PA SIR JHAYMAR on-going Flashcards

1
Q

Consider this scenario: Assuming you already have your Ph.D. in Psychology and your name is Dr. Dimagiba. One day, a 6-year-old boy named Charles was referred to your testing institution for a comprehensive assessment of intelligence and personality because the referral source suspected that the child might be experiencing symptoms of DMDD and academic challenges. The child and his mother came to the testing room on assessment day. You greeted his mother using a warm voice. You said, “Good morning, Ms. De Castro, are you ready for the assessment of your child?” She said, “Good morning, Dr. Dimagiba. Yes, we are ready for the assessment.” Afterward, you and Charles entered the small room where the assessment happened. Before the assessment, you said with a warm, friendly, and interested tone of voice, “Hi Charles, I am Dr. Dimagiba. I will be your doctor today, but I am not the type of doctor you come to when you are sick, like with a stomachache or headache, but I’m the doctor who likes to get to know kids better. So, what I’m going to do today is find out more about you. I will also be your partner today; we will have to work hard together, but I think it will be fun, too.” After introducing yourself to the child and having a short conversation with him, you administered the first unstructured measures, such as the Draw- A-Person Test and the Children’s Apperception test. After the unstructured tasks, you administered structured tasks such as CBCL, WRAT, and SB-5. Considering this scenario, is there any step done in the assessment that is not ideal?

A. Yes. For a child client, assessing the intellectual and personality in just a day is inappropriate.
B. Yes. For a child client, it is not ideal to greet the child with a friendly voice.
C. Yes. For a child client, it is not ideal to introduce yourself as a “Dr.”.
D. Yes. For a child client, starting with unstructured tasks before the structured tasks is not ideal.
E. None. All steps that happened in the scenario are ideal.

A

D. Yes. For a child client, starting with unstructured tasks before the structured tasks is not ideal.

for a child client, It is important to start in structured tasks because it is easier for the child to understand structured tasks and what the demand of the task is, because if you start with unstructured, the child will think that all he or she needs to do is draw and tell a story the whole assessment.

If 2 out of 3 structured task is done then the child started to throw tanturms, its okay to proceed to unstructed task already.

C. Yes. For a child client, it is not ideal to introduce yourself as a “Dr.”. —> it is ideal to introduce yourself as a doctor to a child all the time, especially if you will conduct a time/task constrained test, because if the child perceives you as a playmate, it will have an affect to the results.
—————————————————-
The Basics of Building Rapport with the Child
* The child is often not the one seeking an evaluation but is usually referred by some significant adult who feels that the child needs testing.
* It is expected that the motivation for the evaluation on the part of the child is often low
* Usually, this Low Motivation is because it has been explicitly told, that the assessment is prompted by problems either in home or school.
* Begin the assessment tasks quickly –> child realize that the procedure will not be as bad as they imagined.
* Rapport can always be developed further (Continuous): The reverse is also possible. Although it is certainly true that once it is well established, rapport can withstand a lot of stress, it nevertheless can be damaged or even destroyed at any time if continuing attention is not paid to maintaining it.
*

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2
Q

Jhaymar investigated psychometricians’ psychological assessment competencies (PAC). He differentiated the level of PAC between novices (working for 5 years and below), experts (6 years to 15 years), and veterans (16 years and above). Upon checking the normality of the data, it was shown that novices had skw=0.24 and kur=- 0.05. While experts have skw=-1.12, kur=2.08, and veterans have skw=-1.86, kur=3.72. Upon checking the homogeneity of variances, all groups mentioned have significant (<.05) Levene’s test. Therefore, he used Welch’s test to determine the differences and Tukey’s test for post-hoc analysis. Is there a mistake in his analysis?

A. Yes, there is an error in his analysis. Skewness and kurtosis are inappropriate for his study because these cannot test normality.
B. Yes, Levene’s test is not required in his study.
C. Yes, Welch’s test is inappropriate in his study.
D. Yes, Tukey’s test is inappropriate in his study.
E. No mistake in Jhaymar’s analysis.

A

D. Yes, Tukey’s test is inappropriate in his study.

If the result of your analysis is between the following, then it is approximately normal data.
Skewness = -2 to +2
Kurtosis = -7 to +7
.
Normality of Data ————- Levene’s Test
Normal —————————– Insignificant (> .05) = Parametric (Anova)
Not Normal ———————– Insignificant (> .05) = Kruskal-Wallis (Nonparametric)
Normal —————————— Significant (< .05) = Welch’s Test
Not Normal ———————— Significant (< .05) = Kruskal-Wallis (Nonparametric)

Anova, Kruskal, and Welch’s test will only tell you that there are differences in your groups but it will not determine which of the group/s are different.

Post-Hoc Analysis - is used only when you have 3 or more groups; it is used to determine which of the group/s are different.

Post-Hoc Analysis:
Anova = Tukey
Welch’s = Games-Howell
Kruskal -Wallis = Dunn’s
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

A. Yes, there is an error in his analysis. Skewness and kurtosis are inappropriate for his study because these cannot test normality. —> This can be used to test normality.

B. Yes, Levene’s test is not required in his study. —> This is required when comparing 2 or more different groups.

**Levene’s Test **–> test of homogeneity, it will test if the variance of different groups are similar or homogenous; it is used to test the similarity of the data. It is okay if there is no Levene’s test ang Correlation and Regression.

  • If significant (< .05) ang Levene’s Test = not automatically non-parametric; we will use welch’s
  • If** insignificant (> .05)** ang Levene’s Test = we will use parametric.
  • You will only use Kruskal–Wallis (Nonparametric), if the data is not normal or if the issue is normality.

C. Yes, Welch’s test is inappropriate in his study. —>** This is appropriate when levene’s test is significant**

D. Yes, Tukey’s test is inappropriate in his study. —> Games-Howell post hoc analysis is appropriate

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3
Q

As a clinical practitioner, you must check the inventory and
list all available tests in the clinic. Your supervisor said you must
hide all obsolete tests in a secured cabinet. You know that both MMPI-2-RF and MMPI-3 exist in your clinic, and you know that MMPI-2-RF is still being utilized more than MMPI-3. You also know that MMPI-2-RF was published in 2008, and MMPI-3 was published in 2020. Which of the following is the best way to decide if MMPI-2-RF is already obsolete?

A. To make it more documented, create a survey list asking other clinicians and practitioners in your area which is more utilized between the two in their practice. In that case, the survey results will help you decide if MMPI-2-RF is obsolete or not.
B. Examine the items of both tests. Extract a sample of items from both tests, compare them based on their relevance, and pilot-test it among 30 clinical samples for reliability and validity analysis. The results of the analysis will help you decide whether MMPI-2-RF is obsolete or not.
C. To ensure the pieces of evidence, you can use recent reviews or meta-analyses of research findings published in refereed journal articles. These journal articles summarize the status of the assessment test technique.
D. Do nothing. It does not matter if MMPI-2-RF is obsolete because both tests can assess psychopathology, and if the answer sheets of MMPI-3 are unavailable, the MMPI-2-RF materials can be used.

A

C. To ensure the pieces of evidence, you can use recent reviews or meta-analyses of research findings published in refereed journal articles. These journal articles summarize the status of the assessment test technique.

  • Not because there is a new version of test, it does not mean that obsolete na yung lumang test or past versions.
  • You need to be evidence-based when deciding if a test is obsolete.
  • Meta-analyses will show the collected studies regarding the psychometric properties of a certain test.
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4
Q

In MCMI IV, the potential issues of an individual with this personality style may irritate others because of their persistent high-spirited behavior and frequent unpredictable changes in their mood and behavior. Another issue is that a person with this personality style may be easily bored and unlikely to follow through on their plans.

A. 1 – Schizoid
B. 2A – Avoidant
C. 5 – Narcissistic
D. 4A – Histrionic
E. None of the above.

A

E. None of the above. (4B - Turbulent)

Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory-IV (MCMI IV) —> measures personality disorder, it can also measure other syndrome.

