, inflamed itchy skin and is formulated in sprays, gels, and shampoos.

72
Q

Oral Fatty Acids

A

Omega-3 fatty acids in particular have been shown to decrease pruritis in some patients. The exact mechanism of action is unknown

73
Q

Tretinoin

A

Retin-A is a topical treatment that is useful to treat:
severe chin acne in cats
nasal and footpad keratosis (overgrowth of the epithelial surface) in dogs (rare)
acanthosis nigricans, a condition of dachshunds where the skin becomes very darkened and thickened, like “alligator skin.”

74
Q

Proud flesh treatment

A

Treatment with topical dexamethasone or caustic agents (which burn or eat away dead flesh) can help the wound heal normally, without excessive granulation tissue.

75
Q

Albendazole

A

An anthelmintic
can cause birth defects and should not be used in pregnant animals, especially during the first trimester.

76
Q

Tetrahydropyrimidines

A

commonly used dewormers for puppies, kittens, adult dogs & cats, cattle, sheep, goats, swine, and horses.
They have infrequent side effects.
Examples - , spyrantel pamoate (Nemex, Strongid-T)

77
Q

Profender

A

A topical solution for the treatment and control of hookworms, roundworms, and tapeworms in cats 8 weeks of age or older
Pregnant women should wear gloves when applying Profender to their cats.

78
Q

melarsomine dyhydrochloride injection

A

*part of the treatment for heartworm
–The drug is injected into the muscles of the lower back.
* The site should be watched for swelling or the presence of inflammatory nodules.
*This injection has to be in the muscle, or necrosis (tissue sloughing or falling off) will occur.

79
Q

Treatment of heartworms

A

*Day O- apply flea treament, begin a course of prednisone
* Day 1 -Administration of doxycycline antibiotics for 30 days and HWP
*Day 30- another HWP and begin waiting period
* Day 60 *injection of an arsenic compound.
–The only approved compound is melarsomine dyhydrochloride
*During the month or two following the injections, the dogs need to be restricted from exercise to prevent worms from breaking off and landing in the lung
*Day 90 - — Injection of an arsenic compound.
* Day 91 nIjection of an arsenic compound.
And treatment may continue from there depending on severity and HWT

80
Q

Organophosphates

A

are cholinesterase inhibitors that persist in the environment. Avoid the use of organophosphates in dogs with seizures,
Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime) are antidotal.
Organophosphate dips should never be used on cats.
Can cause cholinergic toxicity. Symptoms include SLUDGE, muscle tremors and miosis

81
Q

Drontal Plus

A

Effective against roundworms, hookworms, tapeworm, and whipworms.

82
Q

Profender

A

A topical solution for the treatment and control of hookworms, roundworms, and tapeworms in cats 8 weeks of age or older
Pregnant women should wear gloves when applying Profender to their cats.

83
Q

Selamectin

A

Revolution
protection against fleas, heartworms, and ear mites. Additionally, in dogs, it is indicated for sarcoptic mange

84
Q

Nitenpyram

A

capstar
kills fleas
dogs and cats over 4 weeks of age, and weighing more than 2 lb; it kills fleas within 30 minutes.

85
Q

Spinosad

A

kills fleas
comfortis and trifexis

86
Q

Cefovecin

A

Is a Cephalosporins
Is a long-acting injection used to treat skin infections, wounds, and abscesses in dogs and cats.

87
Q

Gentamicin

A

Used in solutions and ointments for the skin, eyes, and ears. Be sure that the tympanic membrane (eardrum) is intact before using ear treatments.

88
Q

too much inflammation can lead to

A

Bronchoconstriction (because of histamine release)
Anaphylactic shock
Cell death
Pain
Platelet aggregation (small disks of blood that cause thickening or clotting)

89
Q

Phenylbutazone

A

*A pyrazolone derivative that’s an analgesic anti-inflammatory and antipyrexic.
*Phenylbutazone is used in horses for lameness and pain associated with colic.
*It isn’t used as often in dogs and cattle
*its side effects include gastrointestinal bleeding and bone marrow suppression.
If given parentally, only IV. (subq can cause tissue necrosis)

90
Q

Flunixin meglumine

A

An analgesic, antipyrexic, and anti-inflammatory agent used in horses and cattle.
Used for colic in horses as it relieves abdominal pain exceedingly well.
It’s also believed to be antiendotoxic because it helps block the effects of endotoxins released by bacteria in horses. Horses on this drug need to be kept well hydrated to protect the kidneys and should be on some type of ulcer preventative to protect the stomach.

91
Q

Dimethyl sulfoxide

A

(DMSO)
DMSO relieves inflammation by trapping products associated with inflammation.
DMSO will also give you (and the animal) a garlic taste in the mouth.
DMSO is available as a topical gel, topical solution, and as drops to treat ear infections.
Wear gloves

92
Q

Grapiprant

A

Galliprant is
A unique NSAID used for dogs that inhibits specific prostaglandin receptors instead of inhibiting COX enzymes. The advantage ts that it can be used as a long-term arthritis treatment in dogs with liver and kidney disease.

93
Q

Polysulfated glycosaminoglycans

A

Helps to reduce degenerative changes induced by noninfectious arthritis.
Doesn’t reverse arthritic changes but may help stop the progression of the disease by strengthening the cartilage and reducing inflammatory mediators in the joint.
Adequan!

94
Q

Buprenorphine

A

Is a long-acting opioid used in cats and dogs.

Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist, blocking opioid receptors. It is used to treat overdoses of opioids or excessive sedation from the use of opioids.

95
Q

Tramadol

A

An opioid pain reliever for dogs
prescribed for many types of pain, including arthritis pain and post-surgery pain often in combination with oral NSAIDs.
Tramadol can be sedating and that can help keep dogs quiet and relaxed after surgery.

96
Q

Side effects and reversal agents of α-2 adrenergic Agents

A

Side effects of slow heart rate and low blood pressure are common, therefore they should not be used in animals with cardiovascular disease.

Reversal agents atipamezole (Antisdan) will reverse the sedative and anesthesia effects of dexmedetomidine, yohimbine will reverse the effects of xylazine.

97
Q

Ketamine

A

*a dissociative anesthetic that blocks NMDA receptors involved in relaying pain sensation to the brain.
*commonly used mixed with butorphanol and medetomidine to sedate cats.
*reversed with antepamazole

98
Q

Steroids in the body-

A

*The natural release of steroids in the body is controlled by the hypothalamic-adrenal-pituitary axis and also through a stress response mechanism.
*Corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF) is released from the hypothalamus when there are low levels of corticosteroids in the body.
*This causes the pituitary to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) into the blood, which causes the adrenal gland to produce more cortisol.
*A high level of cortisol in the blood inhibits the release of CRF and thus decreases the production of cortisol in the blood.
*The hypothalamus can’t distinguish between steroids produced by the body and steroids that are administered by veterinarians. Inappropriate dosing of steroids can really mess up this feedback system and lead to atrophy of the adrenal glands if too many steroids are used for too long a period.

99
Q

Adrenal gland

A

Is composed of three layers and each layer produces a different substance.

Zona glomerulosa—mineral corticoids - outer layer
Zona fasciculata—glucocorticoids middle layer
Zona reticularis—sex hormones - inner layer

100
Q

protamine sulfate or

A

Protamine sulfate is a protein that is produced from the sperm or testes of salmon
Used as antidotes for heparin overdose and may be useful in treating bracken fern poisoning in cattle