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Cam's Cards > Peds EOR > Flashcards

Peds EOR Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: the height and weight of twins are less than singletons on average at 12 months of age

A

True. On average, the height and weight of twins are lower until 30 months of age.

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2
Q

What is the gold standard test to diagnose lactose intolerance?

A

Upper GI endoscopy

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3
Q

What may be seen on laryngoscope of a patient with epiglottitis?

A

A cherry-red epiglottis.

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4
Q

Treatment for moderate croup?

A

Single dose of dexamethasone and nebulized epi.

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5
Q

Treatment for pyloric stenosis?

A

Pyloromyotomy

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6
Q

What is the primary diagnostic test for symptomatic patients suspected for EBV?

A

Heterophile antibody test (Mononucleosis spot)

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7
Q

What EEG findings are diagnostic of absence seizures?

A

3Hz spike and wave activity.

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8
Q

Prognosis for lichen planus?

A

Self limiting, resolves in up to 2 years. Treatment can shorten time to resolution.

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9
Q

What physical exam finding is present in most patients with abusive head trauma?

A

Retinal hemorrhages

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10
Q

Name 3 gluten containing grains.

A

Wheat, rye, barely

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11
Q

What symptoms are suspicious for chlamydia conjunctivitis?

A

Infection occurring 5-14 days of life, a pseudomembrane adherent to the orbital surface, chemosis

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12
Q

Large VSDs present with what other manifestations?

A

Frequent respiratory infections, slow weight, gain, dyspnea, diaphoresis, and fatigue.

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13
Q

What is the most likely causative organism of Tinea versicolor?

A

Malassezia furfur

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14
Q

A sweat chloride test > __ is diagnostic of cystic fibrosis.

A

60 mEq/L

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15
Q

What is Jaccoud arthropathy?

A

A rare late manifestation of rheumatic fever involving painless loosening and lengthening of the joints in the hands and feet.

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16
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with the use of isoniazid?

A

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine).

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17
Q

What is the most common factor contributing to acute otitis media?

A

Eustachian tube dysfunction.

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18
Q

What are risk factors for developing oral cadidiasis?

A

Recent antibiotic use or inhaled glucocorticoids

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19
Q

Status epilepticus is characterized by > __ minutes of continuous seizure.

A

5

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20
Q

Describe the physical features associated with down syndrome.

A

Upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, brachycephaly, excess skin at the nape of the neck, a flat facial profile, protruding tongue, sandal toes.

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21
Q

When should eruption of all 20 primary teeth occur by?

A

30-36 months

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22
Q

Which parasite is most commonly associated with bladder cancer?

A

Schistosoma haematobium.

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23
Q

What condition is described as purple, pruritic, polygonal, papular, and plaques?

A

Lichen planus

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24
Q

What is the Nikolsky sign?

A

Epidermal detachment secondary to gentle lateral pressure.

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25
Q

What is a bell clapper deformity and what is likely to happen with this deformity?

A

A bell clapper deformity is when the testis is not fixed to the tunica vaginalis.
Testicular torsion is likely to occur

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26
Q

Treatment for pinworms in pregnancy?

A

Pyrantel pamoate

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27
Q

What is the first line pharmacologic therapy for enuresis?

A

Desmopressin

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28
Q

Which time of wart presents as a exophytic, dome-shaped papule frequently occurring on the fingers, dorsal hands, knees or elbows?

A

Common warts

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29
Q

What is the rash associated with fifth disease?

A

Slapped-cheek rash

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30
Q

First line treatment for pinworms?

A

Albendazole

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31
Q

What ear condition was historically associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?

A

Bullous myringitis.

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32
Q

Measles is also know as _______.

A

rubeola

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33
Q

What is the most important triggering factor for asthma?

A

Viral upper respiratory infection.

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34
Q

What is the name of the vertical fissures located in the anterior portion of the external auditory canal cartilage that may be a site of infectious extension in malignant otitis externa?

A

Fissures of Santorini.

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35
Q

First line treatment for symptomatic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Beta blockers

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36
Q

What are the findings on a wright-stained smear of a pustule from erythema toxicum neonatorum?

A

Numerous eosinophils and occasional neutrophils.

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37
Q

Wilson disease is a disorder of the metabolism of ______.

A

Copper

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38
Q

What X-ray finding would be noted for a patient with laryngotracheitis, also known as croup?

A

Steeple sign, which is narrowing of the trachea.

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39
Q

What physical exam finding would you document in a 5 month old infant with shortening of the left femur?

A

A positive Galeazzi sign

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40
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of sickle cell disease?

A

Autosomal recessive

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41
Q

What criteria is used to diagnose acute rheumatic fever?

A

Jones criteria

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42
Q

When should strabismus be referred to an ophthalmologist?

A

Constant strabismus, or intermitent after 4-6 months of age, asymmetric pupils, torticollis, diplopia, or fatigue.

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43
Q

What is the most common kidney malignancy in teenagers aged 15–19?

A

Renal cell carcinoma.

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44
Q

What is Todd paralysis?

A

The presence of focal weakness after seizure activity, typically lasting up to 24 hours.

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45
Q

At what tanner stage does penis girth enlarge?

A

Stage 4

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46
Q

What is the first line therapy for children with absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

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47
Q

Lymphadenopathy of what nodes is characteristic of rubella?

A

Posterior cervical and posterior auricular

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48
Q

What are Koplik spots?

A

small white or gray elevations on the buccal mucosa that develop in individuals with measles 48 hours prior to the exanthem.

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49
Q

What are the most common congenital defects in congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts of glaucoma, and heart disease

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50
Q

What are the most common bacterial pathogens of mastoiditis?

A

Strep pneumo, strep pyo, staph aureus

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51
Q

What medication can aid in the passage of a food bolus in adults but is not recommended for use with children?

A

Glucagon.

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52
Q

What are the findings of an ultrasound on a patient with pyloric stenosis?

A

Target sign on transverse view and increased pyloric muscle thickness

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53
Q

Which rare complication of Kawasaki disease is characterized by activation and proliferation of macrophages and T cells?

A

Macrophage activation syndrome.

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54
Q

Second line treatment for GAS pharyngitis?

A

Macrolide

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55
Q

What are other osteochondroses, in addition to Osgood-Schlatter disease, that affect children and adolescents?

A

Sever disease, which involves the calcaneal apophysis, and Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome, which involves the proximal insertion of the patellar tendon at the inferior pole of the patella.

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56
Q

Which human papillomavirus strains typically cause common warts?

A

Types 2 and 4.

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57
Q

What is the causative agent of erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease?