This is what MCMI contains:
* 12 - Clinical personality styles
* 3 - Severe personality styles
* 7 - Clinical syndrome
* 3 - Severe clinical syndrome
———————–
MCMI Base Rare (BR) Scores
Base Rate — Interpretation/Interpretative Benchmarks
75-84 ——— Abnormal Type
—————— Abnormal trait level, more define dysfunction possible
85+ ———— Clinical disorder
—————— Clinical disorder range, likely at an impairing level

______________________________
MCMI-IV 12 Personality Styles and Potential Issues

  • 1 Schizoid - prefer to do things by themselves and do not show their feeling; have little desire for close relationships and have few close friends. They also experience little pleasure or pain from life.
  • 2A Avoidant - desire but fearful of personal relations; They are vigilant and always on guard to avoid rejections from others. Self-conscious and tense in social situations.
  • 2B Melancholic - pervasively sad and guilty and blame themselves when anything goes wrong; They worry constantly and perceive themselves as worthless.
  • 3 Dependent- agreeable and submissive and try to please others even when they dislike them; Fear others’ anger or rejection, if they disagree with them and allow others to make their decisions for them.
  • 4A Histrionic - show their feelings quickly and easily. Sociable and outgoing, like to flirt, and are looking to make new friends; constant search of signs of acceptance and approval from others
  • 4B Turbulent - persistent high-spirited behavior and frequent unpredictable changes in their mood and behavior; easily bored and unlikely to follow through on their plans.
  • 5 Narcissistic - think that they are special and superior individuals who deserve special attention from other people, who envy their abilities; members of their family believe that they are selfish and that they think only of themselves.
  • 6A Antisocial - do what they want without worrying about what others might think, and punishment never stops them from doing something they want to do; They are irresponsible and impulsive.
  • 6B Sadistic - often criticize others who annoy them and are rough and mean to keep people in line; often say cruel things just to make others unhappy. Get personal pleasure and satisfaction in way that humiliate others. Believe that is it important to place strict controls on others.
  • 7 Compulsive - their compulsiveness and perfectionism derive form a conflict between anger towards others and the fear of social disapproval; their works is well planned and organized, and they keep close track of their money.
  • 8A Negativistic- often cross and grouchy and likely to feel angry about and resist what others want them to do; believe that other people often blame them for things that they did not do. They have bad luck in life and believe that most successful people are either lucky or dishonest.
  • 8B Masochistic- often mistreated by their friends, and they seem to create situations in which they get hurt or feel rejected; They believe that they do not deserve the good things that happen to them and believe that they deserve to be shamed and humiliated.
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5
Q

Which of the following is not considered a severe personality style based on MCMI-IV?

A. Anti-social
B. Schizotypal
C. Borderline
D. Paranoid

A

A. Anti-social

MCMI-IV - 3 Severe Personality Styles and Potential Issues

S - Schizotypal- having strange thoughts that they cannot get rid of and when alone, often feel the presence of someone who cannot be seen; They are concerned that people they do not know might harm them, and they do not understand why some people smile at them.

C - Borderline - frequently feel as though there is nothing inside them, as though they are empty or hollow; moods and feelings toward others change from day to day and often swing from loving them to hating them. They may do something desperate to keep a perosn they love from abandoning them.

P - Paranoid- never forgive an insult or forget an embarrassment that someone has caused them; They are always watching out for people who want to cheat them and try to see who can and cannot be trusted. They take great care to keep their life a private matter so that no one can take advantage of them.

…………………………….
If its a test, you need to give it all to the client but if its a battery, you can extract
…………………………….
There are comobordities between personality styles
Cluster A. always comorbids with Schizophrenia Spectrum
Cluster B always comorbids with Mood disorders (Depression and Bipolar)
Cluster C always comorbids with Anxiety Disorders

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6
Q

Which of the following is not considered a severe clinical syndrome based on MCMI-IV?

A. Schizophrenic spectrum
B. Major depression
C. Delusional
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

A

D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

Post-traumatic stress disorder is considered as Clinical Syndrome not Severe Clinical Syndrome
…………………………………………………………………………………………
MCMI-IV 7 Clinical Syndromes and Potential Issues

A - Generalized Anxiety- certain thoughts and events from their past come back again and again in their mind; They repeat certain behaviors to reduce anxiety and to keep bad things frm happening.

H - Somatic Response - weak and tired a great deal of the time and worn out for no special reason; Lost the ability to feel sensations in parts of their body and have difficulty in keeping their balance when walking.

N - Bipolar Spectrum - feel excited and cheerful at many times for no special reason; They have bad periods when they been so cheerful and have used up so much energy that they fell into a low mood.

D - Persistent Depression - feel like a failure and guilty because they cannot do things right anymore; They are quite blue, discouraged, and sad, and cannot snap out of it.

B - Alcohol Use - have an alcohol problem and a great deal of trouble trying to control their impulse to drink to excess; Drinking alcohol helps them when they are feeling down.

T - Drug Use - have taken drugs in the past that have gotten them into trouble and caused them to miss work and to get into arguments with their family; There have been times when they could not get through the day without street drugs.

R - Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder - have a very upsetting experience from their past that keeps coming back to haunt their thoughts and causes nightmares; Feel terrified and have flashbacks of some traumatic experience that happened to them in the past.

…………………………………………………………………………………………
MCMI-IV 3 Severe Clinical Syndromes and Potential Issues

SS - Schizophrenic Spectrum- They feel as though they are losing touch with the real world; They often hear things so well that it bothers them.

CC - Major Depression - Feel terribly depressed and sad for no reason that they cant figure out; They have completely lost their appetite and have trouble sleeping most nights.

PP - Delusional- Believe that people have been spying on them for years and trying to make them think that they are crazy; They believe that they are being plotted against. Someone has been trying to control their minds.

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7
Q

Projection dynamics is a facet scale under __________ scale in MCMI-IV.

A. Avoidant
B. Antisocial
C. Histrionic
D. Dependent
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above (Paranoid)

Projection Dynamics - a belief that other people are talking about them, thinking that iniiba ng ibang tao yung storya about them.

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8
Q

Inverted architecture is a facet scale under ____________ scale in MCMI-IV.

A. Compulsive
B. Negativistic
C. Antisocial
D. Masochistic
E. None of the above

A

D. Masochistic

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9
Q

The following statements are accurate about the scoring of MCMI-IV, except

A. Raw scores are transformed into BR scores.
B. For personality styles, a BR of 75 indicates the presence of a trait, and a BR of 85 indicates the presence of a disorder.
C. For other scales, a BR of 75 indicated the presence of a syndrome, and a BR of 85 indicated the prominence of a syndrome.
D. BR scores are available for only two of the five validity scales.
E. None of the above is inaccurate.

A

D. BR scores are available for only two of the five validity scales.

because BR scores are available for the 3 of the 5

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10
Q

While scoring your client’s MCMI-IV protocol, you noticed the client’s score on the W scale is 21. This may mean that

A. Your client’s MCMI profile is questionable.
B. Your client’s MCMI profile is uninterpretable.
C. Your client’s MCMI profile is valid.
D. Your client’s MCMI profile is reliable.

A

B. Your client’s MCMI profile is uninterpretable.

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11
Q

While scoring your client’s MCMI-IV protocol, you noticed that the client’s score in X is 10. This may mean that

A. The profile form is valid and interpretable; therefore, personality styles and clinical syndromes should be interpreted. B. The profile form is valid and interpretable; other validity scales should be tested for potentially unfavorable descriptions.
C. The profile form is valid and interpretable; any interpretation of severe clinical syndromes is valid.
D. The profile form is invalid.

A

D. The profile form is invalid.

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12
Q

Jhaymar, a psychometrician at a university, was instructed to create a local career interest test that will apply to their students from grade 7 to 5th year of college (from junior high school to college). However, his supervisor also instructed him to create a test that would measure not just the career interest but also the student’s personality. In addition, his supervisor requested a Filipino version of the scale. By reviewing the literature, it was found that there was an association between 16 PF and the theory of RIASEC (for career interest). Using this association from the literature, Jhaymar provided test items per career interest factor related to each personality factor. Not that in this phase, he only provided the English version first. He let his supervisor and co-psychometrician review the items and validate them. After reviewing the items, Jhaymar revised them based on the comments given. Using this situation, what should be recommended to Jhaymar?

A. The next step that Jhaymar should take is to create the Filipino version of the scale. Once the Filipino version of the scale is provided, Jhaymar should find a grammarian to review it to see if the translation process is appropriate.
B. Once revised based on his supervisor’s and co- psychometrician’s comments, he can provide the scoring system to ensure that the scores will be interpretable before pilot testing.
C. After considering his supervisor’s and co- psychometrician’s comments, he should conduct a cognitive interview with some target participants to ensure potential participants understand each item.
D. Jhaymar can start creating the Filipino version of the scale once he has revised the proposed items. After this, he will test the items among university students. Following the rule of thumb, 10% of the target population should participate in his pilot study. Note that in this phase, he should administer the English version concurrently with the translated version to ensure accuracy and reliability.
E. Once the English version is revised, he should conduct a pilot study using stratified random sampling to ensure each grade level and year level will be represented. After this, he should compute the reliability index and scoring of the scale and each subscale (per career interest).

A

C. After considering his supervisor’s and co- psychometrician’s comments, he should conduct a cognitive interview with some target participants to ensure potential participants understand each item.

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13
Q

The recent data released by the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) revealed that the Philippines ranked 76th out of 81 countries and economies regarding mathematics. Although it is not explicitly discussed what instrument is used in the situation released, you, as a researcher, want to investigate it again in your analysis using an achievement test. Which of the following is most likely appropriate to use?

A. WRAT
B. PAI
C. TAI
D. STAI

A

A. WRAT

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14
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate about the item difficulty index?

A. Under the CTT framework, the item difficulty index is also known as the item-effectiveness index.
B. It ranges from 0.0 to 1.0.
C. A high difficulty score means a greater proportion of the sample answered the question correctly.
D. A lower difficulty score may be because of ambiguity in the response options.

A

A. Under the CTT framework, the item difficulty index is also known as the item-effectiveness index.

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15
Q

Who among the following test developers committed an error?

