ABP DX REFRESHER (Finalized) (10/8/23) Flashcards

Prof. Renz Louis T. Montano

1
Q
  1. In defining a mental disorder, deviance refers to the

a) amount of suffering the individual is experiencing due to the mental disorder
b) inability of an individual to fulfill a certain role (e.g., work or family obligation)
c) the capacity of the individual to cause harm to the people around them
d) the tendency of an individual to display behaviors that are culturally unexpected

A

d) the tendency of an individual to display behaviors that are culturally unexpected

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about subjective distress?

a) All people with mental illness experience some degree of distress
b) Distress is the only criterion is diagnosing abnormality
c) Its presence is enough for a clinician to determine if someone has mental illness
d) Some individuals with mental disorder may not experience subjective distress

A

d) Some individuals with mental disorder may not experience subjective distress

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3
Q
  1. What is the main reason for discouraging people from using terms such as “schizophrenic”, “autistic” and “retarded” when referring to people with mental illness?

a) These disorders are no longer in the DSM
b) There are only a small number of people diagnosed with these disorders
c) There is nothing wrong in using these terms
d) Because people with mental illness are not defined by their condition

A

d) Because people with mental illness are not defined by their condition

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4
Q
  1. According to the diathesis-stress model, having a predisposition towards mental illness

a) Means that a person will surely develop a mental disorder in the future
b) Does not affect the chances of developing a mental disorder
c) Increases the chance that a person would have a mental disorder
d) None of the above

A

c) Increases the chance that a person would have a mental disorder

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5
Q
  1. Incidence refers to

a) How many new cases of a disorder occur during a given period of time
b) How many people have recovered from a disorder in a given period of time
c) The percentage of males and females who have a disorder.
d) How many people in the population as a whole have a disorder

A

a) How many new cases of a disorder occur during a given period of time

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6
Q
  1. A psychological disorder is said to have an acute onset if the symptoms develop ____, while it has an insidious onset if the symptoms develop ____.

a) suddenly;atypically
b) suddenly;gradually
c) gradually;atypically
d) atypically;suddenly

A

b) suddenly;gradually

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7
Q
  1. Which part of your brain is active when you get cues about being hungry, thirsty, or sleepy?

a) Hippocampus
b) Thalamus
c) Hypothalamus
d) Amygdala

A

c) Hypothalamus

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8
Q
  1. What neurotransmitter was first believed to be the cause of schizophrenia?

a) GABA
b) serotonin
c) epinephrine
d) dopamine

A

d) dopamine

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9
Q
  1. Which of the ff. is an appropriate description of a child with conduct disorder?

a) They may argue repeatedly with adults, ignore adult rules and requests, deliberately annoy other people, and feel much anger and resentment
b) They have great difficulty attending to tasks, or behave over actively and impulsively, or both
c) Marked by extreme unresponsiveness to other people, severe communication deficits, and highly rigid and repetitive behaviors, interests, and activities
d) They are often aggressive, deliberately destroy other people’s property, steal or lie, skip school, or run away from home

A

d) They are often aggressive, deliberately destroy other people’s property, steal or lie, skip school, or run away from home

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10
Q
  1. Exceptional mental abilities such as mental math, memorization, musical and artistic ability found among individuals with autism

a) Savant skills
b) Theory of mind
c) Echolalia
d) Self-stimulatory behaviors

A

a) Savant skills

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11
Q
  1. Unlike those with autism spectrum disorder, those with reactive attachment disorder has a history of:

a) Aggression and cruelty to people or animals
b) Repetitive behaviors
c) Severe social neglect
d) Subnormal intellectual ability

A

c) Severe social neglect

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12
Q
  1. A disorder characterized by a pattern of behavior that involves culturally inappropriate, overly familiar behavior with relative strangers.

a) Schizoid personality disorder
b) Autism spectrum disorder
c) Reactive attachment disorder
d) Disinhibited social engagement disorder

A

d) Disinhibited social engagement disorder

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13
Q
  1. The following are TRUE about selective mutism EXCEPT

a) The disturbance is often marked by high social anxiety
b) It cannot be diagnosed alongside social anxiety disorder
c) The person is capable of speaking in some situations
d) It may lead to academic impairment

A

b) It cannot be diagnosed alongside social anxiety disorder

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14
Q
  1. School phobia among kids may be a form of

a) Social Anxiety Disorder
b) Separation Anxiety Disorder
c) Either a or b
d) None of these

A

c) Either a or b

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15
Q
  1. In order for one to be diagnosed with panic disorder, the panic attacks must _.

a) Occur every time when one is in a certain situation
b) Occur most of the time when one is in a specific situation
c) Be unexpected
d) Expected

A

c) Be unexpected

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16
Q
  1. Unlike other types of anxiety disorder, this one is not triggered by anything specific, hence the name free-floating anxiety.

a) Agoraphobia
b) Panic Disorder
c) Specific Phobia
d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

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17
Q
  1. A person with Schizophrenia may exhibit motor abnormalities. Some of them have peculiar hand and limb movements while others adopt unusual postures for long periods of time. This symptom is known as

a) catatonia
b) loose association
c) disorganized speech
d) blunted affect

A

a) catatonia

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18
Q
  1. The traditional cutoff in diagnosing intellectual disability.