A

Parvovirus B19

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58
Q

What are the symptoms of Waterhouse-Friderischsen syndrome?

A

Rapidly spreading ecchymosis, gangrene of extremities, bilateral adrenal hemorrhage and fulminant meningosepticemia.

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59
Q

A 9-year-old boy presents to the clinic for behavioral evaluation. He was recently suspended from school for the third time following a fight with another classmate. His mother states he refuses to listen to her, and he is persistently lying to her and his father. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Conduct disorder

Oppositional defiant disorder typically does not have any violent outbursts.

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60
Q

Necator americanus causes what disease?

A

Hookworm disease

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61
Q

Describe the murmur of a PDA.

A

Continuous, rough, machinery-like murmur heard best in the first interspaces of the left sternal border

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62
Q

What is the Samter triad?

A

A condition defined by aspirin sensitivity, nasal polyps, and asthma.

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63
Q

Which patients are more likely to have coronary complications?

A

Children younger than 1 year, patients older than 6 years, boys, and those unresponsive to or who received a smaller dose of intravenous immune globulin.

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64
Q

What laboratory findings are common in pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypochloremia and metabolic alkalosis.

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65
Q

What is the alternative medical term for scalp seborrheic dermatitis or dandruff?

A

Pityriasis sicca.

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66
Q

True or false: the probability of herpes simplex virus (HSV) recurrence is much higher with HSV-2 than HSV-1 infections.

A

True.

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67
Q

Which developmental reflexes should have resolved by age 4 months?

A

Galant reflex, asymmetric tonic neck reflex, and rooting.

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68
Q

What can be ordered if you’re concerned for constitutional delay of growth and puberty?

A

Bone age determination by radiograph of the hand and wrist

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69
Q

Which class of blood pressure medication is most often associated with drug-induced angioedema?

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.

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70
Q

What murmur is described as a continuous murmur heard best over the left or right upper sternal border that is accentuated with head extension while seated?

A

Cervical venous hum

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71
Q

Describe the distribution over time of the rash caused by Rubella.

A

Starts on face, spreads to trunk and extremities within 24 hours

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72
Q

What is the deeper form of impetigo called?

A

Ecthyma.

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73
Q

Is oral or topical antifungals preferred treatment for tinea capitis?

A

oral

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74
Q

Which reaction is characterized by the development of a generalized dermatitis distal to the original site of allergic contact dermatitis 1 week after the initial reaction?

A

Autoeczematization, or an id reaction.

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75
Q

How is fifth disease diagnosed?

A

Clinically, although if aplastic anemia is present, NAAT may be preformed.

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76
Q

What are some vaccinations that should be given to patients before undergoing a splenectomy?

A

Vaccinations against encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae.

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77
Q

What is the first line choice of antibiotics for a patient with mastoiditis and no recent antibiotic use?

A

Vancomycin alone

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78
Q

What disorder is characterized by at least 2 weeks of a major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode?

A

Bipolar 2 disorder.

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79
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for SSSS?

A

IV nafcillin (or oxacillin)

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80
Q

What skin disorder has appearance similar to acute hot water burns?

A

Staphylococcal scaled skin syndrome (SSSS)

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81
Q

What are examples of mast cell stabilizers that can be used to treat allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Cromolyn sodium 4% solution, nedocromil 2% solution, and pemirolast potassium 0.1% solution.

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82
Q

Treatment for scabies?

A

Topical permethrin

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83
Q

Treatment of Hirschsprung disease?

A

Surgical resection of the affected bowel

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84
Q

Name some conditions commonly present in patients with down syndrome.

A

Autism, congenital heart disease, GI tract abnormalities, ophthalmologic disorders

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85
Q

Treatment for allergic rhinitis?

A

Intranasal corticosteroids and second generation antihistamines

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86
Q

Describe the rash of dermatitis herpetiformis.

A

Papulovesicular rash on elbows, knees, buttocks, or scalp

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87
Q

Which infection is associated with guttate psoriasis?

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis.

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88
Q

First line treatment for pinworm infection?

A

Mebendazole, pyrantel pamoate, albendazole

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89
Q

Which syndrome with an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern can cause patent ductus arteriosus to occur in many members of the same family?

A

Char syndrome.

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90
Q

What is the duration of antimicrobial therapy for mycobacterium marinum?

A

1-2 months after symptom resolution for a total of 2-3 months

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91
Q

A patient with a sore throat and development of a rash with a sandpaper like quality is most likely what diagnosis?

A

Scarlet fever

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92
Q

The double bubble sign on ultrasound is a classic imaging finding of ?

A

Duodenal atresia

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93
Q

Treatment options for cutaneous warts?

A

Salicylic acid or cryotherapy

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94
Q

What disease causes mucocutaneous vasculitis most frequently in children between the ages of 3 months and 5 years?

A

Kawasaki disease

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95
Q

Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is associated with what medications by the mother or infant?

A

Macrolide antibiotics

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96
Q

When should the Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (MCHAT) screening questionnaire be given?

A

18 and 24 months

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97
Q

What are the 3 C’s of Measles (Rubeola)?

A

Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis

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98
Q

What oral medication used to treat severe acne is associated with an increased risk of birth defects?

A

Isotretinoin.

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99
Q

What is the most common kidney malignancy in teenagers aged 15–19?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

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100
Q

What is the treatment for Gilbert syndrome?

A

Treatment is not required

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101
Q

What is the pathogenesis of infertility in men with cystic fibrosis?

A

Patients with cystic fibrosis are missing the vas deferens bilaterally, which results in obstructive azoospermia and infertility.

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102
Q

Treatment for bacterial tracheitis?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics such as clindamycin or vancomycin plus a second generation cephalosporin.
intubation if indicated

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103
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis in children 1-18 years?

A

Ceftriaxone + vancomycin
OR
Cefotaxime + vancomycin

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104
Q

What is the medical term for the fecal pellets present in scabies infection?

A

Scybala.

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105
Q

When does colic typically resolve?

A

9 weeks of ago.

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106
Q

How is diagnosis of epiglottitis made?

A

Direct visualization with a laryngoscope.

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107
Q

Tissue biopsy demonstrates what type of cells in Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Reed-sternberg cells

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108
Q

What is the first line antibiotic therapy for whooping cough?

A

Macrolides

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109
Q

True or false: recovery from strabismus surgery is rapid, and serious complications are rare

A

True.

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110
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in children >10 years?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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111
Q

What murmur is described as a vibratory or musical like murmur heard best over the lower left sternal border?

A

Still murmur

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112
Q

What coagulation factor is deficient in patients with Hemophilia B?