A. Wally constructed a 16-item scale that measures the hope of the Filipino people, conducted an exploratory factor analysis, and removed all items with factor loading below .30.
B. Jose constructed a 26-item scale that measures the self- esteem of 2024 BLEPP takers, conducted an inter-item correlation, and retained all items below .30 correlations.
C. Vic constructed a 42-item scale that measures the test anxiety of the parents of BLEPP takers, conducted a reliability analysis using Cronbach’s alpha, and proceeded to the next step after knowing that the scale has .70 alpha.
D. Willie constructed a 39-item scale that measures the conscientiousness of the employees in a university, conducted a reliability analysis using a test-retest reliability, and used Pearson R to correlate the scores.

A

B. Jose constructed a 26-item scale that measures the self- esteem of 2024 BLEPP takers, conducted an inter-item correlation, and retained all items below .30 correlations.

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16
Q

A couple of months ago, you constructed a scale measuring depression where a person can answer from strongly agree (5) to strongly disagree (1) in each item. Five experts, including psychologists and psychometricians, screened and validated the scale. You are also done with the reliability analysis using Cronbach’s alpha, and the scale obtained .82. After a week, you established the construct validity and used the distinct group technique. You gave the scale to 2 groups, which are those who are clinically diagnosed with depression and those who are not. In your data, Levene’s test was >.05, and you used an independent t-test to investigate who has higher scores and if there is a significant difference between the two groups. After analysis, the results showed that those who are clinically diagnosed with depression have significantly higher levels of depression compared to those who are not. Using the results, you assumed that your scale has evidence of construct validity. Is there any inappropriate step done in this situation?

A. Yes, 5 experts are too much for validating the constructed scale.
B. Yes, Cronbach’s alpha is inappropriate in this situation.
C. Yes, an Independent t-test is inappropriate in this situation. D. Yes, 2 groups are not enough in this situation.
E. No inappropriate step was taken in this situation.

A

E. No inappropriate step was taken in this situation.

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17
Q

Statement 1: Non-discriminating items that fail to discriminate between respondents because they may be too easy, too hard, or ambiguous should be removed.

Statement 2: Items that negatively discriminate should be reexamined and modified.

Statement 3: Items that positively discriminate should be retained.

A. Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate.
B. Only statement 2 is inaccurate.
C. Only statement 3 is accurate.
D. Only statement 2 is accurate.
E. All statements are accurate.

A

E. All statements are accurate.

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18
Q

As a test developer, you want to demonstrate the content validity of your scale; which of the following steps is appropriate?

A. Content matches domain -> Number of items for each content area adjusted for relative importance -> Test items accurately reflect the content -> Survey the domain
B. Content matches domain -> Test items accurately reflect the content -> Survey the domain -> Number of items for each content area adjusted for relative importance
C. Survey the domain -> Test items accurately reflect the content -> Number of items for each content area adjusted for relative importance-> Content matches domain
D. Survey the domain -> Content matches domain -> Number of items for each content area adjusted for relative importance -> Test items accurately reflect the content
E. None of the above.

A

E. None of the above.

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19
Q

This is the most basic form of internal consistency.

A. Odd-even reliability
B. Cronbach’s coefficient alpha
C. Kuder-Richardson
D. None of the above.

A

A. Odd-even reliability

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20
Q

According to Sternberg’s theory of intelligence, novelty ability is under

A. Contextual subtheory
B. Componential subtheory
C. Experiential subtheory
D. Analytical facet

A

C. Experiential subtheory

Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of Successful Intelligence
* talks about that for us to have a successful intelligence, we should adapt and select the environment we have, we should also find balance how we use the 3 types of intelligence (Analytical, Creative, Practical); it is also assumed that people are successfully intelligent by virtue by recognizing their strengths and by making the most of them and at the same time, they recognize their weaknesses and find ways to correct or compensate it.

Triarchic Theory
—> Compential Subtheory (Analytical Facet)
1. Metacomponents - higher thinking of a person
2. Performance - how a person acts in higher order thinking
3. Knowledge acquisition - strategies how a person stores and use knowledge.

—> Experiential Subtheory (Creative Facet)
1. Novelty Ability
2. Automation Ability

—> Contextual Subtheory (Practical Facet)
1. Adaptation
2. Shaping
3. Selection
.
.
Note: Sternberg believes that his theory is UNIVERSAL, how it is applied can vary in different cultures.

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21
Q

This nonverbal intelligence test is appropriate for children ages 5 to 17 and measures analogic reasoning, spatial memory, and cube design.

A. CTONI-2
B. UNIT
C. WNV
D. BETA-4

A

B. UNIT

A. CTONI-2 = Comprehensive Test of Nonverbal Intelligence, 2nd Edition
B. UNIT = Universal Nonverbal Intelligence Test
C. WNV = Wechsler Nonverbal Scale of Ability
D. BETA-4

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22
Q

The following is accurate about DAT and its version, except

A. DAT is for students in grades 7 through 12 that measure abilities across vocational skills.
B. DAT has seven separate tests of ability.
C. DAT has an alternative version called DAT PCA.
D. Based on the manual of this test, raw scores can be converted to stanines.
E. None of the above is inaccurate.

A

B. DAT has seven separate tests of ability.

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23
Q

Based on the 16PF manual, warmth is a contributing primary factor in what global factor/s?

A. Extraversion and Anxiety
B. Independence and Extraversion
C. Extraversion only
D. Extraversion and Tough-mindedness
E. Self-control and Extraversion

A

D. Extraversion and Tough-mindedness

Global Factor

Extraversion
* Social Orinetation: the desire to be around others and be noticed by them; the energy invested in initiating and maintaning social relationships
.
Contributing Factor of Extraversion:
A - Warmth
F - Liveliness
H - Social Boldness
N - Privateness (-)
Q2 - Self Reliance (-)
.
……………………
Independence
* The role a person assumes when interacting with others; the extent to which they are likely to influence or be influenced by the views of other people.
.
Contributing Factor of Independent:
E - Dominance
H - Social Boldness
L - Vigilance
Q1 - Openness to Change
.
……………………
Tough-Mindedness
* The way a person processess information; the extent to which they will solve problems at an objective, cognitive level or by using subjective or personal considerations.
.
Contributing Factor of Tough-Mindedness:
A - Warmth (-)
I - Sensitivity (-)
M - Abstractedness (-)
M - Openness to Change (-)
.
……………………
Self-Control
* Response to environmental controls on behavior; internal self-discipline
.
Contributing Factor of Self-Control:
F - Liveliness (-)
G - Rule-Consciousness
M - Abstractedness (-)
Q3 - Perfectionism
.
……………………
Anxiety
* Emotional adjustment; the types of emotions experienced and the intensity of these
.
Contributing Factor of Self-Control:
C - Emotional Stability (-)
L - Vigilance
O - Apprehension
Q4 - Tension

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24
Q

In the older versions of MMPI-2, a T-score of _____ or greater is considered clinically significant.

A. 60
B. 65
C. 70
D. 75

A

C. 70

Older Version of MMPI-2
T-score = 70
………………..
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2nd Edition (MMPI-2)
* Original version was published in 1943 to measure various types of psychopathology
* 18 years and older
* 10 clinical scales (567 items)
1. Hypochondriasis
2. Depression
3. Hysteria
4. Psychopathic Deviate
5. Masculinity-Feminity
6. Paranoia
7. Psychasthenia
8. Schizophrenia
9. Mania
10. Social Introversion
* it has supplementary scales and content scales
* Has three validity scales: (L) Faking Good; (K) Defensiveness; (F) Infrequency
* MMPI-2-RD (338 items)
.
.
………………..
10 clinical scales of the MMPI
1. Hypochondriasis (Hs)
* measures a wide range of vague and non-specific complaints about bodily functioning.
* focuses on the abdoment and back and the primary factors are poor physical health and gastrointestinal difficulties.
2. Depression (D)
* characterized by hopelessness, poor morale, and dissatisfaction with own life.
3. Hysteria (Hy)
* measures shyness, poor physical health, headaches, neuroticism, and cynicism.
4. Psychopathic Deviate (Pd)
* measures social adjustment and the absence of strongly pleasant experiences. Taps issues in family and authority.
5. Masculinity-Feminity (Mf)
* measures how rigidly the client conforms to the stereotypical roles of male/female
* has items about vocations, hobbies, aesthetic preferences, activity-passivity, and personal sensitivity.
6. Paranoia (Pa)
* measures suspiciousness, interpersonal sensitivity, and self-righteousness
7. Psychasthenia (Pt)
* measures person’s inability to counter specific actions or thoughts even it is maladaptive in nature.
* this is an old term of OCD and th eitems are tapping into abnormal fears, difficulties in concentration, and guilt feelings.
8. Schizophrenia (Sc)
* measures odd perceptions, social alienation, poor family relationships, impulse control and concentration difficulties, questions of self-worth and identity, and bizarre thoughts.
9. Hypomania (Ma)
* measures a degree of excitement, unstable mood, flight of ideas, gradiosity, irritability, psychomotor excitement, overactivity, and egocentricity.
10. Social Introversion (Si)
* measures the social intervention and extroversion of a person.

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25
Q

Statement 1: MMPI focuses on Axis I, while MCMI focuses on Axis II.

Statement 2: MMPI is quicker to administer than MCMI.

Statement 3: There is a low correlation between the paranoid scale of MCMI-III and the MMPI-2 paranoia scale.

