ABP MockBoard BOOSTER (Finalized) (4/7/24) Flashcards
Mr. Louis Montano (4/7/24)
Which of the following is unethical?
A. Having a multiple relationship with your client.
B. Accepting a gift from your client.
C. Protecting the privacy and confidentiality of your client.
D. Referring clients whose problems are beyond your expertise.
A. Having a multiple relationship with your client.
a Multiple relationship occurs when a psychologist is in a professional role with a person and:
(1) at the same time is in another role with the same person.
(2) at the same time is in a relationship with a person closely associated with or related to the person with whom the psychologist has the professional relationship.
(3) promises to enter into another relationship in the future with the person.
Which part of your brain is active when you get cues about being hungry, thirsty, or sleepy?
A. Hippocampus
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Amygdala
C. Hypothalamus
Three Major Regions of the Brain:
> Hindbrain
> Midbrain
> Forebrain
Hindbrain:
> Medulla - regulated breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure; coughing, swallowing, sneezing, and vomiting (reflexes).
> Pons - Sleep-wake cycle and breathing; A hindbrain structure that serves as a bridge between lower brain regions and higher midbrain and forebrain activity.
> Cerebellum (“little brain”) - movement, balance, coordination, fine motor; has a lot of neurons.
Midbrain:
> Brain Stem - Midbrain, Medulla and Pons.
> Reticular Formation - Attention; waking up and falling asleep.
People with Parkinson’s disease have problems with midbrain functioning.
Forebrain:
Limbic System - network of brain structures.
> Hippocampus (“hard drive of the nervous system”) - learning and memory.
> Amygdala - important for processing emotional information (esp. fear).
-> Without/Damaged Amygdala, you will not feel fear.
->Underactive Amygdala, does not give you enough fear despite the existence of threat.
-> Overactive Amygdala gives you anxiety because you always look for threat in the environment even though there is no existing threat.
> Thalamus (“receptionist of the brain”) - sensory relay station; if a new information entered the brain, the Thalamus will direct the information to the appropriate part of the brain for processing. (eg. hot weather, the Thalamus will direct the information of hot weather to the parietal lobe, because It processes your sense of touch)
> Hypothalamus - regulator of almost all major drives and motives we have, such as hunger, thirst, temperature, and sexual behavior.
> Cerebral Cortex - the thin outer layer of the cerebrum, in which much of human thought, planning, perception, and consciousness takes place.
This orientation focuses on symptoms instead of looking at underlying causes.
A. Psychodynamic
B. Humanistic
C. Social
D. Behavioral
D. Behavioral
Behavioral Model:
- Maladaptive behaviors also can be learned.
- Classical and Operant Conditioning
- Systematic Desensitization
- Some critics hold that the behavioral view is too simplistic, that its concepts fail to account for the complexity of behavior.
- Will rely on methods like punishment, reinforcement, phobia counter conditioning
Cognitive Model:
- People may make assumptions and adopt attitudes that are disturbing and inaccurate.
- Cognitive distortions - overgeneralization, all-or-nothing thinking, arbitrary inference.
- Irrational thinking - “should’s”, “musts”
- Criticism: although cognitive and cognitive-behavioral therapies are clearly of help to many people, they do not help everyone.
Psychodynamic Model:
- Psychodynamic theorists believe that a person’s behavior, whether normal or abnormal, is determined largely by underlying psychological forces of which he or she is not consciously aware (e.g. childhood experiences).
- Intrapsychic conflicts, Repressed thoughts.
- Defense mechanisms
- Fixation
Humanistic-Existential Model:
- Humanists believe that human beings are born with a natural tendency to self-actualize.
- Humanistic: Conditions of worth, Incongruence.
- Existential: Inauthenticity - Those who choose to “hide” from responsibility and choice will view themselves as helpless and may live empty, inauthentic, and dysfunctional lives as a result; we are the product of our choices
(+) Which of the following is TRUE about living in a VUCA environment?