A

Factor IX

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113
Q

What is congenital dacryocystocele?

A

It is an obstruction of the proximal and distal portions of the nasolacrimal duct that results in the distention of the lacrimal sac and duct.

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114
Q

What is the treatment for scoliosis with a Cobb angle <20 degrees?

A

Observation and serial x rays

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115
Q

When is chronic suppressive therapy recommended for genital herpes?

A

Six or more recurrences within 1 year

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116
Q

What is the first line empiric therapy for pediatric patients with pyelonephritis?

A

Cephalosporins and aminoglycosides

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117
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat confirmed mycobacterium marinum?

A

Macrolides, rifampin, ethambutol, or tmp-smx.

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118
Q

What is the most common chromosomal disorder?

A

Down syndrome 0.5% of all human conceptions

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119
Q

What is the criterion standard for obtaining urine specimens in children who are not yet toilet trained?

A

Suprapubic aspiration.

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120
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

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121
Q

What is used to diagnose erythema toxicum neonatorum?

A

Wright-stained smear of pustular contents.

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122
Q

What exanthema is teratogenic in the first trimester and may result in fetal hearing impairment, infantile glaucoma, and cardiac disease?

A

Rubella

Its the R in TORCH infections

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123
Q

What is the scientific name for pinworms?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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124
Q

What is the most common cause of acute bacterial sialadenitits?

A

Staph aureus

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125
Q

The absence of which structure is responsible for most cases of male infertility associated with cystic fibrosis?

A

Vas deferens.

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126
Q

Is PDA more common in males or females?

A

2:1 females:males

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127
Q

How long after a strep infection does acute rheumatic fever typically occur?

A

2-4 weeks

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128
Q

What was a serious complication of measles that caused blindness before widespread use of the measles vaccine?

A

Keratoconjunctivitis.

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129
Q

What should you do if a patients lead level is 25?

A

Repeat lead levels in 1-4 weeks for levels 15-44

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130
Q

Which syndrome is characterized by the presence of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Icteropyloric syndrome

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131
Q

A pediatric cystic fibrosis patient presents with steatorrhea and bulky foul smelling stools should be given what therapy?

A

Supplement fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K

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132
Q

What are the diagnostic criterion for Kawasaki disease?

A

Fever of at least 5 days with any four of the following: bilateral nonexudative conjunctivitis, oral changes, peripheral extremity changes, polymorphous rash, or cervical LAD.

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133
Q

How do you reduce a nursemaid elbow?

A

Pressure over the radial head and hyperpronate the arm
OR
Supinate and fully flex the elbow while applying pressure to the radial head and gentle traction

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134
Q

What congenital infection increases the risk of PDA?

A

Congenital rubella

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135
Q

Nursemaid elbow involves what ligament?

A

Annular ligament

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136
Q

Pinworms are tested for with which test?

A

Cellophane tape test (scotch tape test)

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137
Q

What is the empiric treatment for possible skin infection with mycobacterium marinum?

A

A macrolide and either a fluoroquinolone, doxycycline, or tmp-smx.

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138
Q

Treatment for severe croup?

A

Single dose of dexamethasone and repeated doses of nebulized epi. Need admission.

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139
Q

What is the most severe complication of parvovirus B19?

A

Transient aplastic crisis causing severe anemia in patients with disorders affecting red blood cells.

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140
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infants between 6 and 36 months of age?

A

Intussusception

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141
Q

At what lead level is chelation therapy indiciated?

A

> 45

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142
Q

What are the major(5) and minor(4) Jones criteria?

A

Major: Carditis, erythema marginatum, syndemham chorea, polyarthritis, and subcutaneous nodules.
Minor: fever, arthralgia, elevated acute phase reactants, and prolonged PR interval on electrocardiogram.

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143
Q

Fine white lines on the surface of lichen planus lesions are known as?

A

Wickham striae

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144
Q

Is a cervical venous hum an innocent murmur?

A

Yes

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145
Q

What stool test can be used to rule out inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Fecal calprotectin.

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146
Q

Wilms tumors are associated with?

A

Congenital abnormalities

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147
Q

Why is cephalexin preferred over nitrofurantoin in children with UTIs?

A

Nitrofurantoin is dosed QID

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148
Q

Which acid and base abnormality is most common in children with diarrhea?

A

Metabolic acidosis because of the bicarbonate lost in stool.

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149
Q

What is the classic progression of symptoms in rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Headache, fever, and myalgias with blanching, erythematous, macular rash on wrists and ankles 3-5 days into illness.

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150
Q

What is the most common cause of congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction?

A

Incomplete canalization at the end closest to the nose

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151
Q

What is used to measure the magnitude of the curve in scoliosis?

A

The Cobb angle

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152
Q

Which complication can result from nasal packing and is characterized by fever, hypotension, desquamation, and mucosal hyperemia?

A

Toxic shock syndrome.

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153
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic test to confirm pyloric stenosis?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

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154
Q

What are the common manifestations of scarlet fever?

A

Rash starting in axillae and groin, circumoral pallor and strawberry tongue, linear petechiae over the AC fossa and axillary folds known as Pastia lines.

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155
Q

What virus causes mumps?

A

Paramyxovirus

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156
Q

Other than supportive care, what should patients diagnosed with EBV be counseled on?

A

Refraining from contact sports for 4 weeks to prevent splenic rupture

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157
Q

When should the varicella vaccine administered?

A

12-18 months and again at 4-6 years

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158
Q

What is the allergic salute?

A

A transverse nasal crease from repeatedly rubbing the tip of the nose with the hand.

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159
Q

A harsh, holosystolic murmur with a palpable thrill describes what murmur?

A

VSD

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160
Q

What score can be used to assess severity of croup?

A

Westley croup severity score

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161
Q

What is the treatment for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Pavlik harness

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162
Q

What is the most common cause of epiglottitis in a child?

A

H. influenza type B

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163
Q

What finding would you note on a lateral cervical X-ray in a patient with acute epiglottitis?

A

Thumbprint sign.

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164
Q

What common kidney malignancy found in children is associated with congenital abnormailities?

A

Wilms tumor

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165
Q

What is Auspitz sign and what is it a sign of?

A

Punctate bleeding spots when psoriasis scales are scraped off.

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166
Q

What is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis?

A

Adenovirus

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167
Q

What is the most important factor in reducing the risk of developing mastoiditis?

A

Early and sufficient treatment of acute otitis media.

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168
Q

Genital herpes has traditionally been associated with what type of HSV?

A

Type 2

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169
Q

T/F? Strabismus can be a presenting sign of retinoblastoma.