A. All statements are inaccurate.
B. Only statement 1 is accurate.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate.
D. Only statement 2 is inaccurate.
E. All statements are accurate.

A

D. Only statement 2 is inaccurate.

Axis based on DSM-4-TR
1. Axis 1 - Clinical disorders except Personality Disorder and Mental Retardation
2. Axis 2 - Personality Disorder and Mental Retardation
3. Axis 3 - General Medical Conditions (GMC)
4. Axis 4 - Psychosocial and Environmental Stressors
5. Axis 5 - Global Assessment Functioning

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26
Q

A client referred to your institutional testing office from the guidance office for personality assessment. Based on the referral, your client is showing symptoms of depression and requires assessment for further decisions in school. You gave both MMPI-2 and PAI. In MMPI-2, the T-score of depression is 65, while in PAI, depression T-score is 70. Therefore, which of the following is accurate?

A. Based on the MMPI results of the depression scale, clinical attention is required. While based on the PAI results of the depression scale, it does not require clinical attention.
B. Based on the MMPI results of depression, it does not require clinical attention. While based on the PAI results of the depression scale, it requires clinical attention.
C. Both MMPI results and PAI results require clinical attention in terms of the depression scale.
D. Both MMPI results and PAI results do not require clinical attention in terms of the depression scale.
E. Only MMPI results need clinical attention since PAI cannot measure depression.

A

C. Both MMPI results and PAI results require clinical attention in terms of the depression scale.

MMPI-2 –> >_ 65
PAI ———> >_ 70
………………………..
Personality Assessment Inventory
* designed to aid in making clinical diagnosis, screen for psychopathology

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27
Q

What is not true about the changes from DSM-IV to DSM-V?

A. The most significant change in the DSM-5 was the return to a single-axis diagnosis.
B. In DSM-5, medical conditions are no longer listed on a separate axis.
C. Psychosocial and environmental stressors, previously listed on Axis IV of DSM-IV, will be listed alongside mental disorders and physical health issues.
D. None of the above is inaccurate. A to C statements are true.

A

D. None of the above is inaccurate. A to C statements are true.

Axis based on DSM-4-TR
1. Axis 1 - Clinical disorders except Personality Disorder and Mental Retardation (e.g. Depression, Anxiety, Bipolar, Schizophrenia et.)
2. Axis 2 - Personality Disorder and Mental Retardation (e.g.
3. Axis 3 - General Medical Conditions (GMC)
4. Axis 4 - Psychosocial and Environmental Stressors
5. Axis 5 - Global Assessment Functioning

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28
Q

Which of the following is not true about “other specified disorders and unspecified disorders”?

A. The other specified and unspecified disorders should be used when a provider believes an individual’s impairment to functioning or distress is clinically significant; however, it does not meet the specific diagnostic criteria in that category.
B. The “other specified” should be used when the clinician wants to communicate specifically why the criteria do not fit.
C. The “unspecified disorder” should be used when he or she does not wish, or is unable to communicate specifics.”
D. All of the above are accurate statements about “ other specified disorders and unspecified disorders.”.

A

D. All of the above are accurate statements about “ other specified disorders and unspecified disorders.”.

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29
Q

Culture is essential to consider when it comes to diagnosis. Therefore, which of the following is not true about culture and diagnosis?

A. Symptomatology may vary as a function of culture.
B. Diagnosis can lead to the misdiagnosis of culturally oppressed groups when clinicians do not fully take into account cultural, gender, and ethnic differences.
C. DSM-5 offers a section entitled Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) that helps clinicians understand the kinds of values, experiences, and influences that have come to shape the client’s worldview.
D. None of the statements above is inaccurate. A to C are true statements.

A

D. None of the statements above is inaccurate. A to C are true statements.

Ordering Diagnosis
* Individual will often have more than one diagnosis, so it is important to consider their ordering.
* Principal diagnosis - the first diagnosis
* In an inpatient setting, this would be the most salient factor that resulted in the admission
* In an outpatient environment, this would be the reason for the visit or the main focus of treatment.
* The secondary and tertiary diagnosis should be listed in order of need for clinical attention.
* If a mental health diagnosis is due to ageneral medical condition, the ICD coding rules require listing the medical condition first, followed by the psychiatric diagnosis, due to the general medical condition.
.
.
Provisional Diagnosis
* clinician has a strong inclination that a client will meet the criteria for a diagnosis but does not yet have enough information to make the diagnosis
* Occur when a client is not able to give an adequate history or further collateral information is required.
.
Pseudo-diagnosis
* tendency to select poor information over equally available diagnostic data.
* False or incorrect diagnosis made by an unqualified or untrained person.
* Diagnosis made without proper testing or examination
* Made with malicious intent or for personal gain
.
Misdiagnosis
* made by a qualified professioanl but is still incorrect
* usually not intentional
* based on incomplete or misleading information
* missed diagnosis - happens when a patient’s condition is not diagnosed.
.
Comorbidity
* co-occurence of two or more distinct illnesses, disorders, or conditions in a single individual.

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30
Q

If the person both adopts the new culture and retains the original culture, what strategy of acculturation is used?

A. Assimilation
B. Separation
C. Marginalization
D. Integration

A

D. Integration

Acculturation - balancing your culture and the culture of your client

Two ways to learn the culture of your client:
* Direct - you live in the same culture of your client; you experience their culture firsthand.
* Indirect - reading or watching about their culture.
.
.
STRATEGIES OF ACCULTURATIONS
(adopting new and retaining original)
Strategies —————- New —————- Original
Assimilation ——————Yes ———————-No
Separation ——————– No———————–Yes
Marginalization ————–No————————No
Integration———————Yes————————Yes

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31
Q

While reviewing the assessment report created by your co- psychometrician, you noticed the following statements (please refer to the choices). Which of these statements is an example of hedging?

A. “If Marten’s mother’s recollection is accurate, Marten was born 6 weeks premature.”
B. “Marten’s teacher gives her extra incentives to stay focused on her seatwork.”
C. “Marten has high levels of anxiety.”
D. “I recommend exposure therapy to help Marten manage her fear of dogs.”

A

A. “If Marten’s mother’s recollection is accurate, Marten was born 6 weeks premature.”

Hedging - cautious or non-committal language to avoid making definitive statements. People hedge to reduce the risk of being wrong or to soften the impact of their words. For example, saying “I think” or “It seems” or “If” instead of making a bold claim.

If you dont have enough evidence to be certain of your statement, then dont write it, or go collect more evidence so that definitive language can be used.

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32
Q

Rio, a 14-year-old client, was referred to your clinic because his parents said their son might suffer from depression. After the intake interview, you decided to administer MMPI-3 to support the data gathered in your interview. In MMPI-3, you saw that on the depression clinical scale, he scored 80 T scores. Therefore, your idea that Rio is suffering from depression might be accurate. Is there any problem with this situation?

A. Yes. 80 Tscore is still low in this situation.
B. Yes. MMPI-3 does not apply to the client’s case.
C. Yes. Test administration should be done first before the interview.
D. No problem in the given situation.

A

B. Yes. MMPI-3 does not apply to the client’s case.

it shoudl be MMPI-A. MMPI-3 is only for 18 years old and above

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory - Adolescent (MMPI-A)
* Measures personality and psychopathology in clients age 14 to 18
* With 478 items (some is identifical in MMPI-2)
* Unique items are focused on problems that are prevalent among teenagers, such as drug and alcohol use, school-related problem, social problems with peers and family relationships.
* Has been translated to different languages (Spanish, French and Korean) (If there is a language barrier with the client, you can hire a translator who is not a relative or related to the client)

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory - Adolescent (MMPI-A- RF) (Revised)
* 2016
* Age 14 to 18
* 25 to 30 minutes computer-administered; 30-45 minutes paper and pencil
* 241 True or False items
* Shorter test length reduces the administration burden on adolescents.
* 48 empirically validated scales relevant for use with adolescents in a variety of clinical, forensic, and school settings.
* Comparison groups allow for an additional level of interpretation across several settings.

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33
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate about comparing MMPI- A and MMPI-A-RF?

A. MMPI-A has 478 items, while MMPI-A-RF has 241 items.
B. MMPI-A has an extensive item overlap across scales, while MMPI-A-RF has non-overlapping items
C. MMPI-A has gendered specific norms, while MMPI-A-RF has non-gendered specific norms
D. MMPI-A has a T-score criterion for the clinical evaluation of T≥60, while MMPI-A-RF has a T≥65.

A

D. MMPI-A has a T-score criterion for the clinical evaluation of T≥60, while MMPI-A-RF has a T≥65.

MMPI-A
Year of Publication : 1992
Primary Influence: MMPI-2
Number of Items: 478
Scale Structure: Extensive item overlap across scales
Norms: Gender Specific
T-score criterion for the clinical evaluation: T≥65
……………………………………………………………………………….
MMPI-A-RF
Year of Publication : 2016
Primary Influence: MMPI-20-RF
Number of Items: 241
Scale Structure: Non-Overlapping items within hierarchical scale structure
Norms: Non-Gendered
T-score criterion for the clinical evaluation: T≥60

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34
Q

Before constructing a test, it is important that the domain(s) that you are endeavoring to measure is well-articulated. The following are recommendations to define the domain, except

A. Specify the purpose of the domain or construct you seek to develop.
B. Confirm that no existing instrument will adequately serve the same purpose. “
C. It is necessary to define multiple dimensions even without an established framework or theory.
D. Describe the domain and provide a preliminary conceptual definition.