A. There is no such thing as VUCA
B. It reduces the risk of having a mental illness
C. It increases the risk of having a mental illness
D. It is not correlated with mental illness
C. It increases the risk of having a mental illness
VUCA:
V - Volatility
U - Uncertainty
C - Complexity
A - Ambiguity
V - Volatility - is the degree to which events and situations change quickly, often unpredictably. It is the most obvious of the four VUCA concepts, and many stakeholders are familiar with it. The other three components are more complex and can easily be overlooked.
U - Uncertainty - is the degree to which outcomes of events and situations are unknown or unpredictable. This is an area where stakeholders can often be caught off guard, as it’s difficult to anticipate every potential outcome.
C - Complexity - is the degree to which events and situations are composed of many interconnected parts. This is an area where stakeholders need to be aware of the potential for subtle relationships between different elements, as well as the potential for unforeseen consequences of their decisions.
A - Ambiguity - is the degree to which events and situations have unclear meanings. This is an area where stakeholders need to be particularly careful, as it can be difficult to determine the exact significance of any given event or situation.
A 3½-year-old girl demonstrates substantial delays across multiple domains of functioning, including communication, learning, attention, and motor development, which limit her ability to interact with same-age peers and require substantial support in all activities of daily living at home. Unfortunately, the child has received no formal psychological or learning evaluation to date. She is about to be evaluated for readiness to attend preschool. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Major neurocognitive disorder
B. Autism spectrum disorder
C. Global developmental delay
D. Intellectual developmental disorder
C. Global developmental delay
This diagnosis is reserved for individuals under the age of 5 years when the clinical severity level cannot be reliably assessed during early childhood. This category is diagnosed when an individual fails to meet expected developmental milestones in several areas of intellectual functioning, and applies to individuals who are unable to undergo systematic assessments of intellectual functioning, including children who are too young to participate in standardized testing. This category requires reassessment after a period of time.
Global developmental delay:
- reserved for individuals under the age of 5 years
- fails to meet expected developmental milestones
- unable to undergo systematic assessments of intellectual functioning
- temporary diagnosis for children that cannot be fully assessed yet due to age restrictions.
Intellectual developmental disorder
- you can confidently say that the client met the criteria for Intellectual developmental disorder, you were able to do assessment.
Which of the following statements best describes how panic attacks differ from panic disorder?
A. Panic attacks require fewer symptoms for a definitive diagnosis.
B. Panic attacks are discrete, occur suddenly, and are usually less severe.
C. Panic attacks are always unexpected.
D. Panic attacks represent a syndrome that can occur with a variety of other disorders.
D. Panic attacks represent a syndrome that can occur with a variety of other disorders.
Panic Attack - necessary for the diagnosis of panic disorder, but panic attack may also occur in the context of another disorder (eg. In Phobia, panic attacks tend to be expected).
Panic Disorder - not afraid of specific stimulus but afraid of experiencing another or more panic attacks.
Agoraphobia - fear that if you are in a certain place/situation, escape might not be possible/help in not available, in case something bad happens; can only be diagnosed with Agoraphobia, if you have 2 or more fears of being in certain place/situation (eg. fear of being in a crowd and being in an elevator).
Situational-type phobia - can be diagnosed if you only have one fear of being in certain place/situation.
Interoceptive avoidance - behaving carefully and may try to avoid specific situations/stimuli that could potentially trigger a panic attack (eg. a person with panic disorder, will not exercise because whenever they exercise their heartbeat is becoming faster and overthinks that he/she could have a panic attack and die, so he/she avoids exercise).
A 7-year-old boy who has speech delays presents with long-standing, repetitive hand waving, arm flapping, and finger wiggling. His mother reports that she first noticed these symptoms when he was a toddler and wonders whether they are tics. She says that he tends to flap more when he is engrossed in activities, such as while watching his favorite television program, but will stop when called or distracted. Based on the mother’s report, the child is exhibiting _________?