A

True

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170
Q

A sweat chloride test > __ is confirmatory for cystic fibrosis.

A

60mmol/L

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171
Q

What therapeutics are used for chelation therapy?

A

Succimer, calcium disodium edetate, or penicillamine.

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172
Q

What are allergic shiners?

A

Infraorbital edema with darkening under the eyes due to venodilation

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173
Q

What is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?

A

Strep pyogenes

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174
Q

Treatment for psoriasis <10% of BSA?

A

Topical corticosteroids such as betamethasone dipropionate or triamcinolone acetonide

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175
Q

What is the first line antibiotic choice for a patient with mastoiditis and recent antibiotic use?

A

IV vancomycin plus a cephalosporin such as ceftazidime or cefepime.

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176
Q

If the seizure persists for 10 minutes after two doses of lorazepam have been given, what medication is indicated?

A

Phenytoin, valproic acid, or levetriacetam.

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177
Q

What in utero infection is associated with a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Rubella.

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178
Q

What is the treatment for seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Gentle removal of scale with warm olive or mineral oil and a low strength corticosteroid.

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179
Q

What scale is used to classify androgenic alopecia?

A

The Hamilton-Norwood scale.

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180
Q

What is the treatment for anorexia nervosa?

A

Nutritional rehabilitation

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181
Q

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of Wilson disease?

A

Autosomal recessive.

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182
Q

What antibiotic can be used in a patient with a penicillin allergy who has acute bacterial sinusitis?

A

Doxycycline or a third-generation cephalosporin.

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183
Q

A harsh, loud, holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border describes what diagnosis?

A

VSD

184
Q

What lab evidence supports a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease?

A

Leukocytosis, anemia, elevated ESR/CRP, elevated liver transaminases.

185
Q

Treatment for recurrent impetigo?

A

Rifampin

186
Q

What are some prognostic factors in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?

A

The most important factor is age at presentation, as children under 6 years old have a more favorable prognosis. Negative prognostic factors include female sex, obesity, progressive loss of range of motion, and greater involvement of the femoral head.

187
Q

What findings are classically seen on electrocardiogram in patients with an atrial septal defect?

A

QRS pattern suggestive of incomplete right bundle branch block (rSr’ or rsR’).

188
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in children between 3 months and 10 years?

A

Strep pneumo

189
Q

First line treatment for nummular eczema?

A

Topical high or ultra high potency steroids (clebetasol, betamethasone, mometasone)

190
Q

What are the 4 H’s of scurvy?

A

Hemorrhage (Petechiae, bleeding gums)
Hyperkeratosis (rough skin, loose teeth, poor wound healing)
Hypochondriasis (Irritability, emotional changes)
Hematologic abnormalities (Easy bruising)

191
Q

A midsystolic murmur best heard at the second left intercostal space with a fixed and split S2 describes what diagnosis?

A

Atrial septal defect

192
Q

What is the whirlpool sign?

A

A sign diagnostic of volvulus secondary to twisting of the mesentery around the mesenteric pedicle base.

193
Q

Treatment for Kawasaki disease?

A

IVIg and high dose aspirin

194
Q

hat gene is affected in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

The cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene.

195
Q

What are some physical examination findings of hip dislocation in children > 1 year old (walking age)?

A

Shortening of the leg, a short leg limp (with out-toeing and a toe touch gait), Trendelenberg gait, and limited abduction of the hip.

196
Q

What is the most appropriate test for whooping cough?

A

PCR and culture of nasopharyngeal specimens

197
Q

Treatment for bronchiolitis?

A

Oxygen therapy and supportive care.

198
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhea in a neonate?

A

IV ceftriaxone

199
Q

What is a complication of severe pinworm infection?

A

Acute appendicitis

200
Q

Treatment for congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction?

A

Observation and massage.

Most have spontaneous resolution within 6 months.

201
Q

When does erythema toxicum neonatorum usually diagnosed?

A

Within the first 72 hours after birth

202
Q

What is WAGR syndrome?

A

It is the congenital abnormalities associated with a Wilms tumor.
Wilms tumor, Anirdia, Genitourinary anomalies, mental Retardation (now referred to as intellectual disability)

203
Q

Treatment for a febrile seizure?

A

Supportive care and antipyretics

204
Q

Which virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?

A

Human herpesvirus 8.

205
Q

What are the contraindications to using ceftriaxone in neonates?

A

Infants with clinically significant hyperbilirubinemia and infants who are receiving intravenous calcium.

206
Q

What genetic disorder is often associated with hypothyroidism?

A

Trisomy 21.

207
Q

Describe the rash of erythema toxicum neonatorum.

A

Erythematous macules and papules on the trunk, face, and proximal extremities.

208
Q

What nutritional deficiency are exclusively breastfed infants at risk for?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

209
Q

What is the treatment for Kawasaki disease?

A

IVIg and low dose aspirin.

210
Q

What foods contain vitamin C?

A

Green vegetables and citrus fruits.

211
Q

What laboratory test rules out scabies infection?

A

Mineral oil slide preparation.

212
Q

About how long does it take to develop protection after administration of the influenza vaccine?

A

2 weeks.

213
Q

What is the most common valvular disease caused by rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral regurgitation

214
Q

When does tooth eruption typically begin?

A

7 months

215
Q

What sign seen on x ray is seen in epiglottitis?

A

Thumb print sign

216
Q

What is the causative agent of roseola?

A

Human herpesvirus 6

217
Q

What is the hallmark of refeeding syndrome?

A

Hypophosphatemia

218
Q

What is the classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, and hydrocephalus

219
Q

Treatment for duodenal atresia?

A

Duodenoduodenostomy

220
Q

What are the 3 stages of whooping cough? Which stage has the most severe symptoms

A

Catarrhal
Paroxysmal - Most severe
Convalescent

221
Q

What is the best treatment for teething symptoms?

A

Chilled teething objects

222
Q

What is the treatment for scoliosis with a Cobb angle >30 degrees?

A

Bracing

223
Q

At what tanner stage does penis length enlarge?

A

Stage 3

224
Q

Descrive the SSSS sad face sign?

A

Thick perioral crusting with a dried oatmeal appearance around mouth, nose, and sometimes eyes

225
Q

At what tanner stage do breast buds develop?

A

Stage 2

226
Q

What is the typical empiric therapy for meningitis?

A

Third gen cephalosporin and vancomycin

227
Q

What is the most common factor contributing to acute otitis media?

A

Eustachian tube dysfunction.

228
Q

First line treatment for UTIs in children?

A

Cephalosporin

229
Q

What formula helps to estimate the fifth percentile for systolic blood pressure in pediatric patients?