a) IQ score below 80
b) IQ score below 70
c) IQ score below 60
d) IQ score below 50

A

b) IQ score below 70

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19
Q
  1. A 3½-year-old girl demonstrates substantial delays across multiple domains of functioning, including communication, learning, attention, and motor development, which limit her ability to interact with same-age peers and require substantial support in all activities of daily living at home. Unfortunately, the child has received no formal psychological or learning evaluation to date. She is about to be evaluated for readiness to attend preschool. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

a) Major neurocognitive disorder
b) Autism spectrum disorder
c) Global developmental delay
d) Intellectual developmental disorder

A

c) Global developmental delay

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20
Q
  1. The following are hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms of ADHD EXCEPT

a) forgetfulness
b) fidgeting
c) Has difficulty waiting for one’s turn
d) blurts out answer before the question is complete

A

a) forgetfulness

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21
Q
  1. While out for a walk, you come across a ferocious dog. You feel your heart beat faster and your palms begin to sweat. Which part of the autonomic nervous system is activated in this situation?

a) Central
b) Sympathetic
c) Parasympathetic
d) Somatic

A

b) Sympathetic

22
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics best describes differences between bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa?

a) Individuals with anorexia do not have as severe health risks as individuals with bulimia have.
b) Individuals with bulimia may have a normal body weight.
c) Only those with bulimia suffer from amenorrhea.
d) Only those with bulimia nervosa display compensatory behaviors.

A

b) Individuals with bulimia may have a normal body weight.

23
Q
  1. Elliot became widowed after nearly 40 years of marriage. He has convinced himself that no one will ever love him again. His irrational thinking has caused him to suffer from depression, and he rarely leaves his house. What perspective might best explain his behavior?

a) psychodynamic
b) behavioral
c) biological
d) cognitive

A

d) cognitive

24
Q
  1. Sandy took part in the April 2013 Boston Marathon, where two bombs were detonated near the finish line, killing three spectators. For approximately 2 weeks after the marathon, Sandy was unable to sleep or concentrate and often found herself reliving the moment she heard the bombs explode. What disorder might Sandy be diagnosed with?

a) posttraumatic stress disorder
b) phobic disorder
c) panic disorder
d) acute stress disorder

A

d) acute stress disorder

25
Q
  1. Franklin wakes up in a homeless shelter in another town. He doesn’t know where he is or how he got there, and he’s confused when people say he has been calling himself Anthony. This is most likely an episode of dissociative

a) depersonalization
b) fugue
c) wandering
d) flight of ideas

A

b) fugue

26
Q
  1. The posttraumatic model proposes that DID is

a) not a real disorder and is better explained by PTSD
b) more common among adults than children
c) a worse form of PTSD
d) a creation of the media other cultural influences

A

c) a worse form of PTSD

27
Q
  1. This orientation focuses on symptoms instead of looking at underlying causes.

a) Psychodynamic
b) Humanistic
c) Social
d) Behavioral

A

d) Behavioral

28
Q
  1. Charles has suffered from schizophrenia for many years and now resides in a group treatment facility. One day a nurse approaches him and quietly tells him that his sister, who has been fighting cancer for many months, died that morning. Charles has no appreciable facial reaction, and in a very monotone voice says, “okay.” The nurse is not surprised by Charles’s lack of response to the awful news, because she knows that _______ is one symptom often seen in those suffering from schizophrenia.

a) clang associations
b) inappropriate affect
c) blunted affect
d) perseveration

A

c) blunted affect

29
Q
  1. David believes that characters in a popular science fiction show are secretly sending him messages. This would be an example of a delusion of

a) persecution
b) influence
c) reference
d) grandeur

A

c) reference

30
Q
  1. Alex, a 35-year-old man, has been experiencing recurrent and intense sexual arousal from rubbing his sex organ against nonconsenting individuals for over a period of at least 6 months. He frequently fantasizes about engaging in nonconsensual sexual acts and struggles to control these urges. Alex has acted upon these sexual urges with nonconsenting individuals, which has caused distress and impairment in various aspects of his life.

a) Voyeurism
b) Frotteurism
c) Frotteuristic disorder
d) Voyeuristic disorder

A

c) Frotteuristic disorder

31
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is reduced in both the manic and the depressive phases of bipolar disorder?

a) acetylcholine
b) dopamine
c) norepinephrine
d) serotonin

A

d) serotonin

32
Q
  1. Gabriel is depressed. He has been looking for a job for the past year without success. Today, his best friend tried to give him two books on job interviews, but he turned down the offer. What concept best explains his reaction?

a) Negative triad
b) Attribution theory
c) Learned helplessness
d) Rumination theory

A

c) Learned helplessness

33
Q
  1. Dr. Haldol has several patients with schizophrenia who appear to exhibit excessive or distorted characteristics in relation to what one might consider normal functioning. Specific symptoms include varied hallucinations and multiple delusions. According to the DSM-5, these are referred to as

a) flat affect.
b) positive symptoms.
c) negative symptoms.
d) catatonia.