A. Provisional tic disorder.
B. Persistent (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder.
C. Complex tics
D. Motor stereotypies.
D. Motor stereotypies.
Tics vs. Stereotypies
Motor Stereotypies - are defined as involuntary rhythmic, repetitive, predictable movements that appear purposeful but serve no obvious adaptive function (hand waving/rotating, arm flapping, and finger wiggling)
> Earlier age of onset, prolonged duration, stops with distraction
> May involve arms, hands, or the entire body.
> Ego-syntonic - means that something feels okay or normal to you. It’s like when your actions or thoughts match up with how you see yourself, and you’re comfortable with them.
Tics - commonly involve eyes, face, head, and shoulders and are generally, are brief, rapid, random, and fluctuating.
> Ego-dystonic - It refers to thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that feel wrong or uncomfortable to you, like they don't fit with who you are or how you see yourself.
Provisional Tic Disorder
- A Tic is a sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic motor movement or vocalization
:
A. Single or multiple motor and/or vocal tics.
B. The tics have been present for less than 1 year since first tic onset.
C. Onset is before age 18 years.
D. The disturbance is not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance (e.g., cocaine) or another medical condition (e.g. Huntington’s disease, postviral encephalitis)
E. Criteria have never been met for Tourette’s disorder or persistent (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder.
Persistent (Chronic) Motor or Vocal Tic
:
A. Single or multiple motor or vocal tics have been present during the illness, but not both motor and vocal.
B. The tics may wax and wane in frequency but have persisted for more than 1 year since first tic onset.
C. Onset is before age 18 years.
D. The disturbance is not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance (e.g., cocaine) or another medical condition (e.g.) Huntington’s disease, postviral encephalitis)
E. Criteria have never been met for Tourette’s disorder.
> Specify if: With motor tics only, With vocal tics only.
Tourette’s Disorder
:
A. Both multiple motor and one or more vocal tics have been present at sometime during the illness, although not necessarily concurrently.
B. The tics may wax and wane in frequency but have persisted for more than 1 year since first tic onset.
C. Onset is before age 18 years.
D. The disturbance is not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance (e.g., cocaine) or another medical condition (e.g.) Huntington’s disease, postviral encephalitis).
Stereotypic Movement Disorder.
:
A. Repetitive, seemingly driven, and apparently purposeless motor behaviors (e.g., hand shaking, or waving, body rocking, head banging, self-biting, hitting own body).
B. The repetitive motor behavior interferes with social, academic, or other activities and may result in self-injury.
C. Onset is in the early developmental period.
D. The repetitive motor behavior is not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance or neurological condition and is not better explained by another neurodevelopmental or mental disorder (e.g., trichotillomania [hair-pulling disorder], obsessive-compulsive disorder).
> Specify if: With or without self-injurious behavior.
Additional info:
SMD and Autism Spectrum Disorder (SMD) can comorbid, if the SMD is self-harming/self-injurious
A mother brings her 8-year-old son to you for an evaluation with concerns that her son has struggled with speech articulation since very young. He has not sustained any head injuries, is otherwise healthy, and has a normal IQ. His teacher reports that she does not always understand what he is saying and that other children tease him by calling him a “baby” due to his difficulty with communication. He does not have trouble relating to other people or understanding nonverbal social cues. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Selective mutism.
B. Global developmental delay.
C. Speech sound disorder.
D. Avoidant personality disorder.
C. Speech sound disorder.
Language Disorder
:
A. Persistent difficulties in the acquisition and use of language across modalities (i.e., spoken, written, sign language, or other) due to deficits in comprehension or production that include the following:
1. Reduced vocabulary.
2. Limited sentence structure.
3. Impairments in discourse.
Speech Sound Disorder
:
A. Persistent difficulty with speech sound production that interferes with speech intelligibility or prevents verbal communication of messages.
B. The disturbance causes limitations in effective communication that interfere social participation, academic achievement, or occupational performance, individually or in any combination.