A

C. It is necessary to define multiple dimensions even without an established framework or theory.

When constructing a test it is important that your domains are well-defined first.

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35
Q

These are essential characteristics of an item, except

A. The need for items to be consistently understood.
B. The need for items to be consistently administered or communicated to respondents.
C. The consistent communication of what constitutes an adequate answer.
D. All of the above are essential characteristics of an item.

A

D. All of the above are essential characteristics of an item.

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36
Q

All are accurate regarding item development, except

A. Questions with dichotomous response categories (e.g., true/false) can have ambiguity.
B. When a Likert-type response scale is used, responses should be presented in an ordinal manner.
C. Avoid construct underrepresentation.
D. Each point on the response scale should be meaningful and interpreted the same way by each participant.

A

A. Questions with dichotomous response categories (e.g., true/false) can have ambiguity.

  • Respondents can be less thoughtful about the meaning of a question, search their memories less comprehensively, integrate retrieved information less carefully, or even select a less precise response choice (satisficing only)
  • In order to combat this behavior, questions should be kept simple, straightforward, and should follow the conventioons of normal conversation.
  • Questions with dichotomous response categories (e.g. true/false) should have no ambiguity
  • +
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37
Q

This form of psychometric assessment allows for the systematic comparison of an alternative a priori factor structure based on systematic fit assessment procedures and estimates the relationship between latent constructs.

A. Hierarchal regression
B. Exploratory factor analysis
C. Confirmatory factor analysis
D. Moderation analysis

A

C. Confirmatory factor analysis

If you started your test without theory =
If you started your test with theory = A Priori

Hierarchal Regression - +
Moderation Analysis - +

Exploratory factor analysis (EFA) - you will determine what are the subscales of your scale.
Confirmatory factor analysis (CFA) - you already have idea about your subscale and you only need to confirm if those are the accurate subscale.

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38
Q

Which is not considered a technique under item reduction analysis?

A. Item Difficulty Index
B. Inter-item and Item-Total Correlations
C. Distractor Efficiency Analysis
D. Thematic Analysis

A

D. Thematic Analysis

A. Item Difficulty Index —-> pag masyadong mahirap alisin
B. Inter-item and Item-Total Correlations —-
C. Distractor Efficiency Analysis —–> how effective your incorrect options (distractors) to the quality of multiple-choice items.
D. Thematic Analysis +

Distractor Efficiency Analysis
* Shows the distribution of incorrect options and how they contribute to the quality of multiple-choice item
* Incorrect options = distractors
* Distractors are intentionally added in the response options to attract student +

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39
Q

Which of the following is least likely accurate regarding the sample size in test development?

A. The rule of thumb has been at least 10 participants for each scale item. “
B. There is a single-item ratio that works for all survey development scenarios.
C. Sample size is always constrained by resources available.
D. None of the above.

A

B. There is a single-item ratio that works for all survey development scenarios.

Establishing the sample size
* the rule of thumb has been at least 10 participants for each item i.e. an ideal ratio of respondents to items is 10:1
* using 300 respondents after initial pre-testing. A range of 200-300 as appropriate for factor analysis.
* A graded samel of sample sizes for scale development: 100 = poor, 200 = fair, 300 = good, 500 = very good, 1,000 = excellent
* In sum, there is no single item-ratio that works for all survey development scenarios
* A larger sample size or respondent: item ratio is always better, since a larger sample size implies lower measurements errors +

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40
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate about NEO-PI interpretation?

A. Clients with a T score greater than 55 in E1 are interested in interacting with others and developing intimate relationships.
B. Clients with a T score greater than 55 in O1 have highly active imaginations and vivid fantasy lives.
C. Clients with a T score greater than 55 in A3 ignore their feelings of anger so they will not have a conflict with others.
D. Clients with a T score greater than 55 in C3 work hard to follow through with the tasks that are expected of them.

A

C. Clients with a T score greater than 55 in A3 ignore their feelings of anger so they will not have a conflict with others.

E1 = Warmth
O1 = Fantasy
A3 = Altruism (being considerate and generous)
C3 = Dutifullness

………………………………………………………………
NEO-PI-3 and NEO-FFI-3

Big 5 (OCEAN):
* Openness —> willingness or desire +
* Consciientiousness
* Extraversion
* Agreeableness
* Neuroticism
………………………………………………………………

NEO-PI-3 and NEO-FFI-3
* Designed to measure normal personalty characteristics
* This is considered as Dimensional rather than Categorical
* 240 items, self-report
* 5-point scale after each item ranges from “Strongly agree” to “Strongly Disagree”
* NEO-FFI 3 (NEO-Five Factor Inventory) - shorter test with 60 items
* Recommended +

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41
Q

You have a client who is suspected of having a neuropsychological impairment. You have decided to include standardized tests/examinations for your assessment because the client might have speech production problems. However, you also decided to check if the client’s speech comprehension is functioning well. Which of the following questions will you ask to assess the client’s speech comprehension?

A. “Can you repeat these words? Father, mother, hunter, gather.”
B. “Is a ball square?”
C. “Can you write your full name in this paper?”
D. Hold and show a pencil and ask, “What is this?”

A

B. “Is a ball square?”

+

42
Q

Ria treats social interaction as competition and wary of others as possible enemies. She values her privacy and keeps her intentions hidden and private from others. In this case, in terms of NEO-PI, we can assume she has

A. Low Extraversion – Low Agreeableness
B. High Extraversion - Low Agreeableness
C. High Extraversion – High Agreeableness
D. Low Extraversion – High Agreeableness

A

A. Low Extraversion – Low Agreeableness

43
Q

Rendon always enjoys exploring new things in life and traveling with others. It is natural for him to be an excellent public speaker even though the audience is unknown. In this case, in terms of NEO-PI, we can assume he has

A. Low Extraversion – Low Openness
B. High Extraversion – Low Openness
C. High Extraversion – High Openness
D. Low Extraversion - High Openness

A

C. High Extraversion – High Openness

44
Q

You took NEO-PI, and based on the scores, you have low openness and high conscientiousness. Therefore, we can expect that

A. You diligently follow your learning plans and have a methodical approach to gaining more knowledge. However, you lack creativity and prefer step-by-step methods to reach learning objectives.
B. You are focused on doing things successfully and genuinely love learning. You always look for different angles of problems to provide a creative solution.
C. You always explore to learn new ideas and start new projects, but you find it hard to maintain the progress of that project. You are considered excellent when developing creative ideas, but you can easily get lost in your own process.
D. You will most likely not motivate yourself to learn, study, or do any more work than necessary, and external incentives are often needed for you to put in more effort. You also have difficulty staying on task and planning how you will learn effectively.

A

A. You diligently follow your learning plans and have a methodical approach to gaining more knowledge. However, you lack creativity and prefer step-by-step methods to reach learning objectives.

45
Q

Assuming you are an entrance examiner in a prestigious university. Initially, your examination, which focuses on math, english, and science, was administered through paper and pen, but because of the pandemic, your institution decided to transfer all items online and can be answered through a computer. While this system is ongoing, you have noticed in your further analysis while scoring the exams that the test taker’s ability to use the computer somehow affects the test-takers’ performance, added to their actual scores. This scenario shows an issue of what?

A. Construct-irrelevant variance
B. Face validity
C. Construct underrepresentation
D. Internal consistency

A

A. Construct-irrelevant variance

A. Construct-irrelevant variance —> item or test scores reflect factors the test was not intended to measure
B. Face validity
C. Construct underrepresentation —> the item +

46
Q

In Jhaymar’s research (item 2), what method did he use to determine normality?

A. Theory-driven graphical method
B. Theory-driven numerical method
C. Descriptive graphical method
D. Descriptive numerical method

A

D. Descriptive numerical method

4 ways to test the normality of your Data:

Descriptive + Graphical = Histogram
Descriptive + Numerical = Skewness and Kurtosis

Theory Driven + Graphical = QQ Plots
Theory Driven + Numerical = Shapiro Wilk (< 50 participants) or Kolmogorov Smirnov (> _50 participants)

47
Q

You conducted a study regarding the relationship between well-being and job satisfaction in your company. During the data analysis, you tested the normality of your data using a histogram. Which of the following methods did you use?

A. Theory-driven graphical method
B. Theory-driven numerical method
C. Descriptive graphical method
D. Descriptive numerical method

A

C. Descriptive graphical method

4 ways to test the normality of your Data:

Descriptive + Graphical = Histogram
Descriptive + Numerical = Skewness and Kurtosis

Theory Driven + Graphical = QQ Plots
Theory Driven + Numerical = Shapiro Wilk (< 50 participants) or Kolmogorov Smirnov (> _50 participants)

48
Q

Kibs, a researcher, wants to test any significant differences between students in college, senior high school, and junior high school regarding their non-verbal intelligence. When Kibs had already gathered the data, he first tested the normality and found out that there were extreme scores, which are not normally distributed. What test of difference should Kibs use?