A

b) positive symptoms.

34
Q
  1. Which therapy style requires the therapist to actively confront a client’s irrational beliefs?

a) person-centered therapy
b) psychodynamic psychotherapy
c) electroconvulsive therapy
d) REBT

A

d) REBT

35
Q
  1. A 52-year-old man reports that he washes his hands repeatedly, spending up to 4 hours a day, using scalding hot water. Although he admits that his hands are uncomfortable, he is entirely convinced that unless he washes in this manner he will become gravely ill. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

a) Delusional disorder, somatic type
b) Illness Anxiety Disorder
c) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
d) Generalized anxiety disorder

A

c) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

36
Q
  1. One of the major differences between individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is that patients with the personality disorder generally

a) have more obsessive thoughts.
b) show more compulsive and ritualistic behaviors.
c) have multiple diagnoses.
d) do not have obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.

A

d) do not have obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.

37
Q
  1. Individuals who have excessive feelings of social inadequacy, sensitivity to criticism, and a need for reassurance are likely to develop either personality disorder or personality disorder.

a) narcissistic; antisocial
b) avoidant; dependent
c) dependent; narcissistic
d) antisocial; borderline

A

b) avoidant; dependent

38
Q
  1. Questions such as “What is your name?” “Where are you now?” and “What is today’s date?” are usually asked to assess

a) orientation
b) behavior
c) memory
d) insight

A

a) orientation

39
Q
  1. Dr. Kali works with clients to help them learn deep relaxation. Next, he has them list their fears from least to most anxiety provoking. Finally, Dr. Kali slowly exposes his clients to each of their fears and assists them in gaining control of their anxiety. His approach is best known as

a) aversion therapy.
b) systematic desensitization.
c) flooding.
d) fear therapy.

A

b) systematic desensitization.

40
Q
  1. In ______ the individual can’t recall everything about a certain period of time.

a) Systematized amnesia
b) Selective amnesia
c) Collective amnesia
d) Localized amnesia

A

d) Localized amnesia

41
Q
  1. In illness anxiety disorder, physical symptoms are

a) severe
b) ignored
c) mild or not present
d) triggered by somatic delusion

A

c) mild or not present

42
Q
  1. Maya has separation anxiety disorder which is why she refuses to go to school or even leave home. Maya’s behavior is rooted on the fear

a) of being rejected or negatively evaluated
b) that something might happen to her that will separate her from her loved ones.
c) That she might get trapped or incapacitated in situations from which escape is difficult
d) that her academic performance is not good enough

A

b) that something might happen to her that will separate her from her loved ones.

43
Q
  1. Which of the following schizophrenia symptoms is also known as formal thought disorder?

a) disorganized speech
b) hallucination and delusion
c) catatonic stupor and excitation
d) avolition, alogia, anhedonia

A

a) disorganized speech

44
Q
  1. According to _____, schizophrenia causes its sufferers to fall from a higher to a lower socioeconomic level or to remain poor because they are unable to function effectively

a) sociocognitive model
b) posttraumatic theory
c) sociogenic hypothesis
d) downward drift theory

A

d) downward drift theory

45
Q
  1. Individuals with paranoid personality disorder are reluctant to confide with others because

a) of fears from having their flaws revealed
b) of their delusion of persecution
c) of their fear of being found in adequate
d) of their fear of others’ malicious intent

A

d) of their fear of others’ malicious intent

46
Q
  1. Research on depressive disorders indicate that there are cross-cultural differences in depression. Which of the ff. is more commonly reported by those who come from non-Western societies?

a) guilt
b) worthlessness
c) physical symptoms
d) suicidal ideation

A

c) physical symptoms

47
Q
  1. Jerry, a 35-year-old man, has a history of engaging in impulsive and destructive behaviors. He has been involved in multiple incidents of fire setting, targeting both abandoned buildings and occupied homes. John’s motivations for setting fires are driven by a desire to cause chaos, instill fear, and derive a sense of power and control. He takes pleasure in witnessing the destruction and panic that ensues from his actions. His fire-setting episodes are part of a broader pattern of antisocial behavior, including aggression, manipulation, and a disregard for the rights and well-being of others. Based on the presented case study, what would be the most probable diagnosis?

a) pyromania
b) pyromanic disorder
c) intermittent-explosive disorder
d) none of the above

A

d) none of the above

48
Q
  1. This personality disorder is characterized by a lack of interest in establishing relationships with other people.

a) Schizotypal PD
b) Schizoid PD
c) Paranoid PD
d) Avoidant PD

A

b) Schizoid PD

49
Q
  1. The term equifinality refers to the fact that

a) a number of paths can lead to the same outcome.
b) once a process has begun, it will always lead to a final outcome.
c) many causes of psychopathology are equal in influence.
d) all forms of psychopathology have similar causes.

A

a) a number of paths can lead to the same outcome.

50
Q
  1. A research design in which the same group of people is observed for an extended period of time

a) cross-sectional
b) longitudinal
c) correlational
d) experimental

A

b) longitudinal