C. Onset of symptoms is in the early developmental period.
D. The difficulties are not attributable to congenital or acquired conditions, such as cerebral palsy, cleft palate, deafness or hearing loss, traumatic brain injury, or other medical or neurological conditions.
Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (Stuttering)
:
A. Disturbances in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech that are inappropriate for the individual’s age and language skills, persist over time, and are characterized by frequent and marked occurrences of one (or more) of the following:
1. Sound and syllable repetition, prolongations of consonants/vowels, broken words (e.g., pauses within word), audible or silent blocking (pauses in speech), circumlocutions (substitution of easier words), words produced with an excess of physical tension, monosyllabic whole-word repetitions.
A 15-year-old boy has a history of episodic violent behavior that is out of proportion to the precipitant. During a typical episode, he will become extremely angry, punching holes in walls or destroying furniture in the home. There seems to be no specific purpose or gain associated with the outbursts, and within 30 minutes he is calm and “back to himself”. What would be the most probable diagnosis?
A. Oppositional defiant disorder
B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
C. Conduct disorder
D. Intermittent explosive disorder
D. Intermittent explosive disorder
Intermittent Explosive Disorder (IED)
:
A. Recurrent behavioral outburst
> Verbal aggression (tantrums, fights) or physical aggression.
> Behavioral outbursts involving damage to property.
B. Aggressiveness is out of proportion to the provocation.
C. Outbursts are not premeditated and are not committed to achieve some objective
D. Distress or impairment
E. Age 6+
F. Not better explained by another mental disorder.
Additional info:
IED and Antisocial PD can be comorbid as long as both are met. People with IED were just triggered and may have empathy after outbursts, while people with Antisocial PD they plan ahead and they don’t have empathy.
Which of the ff. best describes the differences between IED and DMDD?
A. DMDD is primarily found among adults with IED is commonly diagnosed among children
B. DMDD is a mood disorder whereas IED is a personality disorder
C. For children with outbursts and intercurrent, persistent irritability, only the diagnosis of IED should be made.
D. Intermittent explosive disorder does not require the individual’s mood to be persistently irritable or angry between outbursts
D. Intermittent explosive disorder does not require the individual’s mood to be persistently irritable or angry between outbursts
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD)
:
A. Severe recurrent temper outbursts manifested verbally (e.g. - verbal rages) and/or behaviourally (e.g. - physical aggression toward people or property) that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or duration to the situation or provocation.
B. The temper outbursts are inconsistent with developmental level.
C. The temper outbursts occur, on average, 3 or more times per week.
D. The mood between temper outbursts in persistently irritable or angry most of the day, nearly every day, and is observable by others (e.g. - parents, teachers, peers).
E. Criteria A, B, C, and D have been present for 12 or more months. Throughout that time, the individual has not had a period lasting 3 or more consecutive months without all of the symptoms in Criteria A to D.
F. Criteria A and D are present in at least 2 of the 3 settings (i.e. - at home, at school, with peers) and are severe in at least 1 of these.
G. The diagnosis should not be made for the first time before age 6 years or after age 18 years
H. By history or observation, the age of onset of Criteria A to E is before 10 years.
I. There has never been a distinct period lasting more than 1 day during which the full symptom criteria, except duration, for a manic or hypomanic episode have been met.
J. The behaviors do not occur exclusively during an episode of major depressive disorder and are not better explained by another mental disorder (e.g., autism spectrum disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, separation anxiety disorder, persistent depressive disorder.
K. The symptoms are not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance or to another medical or neurological condition.
What is the role of educational institutions according to RA 11036?
A. Educational Institutions shall develop policies and programs for students, educators, and other employees designed to raise awareness on mental health issues.
B. Formulate, develop, and implement a national mental health program. In coordination with relevant government agencies, create a framework for Mental Health Awareness Program to promote effective strategies regarding mental healthcare.
C. Establish mechanisms to investigate, address, and set upon complaints to impropriety and abuse in the treatment and care received by service users.