A. ANOVA
B. Wilcoxon Signed Rank-Test
C. Kruskal Wallis H Test
D. Mann-Whitney U Test

A

C. Kruskal Wallis H Test

A. ANOVA — 3 groups — Parametric
C. Kruskal Wallis H Test — 3 groups — Non Parametric

B. Wilcoxon Signed Rank-Test —- 1 group with 2 ordinal or not normal data of scores
D. Mann-Whitney U Test —- 2 groups with 1 ordinal or not normal data of scores

……………………………………..
Test +

Dependent (Paired) vs. Independent (Unpaired)
* This can only be used in two 2 groups or 2 scores.

Dependent: 1 Group but two scores to compare.
(e.g.) You compared the Diagnostic Score and Pre-Board of RGO Palawan
.
Independent: 2 Groups but 1 score to compare
(e.g.) You compared the Pre-Board Score of RGO Palawan and RGO Davao

……………………………………..

49
Q

Statement 1: Competent test users understand and appreciate the limitations of the tests they use as well as how those limitations might be compensated for by data from other sources.

Statement 2: Competent test users understand a great deal about the tests they use.

A. Only statement 1 is accurate.
B. Only statement 2 is accurate.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are inaccurate.

A

C. Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate.

50
Q

Peter’s T-score on the psychological assessment quiz is 80. What is the z-score?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. None of the above.

A

D. None of the above. (3)

51
Q

Which of the following is not derived from MMPI?

A. MAC-R
B. APS
C. AAS
D. MAST

A

D. MAST

52
Q

In neuropsychological assessment, acopia is an example of

A. True sign
B. False sign
C. Hard sign
D. Soft sign

A

D. Soft sign

53
Q

These are necessary when it comes to the assessment of anxiety disorders in children and adolescents, except

A. Severity of avoidance, distress, and functional impairment
B. Presence of comorbid anxiety, mood, or neurodevelopmental disorders
C. History of childhood adversity (including parental separation or loss)
D. All of the above are necessary when assessing anxiety disorders in children and adolescents.

A

D. All of the above are necessary when assessing anxiety disorders in children and adolescents.

54
Q

This is the first factor-analyzed neuropsychological battery.

A. LNNB
B. HRNB
C. BVMG
D. WMS

A

B. HRNB

55
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate about face validity?

A. It pertains to whether the test “looks valid” to the person deciding its use.
B. The question about face validity concerns rapport.
C. It can be improved by adding more items.
D. It should never be considered as a substitute for other validity that is objectively determined.

A

C. It can be improved by adding more items.

56
Q

There are two principal reasons for controlling the use of psychological tests. Which of the following is one of these two principal reasons?

A. Ensure that the number of psychological tests is enough and always available to the public.
B. Ensure that the test is used by a qualified professional.
C. Ensure that only reliable and valid tests are used by the practitioners.
D. Ensure that the institution will answer the referral question all the time.

A

B. Ensure that the test is used by a qualified professional.

Two principal reasons for controlling the use of psychological tests:
1. Ensure that the test is used by a qualified professional.
2. Prevent general familiarity with test content, which would invalidate the test

57
Q

You are tasked to assess a high school student struggling in various subjects such as Math and English. However, you are not fully aware of the tests to administer and how they will be administered to the client. Which of the following is not an important requirement to provide a good testing procedure to your client?

A. Memorize the exact verbal instructions that will be given to your client during the test administration.
B. Prepare the test materials that will be used, which should generally be placed near the testing table.
C. Become familiar with the specific testing procedure.
D. None of the above is considered as not an important requirement.

A

D. None of the above is considered as not an important requirement.

Advance the preparation is the Key

58
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate about rapport in psychological testing?

A. The purpose of rapport in ability tests is to encourage the test taker to concentrate on a given task and perform well carefully. B. The purpose of rapport in personality testing is to encourage the test taker to respond honestly to the questions/test items. C. The purpose of rapport in projective testing is to ensure that the test taker has full reporting of associations evoked by the stimuli.
D. None of the above is inaccurate.

A

D. None of the above is inaccurate.

Rapport - examiner’s effort to arouse the subject’s interest in the test, elicit his cooperation, ensure that he follows the standard test instruction.

59
Q

Imagine you are a psychometrician in a testing center, and one of your tasks is administering a test to kindergarten students individually. One day, you administered an achievement test (measures of math knowledge) to a student named Robin. In every correct answer of Robin, you give him a candy in which there is an obvious boost in his confidence to answer the questions carefully. The next day, you administered the same test to a student named Popoy. In every correct answer of Popoy, you say, “Good job, Popoy,” in which the effect on his confidence to answer the questions carefully is not obvious. What can we conclude from this situation?

A. We can conclude that it is not ideal to administer this kind of test individually since it may be a burden for you as a psychometrician.
B. We can conclude that there should be uniformity even when establishing rapport.
C. We can conclude that Popoy will get a higher score than Robin.
D. We can conclude that Robin will get a passing score on the exam and Popoy will not.

A

B. We can conclude that there should be uniformity even when establishing rapport.

60
Q

A statement during the test administration, “In this test, everyone is expected to finish within the time allotted,” is expected to be

A. Beneficial for high-anxious test takers
B. Deleterious for low-anxious test takers
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

Benefit: Low Anxiety —> test conditions that arouse some anxiety

Benefit: High Anxiety -> more relaxed conditions

61
Q

In terms of test sophistication, if the test taker practices taking the test with the use of objective answer sheets, their performance will _____________.

A. Improve dramatically
B. Improve slightly
C. Have no changes
D. Decrease

A

B. Improve slightly

62
Q

Who is considered committed to an unprofessional practice?

A. Carlo, a psychometrician at a university, administered an entrance examination among incoming senior high school students and used the data gathered for their institutional research and update of norms.
B. Ronel, a psychologist, received a referral from a client, and he was informed that the client would take a personality test from another location, so he decided to use at least a sentence completion test via email with an attached informed consent form. After securing the consent form from the client, he let the test taker answer it and send it back for scoring and interpretation.
C. Filomena, a psychometrician in a provincial hospital, decided to administer BVMG to a patient who needed urgent psychological testing since there was no qualified person inside the hospital, and she had prior training related to neuropsychological assessment.
D. None of the above practitioners committed an unprofessional practice.

A

B. Ronel, a psychologist, received a referral from a client, and he was informed that the client would take a personality test from another location, so he decided to use at least a sentence completion test via email with an attached informed consent form. After securing the consent form from the client, he let the test taker answer it and send it back for scoring and interpretation.

Another unprofessional practice is tedting by mail. An individual’s performance on either aptitude or personality tests cannpt be properly assessed by mailinh test forms to him and having him return them by email for scoring and interpretation. Not only does this procedure provide no control of testing conditions but usually it also involves the interpretation of test scores in the absence of other pertinent information about the individual. Under these conditions, test results may be worse than useless

63
Q

What is the mean and standard deviation used in the previous versions of SB5?

A. Mean = 100 ; SD = 15
B. Mean = 110 ; SD = 15
C. Mean = 95 ; SD = 15
D. Mean = 100 ; SD = 16

A

D. Mean = 100 ; SD = 16

64
Q

Statement 1: SB5 measures five factors from the Cattell- Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory of intellectual abilities, which includes fluid reasoning, quantitative reasoning, crystallized knowledge, short-term memory, and visual processing.

Statement 2: Each factor mentioned in statement 1 is assessed in both verbal and non-verbal domains, resulting in a total of 10 subtests and provides index scores for each factor.
Statement 3: SB5 can provide composite scores for verbal IQ, non-verbal IQ, and full-scale IQ.

A. Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate.
B. Only statement 2 is inaccurate.
C. Only statement 3 is accurate.
D. Only statement 2 is accurate.
E. All statements are accurate.

A

E. All statements are accurate.

65
Q

An 89-year-old client referred to you for a comprehensive intellectual assessment. The client will receive a special program for older adults, but the receiving institution wants to determine the client’s intelligence level. You decided to use SB5 to conduct the comprehensive intellectual assessment. Is this appropriate?

A. No. SB5 cannot be used because it is not considered as comprehensive measure of intelligence.
B. No. SB5 cannot be administered in this case since the age of the client is not within the required age given in the manual.
C. No. Although SB5 can provide an intelligence score, it cannot determine the level of intelligence.
D. Yes, it is appropriate.

A

D. Yes, it is appropriate.

85+ is allowed

Stanform-Binet Intelligence Scales - 5th Ed.

  • Individually administered
  • Measures 5 factors from Catell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model
  • Each factor assesses both verbal and nonverbal domains resulting in a total of 10 subtests that provides factor index scores for each of the five CHC factors
  • Provide composite scores for Verbal IQ, Non-verbal IQ, and Full Scale IQ
  • Requires 60-75 minutes to administer
  • Abbreviated battery IQ can be obtained in 15-20 mins
  • Separate administration of either the Verbal or Nonverbal +
66
Q

If a client taps blocks in the same sequence demonstrated by the examiner, which of the following SB5 factors is most likely being assessed?

A. Quantitative reasoning
B. Knowledge
C. Working memory
D. Visual-spatial processing

A

C. Working memory

67
Q

It is more likely that the test design of SB5 relies on what theory?