A

Systolic pressure (fifth percentile) = 70 mm Hg + 2 x age in years.

230
Q

True or false: psoriatic arthritis can be the initial presentation of psoriasis.

A

True.

231
Q

Recurrent episodes of jaundice triggered by stresses on the body is most commonly caused by what inherited disorder?

A

Gilbert syndrome

232
Q

What is the first time treatment for enuresis?

A

Behavioral modification with positive reinforcement

233
Q

What are the three types of cutaneous warts?

A

Common warts, flat warts, and palmoplantar warts

234
Q

What is the chromosomal abnormality in down syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21

235
Q

Small, firm white papules on the nose and cheeks of an infant describe what rash?

A

Milia

236
Q

What is the name for small, white or gray/brown spots in the periphery of the iris, which is commonly seen in down syndrome?

A

Brushfeild spots

237
Q

Which murmurs increase with inspiration?

A

Right-sided heart murmurs (e.g., tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary regurgitation).

238
Q

What is the only surgical treatment for sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Cochlear implantation

239
Q

Treatment for malignant otitis externa?

A

IV ciprofloxacin transitioning to oral ciprofloxacin after clinical improvement or decrease in acute phase reactants.

240
Q

Which congenital heart defect is most common in patients with Down syndrome?

A

Complete atrioventricular septal defect.

241
Q

What dietary supplements are indicated in lactose intolerance patients?

A

Calcium and vitamin D

242
Q

Most drug eruptions are caused by what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Delayed-type T cell medicated type IV immune reactions

243
Q

What is the most common pathogen associated with bacterial tracheitis?

A

Staph aureus

244
Q

What is the most common CT finding in chronciectasis?

A

Tram track appearance due to dilated airways, bronchial thickening, and reduced bronchi wall tapering.
Also, signet-ring sign and tree-in-bud sign

245
Q

What are Pastia lines?

A

red and linear petechial lines in the skin folds, such as the antecubital fossae and axillary folds. Pastia lines are seen in individuals with scarlet fever.

246
Q

What maneuver would decrease the intensity of the murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Squatting

247
Q

What is the treatment for complicated mastoiditis?

A

Mastoidectomy plus IV antibiotics and myringotomy.

248
Q

Are lichen planus lesions painful?

A

No

249
Q

Which congenital condition is Hutchinson teeth, or peg-like incisors or molars, associated with?

A

Congenital syphilis.

250
Q

What is the most common etiology of afebrile pneumonia in children aged 1 to 4 months?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis.

251
Q 
Name the most common organism for the following infections:
Epiglottitis
Croup
Bronchiolitis
Tracheitis
A

Epiglottitis - H influenzar
Croup - parainfluenza virus
Bronchiolitis - RSV
Tracheitis - staph aureus

252
Q

Where will a patient with osgood schlatter disease have tenderness to palpation?

A

Over the tibial tubercle

253
Q

What is the most commonly associated cardiac defect in adults with coarctation of the aorta?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve.

254
Q

What is the pathophysiology that causes hives?

A

Mast cell release of histamine in the superficial dermis.

255
Q

What is the histopathologic appearance of biopsies consistent with celiac disease?

A

Flatting or complete loss of intestinal villi.

256
Q

What is the dermatologic manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease that is characterized by multiple painful red nodules commonly found on the shins?

A

Erythema nodosum.

257
Q

What are some serious adverse effects of desmopressin?

A

Hyponatremia, seizures, and water intoxication

258
Q

What physical exam finding is likely to be found in the eyes of a patient with Wilson disease?

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings (brownish rings that encircle the iris.)

259
Q

Describe the typical osgood schlatter patient.

A

Male athlete 10-15 years old

260
Q

What areas does toxic epidermal necrolysis effect that SSSS does not?

A

Mucous membranes

261
Q

Which condition should be considered in infants < 1 month of age who develop projectile vomiting within 1 month of taking a macrolide?

A

Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.

262
Q

Symptomatic pediatric patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are treated with?

A

agents that decrease myocardial oxygen demand, increase left ventricular filling time, and reduce the left ventricular outlet obstruction. These medications include beta-blockers (e.g., metoprolol) and nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers, to be used singly or in combination.

263
Q

Acute bronchiolitis is most frequently caused by?

A

RSV

264
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial parotitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus.

265
Q

Which male genitourinary infection caused by Candida is characterized by white patches on the penis and is associated with severe burning and pruritus?

A

Balanitis.

266
Q

What differentiates otitis externa from malignant otitis externa?

A

Malignant otitis externa infects the temporal adjacent bones near the affected ear and typically occurs in immunocompromised patients.

267
Q

What is the first line treatment for idopathic nephrotic syndrome?

A

Titrated dose of prednisone

268
Q

Treatment for impetigo?

A

Mupirocin

269
Q

What is the treatment for Pertussis infections?

A

Azithromycin

270
Q

What is the most useful laboratory test to assess the degree of dehydration in children?

A

Serum bicarbonate.

271
Q

What is the recommended dosage of ferrous sulfate when treating children with iron deficiency anemia?

A

3 mg/kg once daily.

272
Q

Allergic rhinitis symptoms in the fall are usually caused by?

A

Mold and ragweed

273
Q

What is the starting dose of ethosuximide for treating absence seizures in children younger than 6 years old?

A

5 to 10 mg/kg/day in two divided doses.

274
Q

What is the microorganism responsible for scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes.

275
Q

What class of medications, when used prior to delivery in women <34 weeks gestation, accelerates lung development by increasing surfactant production and improving lung volume, compliance, and gas exchange in the infant?

A

Glucocorticoids (betamethasone or dexamethasone)

276
Q

What is the rash resulting from keratin obstructing sweat ducts that is seen in harm and humid environments?

A

Miliaria crystallina

277
Q

What is the preferred method to obtain urine for a urine culture in children who are not toilet trained?

A

Catheterization or suprapubic aspiration.

278
Q

What is the most common type of scoliosis?

A

Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis.

279
Q

What drug commonly used to treat pinworms is available over the counter?

A

Pyrantel pamoate.

280
Q

What is the most common cause of an atrial septal defect?

A

Ostuim secundum

281
Q

Why should phenazopyridine not be used for longer than 48 hours?

A

Because there is an increased risk of methemoglobinemia and hemolytic anemia.

282
Q

A 13 year old overweight boy presenting with knee pain, antalgic gait, and limited internal rotation of the hip should have what imaging ordered?

A

X ray of the pelvis for SCFE

283
Q

What is the first line treatment for UTIs in children?

A

First generation cephalosporin such as cephalexin.