A. CTT
B. IRT
C. DST
D. Generalizability theory

A

B. IRT

Nonverbal Flurd Reasoning Subtest (Object series/Matrices)
* Starting Point
* The examiner starts testing at the examinee’s estimated present ability level
* Reverse Rule
* If the examinee scores on either the first two items at the start point the examiner goes back to the next lowest start point. (but if the examiner answered the first two items correctly, and the examiner got the wrong answer on the following items, we cannot reverse it anymore, tuloy tuloy na yun)
* Stop Rule
* The examiner discontinues testing if the examinee scores 0 on items 1,2,3 or scores four consecutive 0s on items 2 through 36.
* +
.
Verbal Knowledge Subtest
* Start Point
* The examiner starts testing at the examinee’s estimated present ability level
* Reverse Rule
* If the examinee scores on either the first two items at the start point the examiner goes back to the next lowest start point. (but if the examiner answered the first two items correctly, and the examiner got the wrong answer on the following items, we cannot reverse it anymore, tuloy tuloy na yun)
* The examiner discontinues testing if the examinee scores 0 on items 1,2,3 or scores four consecutive 0/s on items 2 through 44.
.
Level Subtests: Basal and Ceiling Rules
* Basal Rule
* If the examinee scores fewer than 3 points on any testlet at an entry level, the examiner drops back at the previous level and administers only the testlet at the same subtest.*
* Ceiling Rule
* The ceiling rule is the same for Levels 2 through 5 in both the Nonverbal and Verbal domains. If the examinee scores fewer than 3 points on a testlet, the examiner discontinues testing for that subtest and continues to administer testlets for the remaining subtests until the examinee establishes a ceiling (2 or fewer points) on each subtest.*

68
Q

Which of the following is not true about SB5?

A. It can be used as part of diagnostic assessment for neuropsychological assessment.
B. Abbreviated battery IQ can be used as an estimate of general intelligence.
C. It is a requirement that both verbal and non-verbal sections of SB5 should administered whenever it is used.
D. SB5 is conormed with BVMG.
E. None of the above is inaccurate.

A

C. It is a requirement that both verbal and non-verbal sections of SB5 should administered whenever it is used.

69
Q

Who used predictive validity in his constructed scale among the following test developers?

A. Agar, a test developer, constructed a scale measuring anxiety and established the validity using another scale that measures anxiety by correlating the scores.
B. Baldo, a psychometrician, constructed an entrance examination for the university where he worked and established its validity by correlating the takers’ scores to their GPA before graduating from their respective programs.
C. Cardo, a researcher, constructed a scale measuring life satisfaction, and he established its validity by letting other professionals/experts in their field screen the items.
D. Danding, a test developer, established the validity of his motivation scale by reviewing related literature to develop the operational definition of motivation and ensure that it measures motivation.

A

B. Baldo, a psychometrician, constructed an entrance examination for the university where he worked and established its validity by correlating the takers’ scores to their GPA before graduating from their respective programs.

70
Q

Assuming that you work in a university testing center. One day, the guidance office referred a student to your office for an assessment because of possible psychopathology. However, you remembered that there are no available MMPI answer sheets in your center, and your order will be delivered next week. Which among the following is recommended as an alternative to MMPI?

A. SCT
B. PAI
C. KFD
D. Beta

A

B. PAI

A. SCT - Sentence Completion Test
B. PAI - Personality Assessment Inventory
C. KFD - Kinetic Family Drawing
D. Beta - Verbal Intelligence Test

71
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate regarding item writing?

A. The content of the item must not be culturally biased or offensive.
B. The reading comprehension level of the items should be matched to the examinee population.
C. Items should measure a single important content as specified in the test blueprint.
D. None of the above is inaccurate.

A

D. None of the above is inaccurate.

72
Q

In reality, establishing the construct validity, specifically using the group differentiation technique, will not always provide significant differences between groups. The following are possible reasons for the lack of differences between groups, except

A. Inadequate test or instrument
B. Research design failure
C. Flawed theory
D. All of the above. A to C are possible reasons for the lack of differences between groups.

A

D. All of the above. A to C are possible reasons for the lack of differences between groups.

73
Q

As you establish the reliability of your scale measuring agreeableness using the test-retest technique, you notice that the scores were not the same between their first and second take. As you interviewed multiple participants, they said that they encountered some traumatic experiences, which may be a possible reason for changes in the score. The traumatic experiences of the participants are called as
A. Carryover
B. Contamination
C. Coefficient
D. Composite

A

B. Contamination

A. Carryover - memory or practice
B. Contamination - additional information acquired by persons
C. Coefficient
D. Composite

74
Q

If you construct a scale for educational decisions, what is the recommended test-retest reliability coefficient?

A. .90
B. .85
C. .80
D. .75

A

A. .90

B-D Recommended for personality, attitude or interest inventiories

75
Q

This reliability method reduces the possibility of cheating.

A. Test-retest method
B. Parallel form method
C. Split-half method
D. Coefficient alpha

A

B. Parallel form method

  • Parallel cannot be exactly the same with each other.
  • Pag nag parallel form ka dapat may internal consistency ka
76
Q

Coefficient alpha is effective for estimating score reliability for test items that are scored

A. dichotomously (correct/incorrect)
B. on an ordinal level of measurement (e.g., Likert-type)
C. with differential weights (e.g., essay type)
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

Coefficient Alpha
* is useful formula because of its GENERALITY, because of this, coefficient, alpha is reported in the research literature more often than any other coefficient
.
If asked what to use to estimate score reliability for dichotomous questions. CHOOSE KR, if KR is in the choices.
.
But if KR is not in the choices, CHOOSE COEFFICIENT ALPHA.

77
Q

If you want to get the coefficient of equivalence, you should use what method?

A. Coefficient alpha
B. Test-retest method
C. Split-half method
D. Inter-scorer method
E. None of the above

A

C. Split-half method

if coefficient of equivalence is asked. CHOOSE PARALLEL, if parallel is in the choices,
.
But if Parallel is not in the choices, CHOOSE SPLIT-HALF.

78
Q

Draw-A-Person Test is under what test category?

A. Self-attribution
B. Stimulus-attribution
C. Performance-based
D. Informant-report
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

If client ang nagagawa ng responses, that will be constructive.
……..
A. Self-attribution - inaatribute mo sarili mo sa test (e.g. NEO-PI, MMPI)
B. Stimulus-attribution - may nakikitang stimulus, then sasabihin niya kung anong nakikita niya sa stimulus (e.g. Rorschach Inkblot)
C. Performance-based - +
D. Informant-report - +

79
Q

The following are parts of evidence-based psychological assessment, except

A. Developing knowledge, skills, and attitudes necessary for proficiency in psychological assessment.
B. Use of test scores to assess outcomes and variables for which they have been validated and report accordingly.
C. Use of multiple methods to assess a given construct.
D. Being aware of the synergistic interaction of patient and assessor identities throughout the assessment process.
E. None of the above. A to D are all parts of evidence-based psychological assessment.

A

E. None of the above. A to D are all parts of evidence-based psychological assessment.

80
Q

The following are advantages of group testing, except

A. Can be administered simultaneously to as many persons as can be fitted comfortably into the available space.
B. Most group tests require only the ability to read simple instructions to the examinees and to keep accurate time.
C. Most group tests can be scored by computers.
D. Group tests characteristically provide better established norms than individual tests.
E. None of the above. A to D are all advantages of group testing.

A

E. None of the above. A to D are all advantages of group testing.

81
Q

Aptitude tests - _____; Achievement tests - ________.

A. Concurrent – Predictive
B. Predictive – Content
C. Content – Convergent
D. Divergent – Convergent E. Content – Concurrent

A

B. Predictive – Content

Predictive Criterion-Oriented Validity
* is the most direct way of assessing aptitude tests, achievement tests are chara +

82
Q

In KFD administration, you should conduct an inquiry after the child draws the family on paper. Which of the following questions should be asked in the last part of the inquiry?

A. “Can you tell me the name of each family member in this drawing?”
B. “What would you change in the picture if you could?”
C. “What are they doing?”
D. “What happened before this?”
E. “Can you tell me what they are thinking?”

A

B. “What would you change in the picture if you could?”

  1. A. “Can you tell me the name of each family member in this drawing?”
  2. C. “What are they doing?”
    In KFD administration, you should conduct an inquiry after the child draws the family on paper. Which of the following questions should be asked in the last part of the inquiry?

++

83
Q

You decided to assess a child suspected of having a conduct disorder. Before the assessment, you have listed at least five tests and other techniques you will use to get the information necessary. After the assessment, you noticed that one of the five tests you used is unreliable, but you added it because that is your “favorite” test, even though it has applicability issues. What is present in this scenario?

A. Temporal Variance
B. Source Variance
C. Setting Variance
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

A. Temporal Variance - changes in behavior overtime
B. Source Variance (rater variance) - +
C. Setting Variance

84
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate about EPPS?

A. This inventory has ten scales.
B. Deference is one of the scales.
C. It can be used in research studies.
D. Fifteen pairs of items are repeated twice for the consistency scale.

A

A. This inventory has ten scales.

Edwards Personal Preference Schedule - 15 Scales
1. Achievement - to accomplish tasks well
2. Deference - to conform to customs and defer to others
3. Order - to plan well and be organized
4. Exhibition - to be the center of attention in a group
5. Autonomy - to be free of responsibilities and obligations
6. Afflitiation - to form strong friendships and attachments
7. Intraception - to analyze behaviors and feelings of others
8. Succorance - to receive support and attention from others
9. Dominance - to be a leader and influence others
10. Degradation - to accept and blame for problems and confess errors
11. Nurturance - to be of assistance to others
12. Change - to seek new experiences and avoid routine
13. Endurance - to follow through on tasks and complete assingments
14. Heterosexuality - to be associated to members of the opposite sex
15. Aggression - to express one’s opinion and be critical of others

85
Q

The following are reasons why knowing how a child behaves in the classroom is essential, except

A. In the school setting, the child spends several hours a day.
B. The school environment demands many challenges to the child that may not be present in other settings.
C. The demands in this setting change as a child progresses through school.
D. None. A to C are all important reasons.

A

D. None. A to C are all important reasons.

86
Q

Which of the following is not recommended to evaluate the severity of intellectual disability?

A. Wechsler scales
B. SBIS
C. KABC
D. EDI

A

D. EDI

A. Wechsler scales
B. SBIS
C. KABC - Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children
D. EDI - Eating Disorder Inventory
………
Wechsler Intelligence Tests
* David Wechsler published Wechsler-Bellevue in 1939
* Designed to measure the intelligence of adults.
* Years went by, measures for intelligence of school-age children and pre-school children is also available.
* Today, there are three current Wechsler Intelligence Test
* Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-4th Ed (Wais-iv-2008) +
* +
* +
* +
* Individually administered and involved direction interaction
* Average IQ score 100 and a standard deviation of 15
* Both measured verbal and non-verbal aspects and with 10 to 15 subtests.
* Four separate index scors (1) verbal comprehension, (2) perceptual reasoning, (3)
………
Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children - 2nd Ed Normative Update (KABC-II NU)
* Individually administered
* Measure cognitive processing abilities of children and adolescents ages 3 through 18
* Age-based standard and scaled scores, age equivalents, and percentile ranks
* Rooted in neuropsychological theory (Luria Model) with a strong emphasis on processing and useful qualitative inhibitors on each subset.
* Administration: Paper-and-Pencil

KBIT -
KTEA -

………
Eating Disorder Invetory -3 (EDI-3)
* Measures symptoms and constructs related eating disorders
* Ages 13 to 53; 91 items; 20 mins
* EDI-3 provides normative data for clients with specific eating disorders such as anorexia and bulimia
* Provides data regarding frequency of symptoms (e.g. exercise patterns; use of laxatives; diet pill diuretics; self-inducing vomiting)

87
Q

According to Wiegel et al. (2002), the following are three major aspects to assess the sexual behavior of the client, except

A. Interview with the client through a questionnaire
B. Thorough medical evaluation
C. Interview with collateral informants
D. Psychophysiological assessments

A

C. Interview with collateral informants

collateral informants - individuals who provide additional information or context about a subject, particularly in situations where the primary source might be unavailable, unreliable, or unable to provide a complete picture.
.
.
If sexual behavior is being assessed, only spouse and parents should be asked about it.

88
Q

Statement 1: Ryan, who has a deficient educational background, will be less likely to benefit from special coaching. Statement 2: Tristan, who has received coaching, will improve test scores if the coaching material and test content resemble. Statement 3: There are certain types of items that may be much easier when encountered a second time.

A. Both statements 1 and 2 are accurate. B. Only statement 2 is inaccurate.
C. Both statements 2 and 3 are accurate.
D. Only statement 3 is accurate.

A

C. Both statements 2 and 3 are accurate.

89
Q

Pre-testing is essential after developing the items of the test. There are numerous benefits of screening the items in pre- testing. Which of the following is inaccurate about it?

A. It helps to ensure that items are meaningful to the target population before the survey is actually administered.
B. It helps to eliminate poorly worded items.
C. It also facilitates revising phrasing to be maximally understood to reduce the cognitive burden on participants.
D. It represents an additional way in which members of the target population can participate in the research process by contributing their insights to the development of the survey.
E. None of the above is inaccurate.

A

  • Pre-testing is also known as Pilot Testing
90
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate?

A. Psychologists who conduct psychological testing, assessment, and evaluation strive to be mindful of the potential negative impact and subsequent outcome of those measures on clients/patients/ examinees/employees, supervisees, other professionals, and the general public.
B. Psychologists who conduct psychological testing, assessment, and evaluation strive to use a single source of relevant and reliable clinical information collected according to established principles and methods of assessment.
C. Psychologists who conduct psychological testing, assessment, and evaluation strive to practice with cultural competence.
D. Psychologists who conduct services using technology for online or in-person testing, assessment, and evaluation make every effort to ensure their own competency.

A

B. Psychologists who conduct psychological testing, assessment, and evaluation strive to use a single source of relevant and reliable clinical information collected according to established principles and methods of assessment.

91
Q

Which of the following is inaccurate about restructured clinical scales of MMPI-A-RF?

A. RC2 is a scale that covers emotional symptoms connected to depression.
B. RC6 is a scale that involves self-referential thoughts that others are a threat.
C. RC7 is a scale that covers negative affect, including irritability and anxiety.
D. RC8 is a scale that assesses the respondent’s unusual sensory experiences or thoughts consistent with psychotic symptoms.
E. RC9 is a scale that covers an adolescent’s general unhappiness and life dissatisfaction.

A

MMPI-A-RF Restructured Clinical Scales Content

RCd: Demoralization - Adolescent’s general unhappiness and life dissatisfaction
RC1: Somatic Complaints - Assess physical health complaints
RC2: Low Positive Emotions - Covers emotional symptoms connected to depression
RC3: Cynicism - Assess “non-self-referential beliefs that others are bad”
RC4: Antisocial Behavior - Evaluates self-reported rule-breaking and irresponsibility
RC5: NONE
RC6: Ideas of Persecution +

92
Q

If you administer HTP as a projective drawing technique to a child client, the following are expected, except

A. The house is thought to elicit feelings associated with the children’s home situation and familial relationship.
B. The tree is thought to elicit deeper and unconscious feelings about themselves and their relationships with their environment. C. The drawing of a person is thought to reflect more of a conscious or semiconscious view of the child’s self, ideal self, and significant other.
D. None of the above. A to C are all expected when administering HTP to a child client.

A

D. None of the above. A to C are all expected when administering HTP to a child client.

93
Q

The following are methods for screening depression among children, except

A. Administer a brief self-report inventory to the child with adequate reading ability.
B. Interview the parents to see whether their child exhibits symptoms given in the DSM-5 criteria.
C. Ask other informants (e.g., teachers, nurses, grandparents) about symptoms of depression that the child may exhibit.
D. None of the above. A to C are all methods for screening depression among child clients.

A
94
Q

Given the correct z-score in the situation of Peter in item 50, what is his raw score? Assuming that the class has a mean score of 10 and SD of 2.

A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16

Z-Score = 3

A

D. 16

Formula for Z-Score to Raw Score
Raw Score = Z (SD) + Mean

95
Q

The following statements are accurate about the Halstead- Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery (HRNB) and its versions, except

A. The version for clients aged five to eight is called HRNB-C.
B. HRNB is appropriate for clients aged 15 years and older.
C. HRNB can be administered along with the Wechsler Intelligence Scale or MMPI.
D. HRNB includes a finger-tapping test.

A

Finger-tapping test is done to test the +

96
Q

Assuming you are administering HRNB to your client and you require him to be blindfolded. Which of the following subtests are you administering?

A. Finger tapping test
B. Sensory-perceptual test
C. Trail making test
D. Grip strength
E. None of the above

A
97
Q

The following are accurate about the standardization of HRNB, except

A. The universal standard scores drawn from a large normative sample are not available.
B. The manual includes information on in-depth reliability and validity.
C. Some neuropsychologists choose not to use the complete battery but to use the subtests selectively.
D. None of the above is inaccurate.

A
98
Q

If your client scored 18 in BDI and 18 in BAI, this may mean that the client’s levels of depression and anxiety are

A. No or minimal and mild respectively
B. Mild and moderate respectively
C. Both moderate
D. Severe and moderate respectively
E. Both mild

A
99
Q

In the development of 16PF, validity was established using convergent techniques. Therefore, which of the following instruments has been used for this analysis?

A. MBTI
B. CPI
C. NEO-PI-R
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A
100
Q

Given the situation of Charles in item 1. By the time you need to get information from Ms. De Castro, Charles’ mother, what is the most ideal thing to do?

A. Start the assessment/information gathering from Ms. De Castro by requiring her to answer an observation checklist that will somehow gather information about Charles’ behavior at home.
B. Start the assessment/information gathering from Ms. De Castro by conducting an unstructured clinical interview.
C. While Charles is doing the Draw-A-Person Test, let Ms. De Castro join in the interview process and confirm the statements given by her son.
D. Once Charles completes the Draw-A-Person Test, give it to her mother and interview Ms. De Castro about the possible explanations of Charles’ drawings.

A