284
Q

Treatment for testicular torsion?

A

Detorsion and orchiopexy

285
Q

Which condition caused by coxsackievirus A serotype is characterized by fever and painful papulovesicular lesions on the soft palate, tonsils, and uvula?

A

Herpangina.

286
Q

What is the first line treatment for androgenic alopeica?

A

Topical minoxidil and oral finasteride

287
Q

What systemic diseases are associated with intussusception?

A

Crohn disease, celiac disease, and cystic fibrosis.

288
Q

What conditions are associated with encopresis without constipation according to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5)?

A

Oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder.

289
Q

What are indications for admission for a pediatric patient with suspected pneumonia?

A

<90% O2 sat on room air, dehydration, inability to maintain hydration or to feed, RR >50.

290
Q

A figure 3 sign seen on chest x ray is a sign of?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

291
Q

What is the test of choice to confirm lactose intolerance?

A

Hydrogen breath test after ingesting lactose

292
Q

What coagulation factor is deficient in patients with hemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII (“A”ight (8)))

293
Q

Physical exam finding indicative of Measles?

A

Koplik spots

294
Q

What lung component is responsible for surfactant production?

A

Type 2 pneumocytes.

295
Q

True or false: during the puberty growth spurt, the trunk grows before the limbs.

A

False, the limbs grow before the trunk.

296
Q

What is the treatment for oral candidiasis?

A

Nystatin oral suspension

297
Q

What type of wart is described as a skin colored or pink papule with a smooth surface?

A

Flat wart

298
Q

Honey colored crusts describes infection?

A

Impetigo

299
Q

What is the diagnostic imaging for vesicoureteral reflux?

A

Voiding cystourethrography.

300
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

A

Ventricular septal defect.

301
Q

Bilious vomiting, hemodynamic instability, and abdominal distention are classic signs of?

A

Intestinal malrotation

302
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis in patients < 1 month old?

A

Cefotaxime + ampicillin
OR
Gentamicin + ampicillin

303
Q

Which two aortic disease states, in addition to coarctation of the aorta, may cause blood pressure to be lower in the lower extremities than the upper extremities?

A

Aortic dissection and supravalvular aortic stenosis.

304
Q

Which pathogen is most likely to cause tympanic membrane perforation?

A

Group A Streptococcus.

305
Q

A bluish-gray macule on the sacrococcygeal area of an infant is most likely to be?

A

A Mongolian spot

306
Q

Name a specific dermatologic finding in patients with celiac disease.

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

307
Q

Treatment for genital herpes?

A

Valacyclovir or acyclovir x 7-10 days

308
Q

What is the amount of protein in the urine typically seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

> 3 g.

309
Q

What is the most common complication of cryptorchidism?

A

Testicular cancer.

310
Q

Diagnosis of testicular torsion is made by?

A

Ultrasound

311
Q

When is the pertussis vaccination given?

A 
2 months
4 months
6 months
15-18 months
4-6 years
312
Q

What is the leading cause of nonhereditary sensorineural hearing loss in newborns?

A

Congenital cytomegalovirus infection

313
Q

What is the name for the short mid-diastolic murmur that indicates moderate-severe mitral regurgitation secondary to increased blood flow across this valve?

A

Carey Coombs murmur.

314
Q

Empiric treatment for children with bacterial pneumonia?

A

amoxicillin or a macrolide for presumed atypical pneumonia

315
Q

Which disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus presents with white patches on the sides of the tongue that cannot be scraped off?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia.

316
Q

What is the most common type of psoriasis in children?

A

Chronic plaque psoriasis

317
Q

What is a blueberry muffin rash?

A

This is the nickname given to the purpura or petechial rash of cytomegalovirus (CMV) due to its spotted blue or purple appearance on the skin, resembling a blueberry muffin.

318
Q

What is the second line therapy for enuresis?

A

Alarm therapy

319
Q

What are Dennie-Morgan lines?

A

Accentuated lines below the lower eyelids associated with allergic conjunctivitis.

320
Q

Treatment for epiglottitis?

A

Maintain airy way and antibiotics: third gen cephalosporins such as ceftriaxone or cefotaxime and an antistaphylococcal agent such as vancomycin.

321
Q

What skin findings may be present in meningitis?

A

Petechiae or purpura

322
Q

What cause of conductive hearing loss is characterized by a growth of stratified, squamous epithelium that may occur after repeated ear infections?

A

Cholesteatoma.

323
Q

What drugs are most commonly associated with toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, NSAIDs, and allopurinol.

324
Q

At what tanner stage does the scrotum change in color and texture?

A

Stage 2

325
Q

What is the proper treatment for diaper dermatitis caused by Candida albicans?

A

Topical zinc oxide.

326
Q

At which one of the following sites does herpes simplex virus establish latent infection?

A

Neurons

327
Q

Pediatric obesity is defined by a BMI percentile > ___

A

95

328
Q

What is the suspected cause of seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Malassezia yeast

329
Q

What illness causes 5 days of fever followed by development of a rash?

A

Roseola

330
Q

Cutaneous lichen planus most commonly effects what locations?

A

ankles and wrists

331
Q

What is the treatment for chalmydia conjunctivitis?

A

Oral erythromycin

332
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated diaper dermatitis?

A

Frequent changes, gentle cleaning with warm water, and allowing the infant to go without a diaper for a few hours each day to expose the skin to air

333
Q

What artery is primarily responsible for posterior epistaxis?

A

The sphenopalatine artery.

334
Q

What is the treatment for intestinal malrotation?

A

Ladd procedure

335
Q

What disease is characterized by lack of peristalsis and involuntary relaxation of the internal anal sphincter, leading to bowel obstruction?

A

Hirschsprung disease

336
Q

Treatment for hemophilia B?

A

Factor IX replacement, with recombinant factor IX being the replacement of choice.

337
Q

What is Jaccoud arthropathy?

A

A rare late manifestation of rheumatic fever involving painless loosening and lengthening of the joints in the hands and feet.

338
Q

First line treatment for children with otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin

339
Q

What medications are used for PDA closure in a preterm infant?

A

Indomethacin

340
Q

What is the difference between bulbar and tarsal conjunctiva?

A

The bulbar conjunctiva is the part that covers the globe of the eye, while tarsal conjunctiva covers the eyelids.

341
Q

Treatment for mild croup?

A

Humidifier, fever reduction, and fluids

342
Q

Complications of mumps?

A

Orchitis, Oophoritis, meningitis, encephalitis, deafness, pancreatitis, and arthritis.

343
Q

Patients with a positive screening test for down syndrome should be offered what test?

A

Chorionic villus sampling through 14 weeks gestation, amniocentesis is >15 weeks, or plasma basted test for cell-free DNA.

344
Q

Which medication can be used to treat both allergic rhinitis and asthma?

A

Montelukast.

345
Q

Yellow, greasy, adherent plaques on a child’s head describes what condition?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

346
Q

What is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?

A

Strep pyogenes

347
Q

Which disease is caused by the variola virus within the Poxviridae family?

A

Smallpox.

348
Q

Which stage of syphilis presents with a rash on the palms and soles?

A

Secondary syphilis.

349
Q

What diagnostic test for HSV would you choose for a patient with crusted over vesicles?

A

Serologic testing

350
Q

Group A strep is what species of strep?

A

Strep pyogenes

351
Q

What are the most commonly used antibiotics for a retropharyngeal abscess?

A

Ampicillin-sulbactam or clindamycin

352
Q

What syndrome is characterized by jugular vein suppurative thrombophlebitis that is caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum and is characterized by high fever, rigors, respiratory symptoms, and unilateral neck swelling or pain.

A

Lemierre syndrome

353
Q

What is the primary cause of serum sickness in modern times?

A

Medications.

354
Q

Ingestion of ____ before the age of 1 is a risk factor for IDA.

A

unmodified cows milk

355
Q

Which Mycobacterium species causes Hansen disease?

A

Hansen disease, also known as leprosy, is caused by Mycobacterium leprae.

356
Q

Children with impetigo should not return to school until ___ hours after initiating antibiotic therapy.

A

24

357
Q

What is the most common cancer of childhood?

A

ALL

358
Q

Which two organs are responsible for converting vitamin D into calcitriol?

A

The liver and kidneys.

359
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for HSV?

A

Depends on the clinical presentation

360
Q

What oral antibiotics are indicated for impetigo?

A

Doxycycline or cephalexin

361
Q

Treatment for severe diaper dermatitis?

A

Low potency topical glucocorticoid.

362
Q

What is the treatment for congenital cytomegalovirus infection?

A

IV ganciclovir or valganciclovir

363
Q

What organism is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes.

364
Q

What do you expect to see on physical exam for a testicular torsion?

A

Absent cremasteric reflex

365
Q

Which neonatal dermatologic condition occurring around 3 weeks after birth and caused by a reaction to Malassezia species is characterized by inflammatory pustules on the cheeks without the presence of comedones?

A

Neonatal cephalic pustulosis.

366
Q

What is the causative agent of whooping cough?

A

Bordatella pertussis

367
Q

What are the components of the quadruple test for down syndrome in the second trimester?

A

AFP
Unconjugated estriol
Inhibin A
beta-hCG

368
Q

Lung infection with what pathogen is common in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

Pseudomonas

369
Q

What are some treatments for osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Bisphosphonates, especially pamidronate, are commonly used off-label for treatment and have been shown to increase bone mineralization and decrease the rate of fractures. Surgery is indicated to prevent or correct deformities.

370
Q

What are Forchheimer spots?

A

Petechiae on the soft palate seen in Rubella

371
Q

Treatment for encopresis due to fecal impaction?

A

Fecal disimpaction followed by long term oral laxative therapy.

372
Q

Describe the murmur you would expect to hear in a patient with rheumatic fever.

A

Late systolic rumbling murmur

373
Q

What is the hallmark sign of hemophilia B?

A

Hemorrhage in the joints that is painful.

374
Q

What is a potential adverse effect of the use of chloramphenicol in the third trimester of pregnancy?

A

Gray baby syndrome. It is characterized by abdominal distention, cyanosis, vasomotor collapse, and death of the infant.

375
Q

What species is the most common cause of tinea capitis in the United States?

A

Trichophyton tonsurans.

376
Q

First line treatment for psoriasis on the face or intertriginous areas?

A

Topical calcineurin inhibitors such as pimecrolimus

377
Q

Why is topical benzocaine avoided in managing ear pain in children < 2 years of age?

A

There is a risk of methemoglobinemia.

378
Q

When is the measles, mumps, rubella vaccination given?

A

12-15 months first dose

4-6 years second dose

379
Q

What is the Koebner phenomenon?

A

Plaque formation on sute of prior trauma 1-2 weeks after skin injury

380
Q

Is imaging necessary before attempting to reduce a nursemaid elbow?

A

No

381
Q

What is the most common pathogen found in noncystic fibrosis patients who are presenting with bronchiectasis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae.

382
Q

Which class of medications should be avoided within 5 weeks of discontinuing fluoxetine?

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

383
Q

Treatment of a retropharyngeal abscess includes?

A

Securing airway, I and D, and empiric antibiotics

384
Q

What is Eisenmenger syndrome?

A

It occurs when the pulmonary pressure becomes so high that it causes a reversal of blood shunting to right to left, leading to cyanosis in an acyanotic heart disease.

385
Q

True or false: car safety seats are an appropriate place for infants to nap while at home.

A

False, sleeping in car safety seats is not recommended outside of the car.

386
Q

What is an elevated lead level?

A

> 5

387
Q

What is the most common cause of malignant otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas

388
Q

What medication can be given to decrease risk of hospitalization for RSV in infants born prematurely?

A

Palivizumab - humanized monoclonal antibody against a RSV glycoprotein

389
Q

What tests are used to screen for down syndrome in pregnancy? When can it be completed?

A

Ultrasound to measure fetal nuchal translucency, beta hCG and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)
This is done during the first trimester.

390
Q

What is the Barlow maneuver?

What is the Ortolani maneuver?

A

Barlow is hip flexion and adduction. Positive test is posterior dislocation of the femoral head from the acetabulum.
Ortolani test is hip flexion and abduction. A positive test is the femoral head reducing into the acetabulum.

391
Q

What is the rash the can occur in infants affected by congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Blueberry muffin rash

392
Q

How is Hirschsprung disease diagnosed?

A

Rectal biopsy.

393
Q

What is the major undesirable side effect of the first-generation antihistamines?

A

Drowsiness.

394
Q

How is colic defined?

A

An infant <3 months who cries for >3 hours per day for > 3 days per week without a clear explanation.

395
Q

What is the traditional drug of choice for tinea capitis?

A

Griseofluvin

396
Q

True or false: oral lichen planus is associated with an increased risk of oral cancer.

A

True.

397
Q

What are the most commonly affected sites of plaque psoriasis?

A

Elbows and knees

398
Q

Which neonatal dermatologic condition occurring around 3 weeks after birth and caused by a reaction to Malassezia species is characterized by inflammatory pustules on the cheeks without the presence of comedones?

A

Neonatal cephalic pustulosis.

399
Q

What malignancy has a high rate of concurrent infection with epstein barr virus?

A

Hodkin lymphoma

400
Q

What is the most commonly associated cardiac defect in adults with coarctation of the aorta?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve.

401
Q

Treatment for erythema toxicum neonatorum?

A

No treatment required

402
Q

What viral exanthem is associated with a high fever of 3-4 days.

A

Roseola

403
Q

What is the best test to confirm the diagnosis of bronchiectasis?

A

CT scan of the lungs

404
Q

What is the first line treatment for status epilepticus?

A

Lorazepam.

405
Q

Scoliosis is defined by a Cobb angle of > ___.

A

10 degrees

406
Q

Treatment for lichen planus?

A

Topical corticosteroids, oral antihistamines for pruritis.

407
Q

What is the recommended treatment duration for infants with severe esophagitis on endoscopic biopsy?

A

3–6 months.

408
Q

How long after starting a medication does a type IV sensitivity reaction typically occur?

A

If not previously sensitized, around 1 week after starting the medication.
(days if sensitized previously)

409
Q

What organism is most often associated with acne vulgaris?

A

Cutibacterium acnes

410
Q

Treatment for RMSF in children?

A

Doxycycline

411
Q

What maneuver would increase the intensity of the murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Valsalva

412
Q

How can hair casts be differentiated from nits?

A

Hair casts are benign tubular sheaths, which unlike nits, slide easily up and down the hair shaft.

413
Q

True or false: chemosis is a common sign of viral conjunctivitis.

A

False. Chemosis is a red alarm sign, typically seen in more serious conditions, including hyperacute bacterial conjunctivitis or orbital cellulitis.

414
Q

Roseola is caused by?

A

Human herpes virus 6

415
Q

A wide, fixed split S2 is most characteristic of?

A

An atrial septal defect

416
Q

Roseola is most commonly seen in what age group?

A

< 2 years

417
Q

Which pathogen that frequently causes gastroenteritis in children can be vaccinated against?

A

Rotavirus.

418
Q

What are the most common manifestations of congenital cytomegalovirus infection?

A

Petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly, small size for gestational age, microcephaly, sensorineural hearing loss.

419
Q

Allergic rhinitis symptoms in the spring are usually caused by?

A

Tree pollens and flowering shrubs

420
Q

Which patients warrant inpatient nutritional rehabilitation and medical stabilization?

A

Those who weigh less than 75% of their ideal body weight or have a body mass index < 15 to 16 kg/m2.

421
Q

Laryngotracheitis is also known as?

A

Croup

422
Q

First line treatment for GAS pharyngitis?

A

Penicillin or amoxicillin

423
Q

What is the initial serologic test of choice for celiac disease?

A

Tissuse transglutaminase immunoglobulin A (tTG-IgA)

424
Q

What is the most common site of origin for nose bleeds?

A

Kiesselbach plexus

425
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for otomycosis, a fungal infection of the external ear canal?

A

Clotrimazole otic solution applied twice a day for 10 to 14 days.

426
Q

What are the 3 first line treatment options for molluscum contagiosum?

A

Cryotherapy, curettage, and cantharidin.

427
Q

True or false: nummular eczema commonly involves the face and neck.

A

False. If these areas are involved, alternative diagnoses should be suspected.

428
Q

Which medications, when given to patients with mononucleosis, are known for causing a characteristic prolonged, pruritic maculopapular rash?

A

Penicillins

429
Q

Describe the rash distribution over time for roseola.

A

Rash starting on the neck or trunk and spreading to the face or extremities. Rash starts after a fever goes away.

430
Q

How long does the acute phase of toxic epidermal necrolysis last?

A

8 to 12 days

431
Q

Treatment for lice?

A

Permethrin

432
Q

What murmurs may be heard due to rheumatic fever?

A

Aortic or mitral regurgitation

433
Q

What is the most common cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

434
Q

What symptom of mumps differentiates it from other viruses?

A

Bilateral parotitis 48 hours after onset of fever

435
Q

What are the symptoms of roseola?

A

3-5 days of high fever followed by a maculopapular rash when the fever resolves

436
Q

What symptoms of bacterial tracheitis differ from that over other respiratory infections in children?

A

Toxic appearance and drooling is uncommon.

History of cold symptoms followed by rapidly progressive sore throat, fever, respiratory distress, and hoarseness

437
Q

Subluxation of the radial head is known as?

A

Nursemaid elbow

438
Q

What bacteria is responsible for erysipelas?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes.

439
Q

How long after birth should infants double their birth weight? Tripple?

A

Infants double their birth weight by 4 months and triple their birth weight by 12 months

440
Q

Abdominal x-ray findings in Hirschsprung disease?

A

Dilated loops of bowel without gas or stool present in the rectum.

441
Q

Treatment for vesicoureteral reflux?

A

Many children have spontaneous resolution, but open antireflux surgery is a common procedural treatment.

442
Q

Which prescription medication used for asthma and severe seasonal allergic rhinitis has a black box warning for agitation, depression, sleeping problems, and suicidal ideation?

A

Montelukast.

443
Q

Hirschsprung disease is associated with what genetic syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21

444
Q

What diagnostic test for HSV would you choose for a patient with unroofed vesicles?

A

PCR or viral culture of the vesicular fluid.

PCR is preferred because it is more sensitive

445
Q

Which microorganism is associated with neonatal cephalic pustulosis?

A

Malassezia spp.

446
Q

What treatment is used for impetigo caused by MRSA?

A

Doxycycline and TMP-SMX

447
Q

What medications can be used in patients with ongoing seizures despite use of first- and second-line therapies?

A

Midazolam, propofol, or pentobarbital.

448
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated mastoiditis?

A

IV antibiotics and middle ear drainage.

449
Q

Avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis in a growing child is known as what disease?

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

450
Q

What are the signs of epiglottitis?

A

The three D’s: dysphagia, drooling, and respiratory Distress

451
Q

Are first generation or second generation antihistamines the first line pharmacologic treatment for hives?

A

Second gen (cetirizine, loratidine, fexofenadine)

452
Q

What is the first line topical vasoconstrictor for nose bleeds?

A

Oxymetazoline

453
Q

How many Jones criteria must be present to make a diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever?

A

Two major or one major and two minor and confirmed or suspected history of a recent group A strep infection.

454
Q

What laboratory findings are common in pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypochloremia and metabolic alkalosis.

455
Q

What type of oropharyngeal cancer is most commonly associated with human papillomavirus?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma.

Cam's Cards (103 decks)

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