D. Review, formulate, and develop the regulations and guidelines necessary to implement an effective mental health care and wellness policy within their territorial jurisdiction.
A. Educational Institutions shall develop policies and programs for students, educators, and other employees designed to raise awareness on mental health issues.
DOH - B. Formulate, develop, and implement a national mental health program. In coordination with relevant government agencies, create a framework for Mental Health Awareness Program to promote effective strategies regarding mental healthcare.
Commission on Human Rights - C. Establish mechanisms to investigate, address, and set upon complaints to impropriety and abuse in the treatment and care received by service users.
LGU - D. Review, formulate, and develop the regulations and guidelines necessary to implement an effective mental health care and wellness policy within their territorial jurisdiction.
A 7-year-old girl presents with a history of normal language skills (vocabulary and grammar intact) but is unable to use language in a socially pragmatic manner to share ideas and feelings. She has never made good eye contact, and she has difficulty reading social cues. Consequently, she has had difficulty making friends, which is further complicated by her being somewhat obsessed with cartoon characters, which she repetitively scripts. She tends to excessively smell objects. Because she insists on wearing the same shirt and shorts every day, regardless of the season, getting dressed is a difficult activity. These symptoms date from early childhood and cause significant impairment in her functioning. What diagnosis best fits this child’s presentation?
A. Intellectual Disability.
B. Autism spectrum disorder.
C. Stereotypic Movement Disorder.
D. Social (pragmatic) communication disorder.
B. Autism spectrum disorder.
Autism spectrum disorder.
:
A.
B. Restricted, repetitive behaviors, interests or activities
> Stereotyped or repetitive movements, use of objects or speech (echolalia; idiosyncratic phrases)
> Insistence on sameness, adherence to routines and ritualized patterns.
> Highly restricted, fixated interests that are abnormal in intensity (attachment or preoccupation to unusual objects).
> Hyper- or Hyporeactivity to sensory input (indifference to pain, excessive smelling or touching, fascination with lights)
Social (pragmatic) communication disorder
:
A. Persistent difficulties in the social use of verbal and nonverbal communication as manifested by all of the following:
1. Deficits in using communication for social purposes, such as greeting and sharing information, in a manner that is appropriate for the social context.
2. Impairment of the ability to change communication to match context or the needs of the listener, such as speaking differently in a classroom than on a playground, talk ing differently to a child than to an adult, and avoiding use of overly formal language.
3. Difficulties following rules for conversation and storytelling, such as taking turns in conversation, rephrasing when misunderstood, and knowing how to use verbal and nonverbal signals to regulate interaction.
4. Difficulties understanding what is not explicitly stated (e.g. - making inferences) and nonliteral or ambiguous meanings of language (e.g. - idioms, humour, metaphors, multiple meanings that depend on the context for interpretation).
B. The deficits result in functional limitations in effective communication, social participation, social relationships, academic achievement, or occupational performance, individually or in combination.
C. The onset of the symptoms is in the early developmental period (but deficits may not become fully manifest until social communication demands exceed limited capacities).
D. The symptoms are not attributable to another medical or neurological condition or to low abilities in the domains of word structure and grammar, and are not better explained by autism spectrum disorder, intellectual disability, global developmental delay, or another mental disorder.
Which of the following BEST describes the difference between oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder.
A. All children with ODD would eventually develop CD
B. Both ODD and CD is characterized by aggression to people and animals but only CD includes destruction of property and pattern of theft and deceit.
C. In CD, the individual’s failure to conform to requests of others is explained by inattentiveness and failure to sustain effort.
D. ODD includes emotional dysregulation symptoms which that are not included in the definition of conduct disorder.
D. ODD includes emotional dysregulation symptoms which that are not included in the definition of conduct disorder.
Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
A. At least 4 symptoms from any of the following categories:
1. Angry/Irritable Mood - loses temper, easily annoyed, angry and resentful.
2. Argumentative/Defiant behavior - argues with authority figures, refuses to comply with requests or rules, annoys others, blames others for misbehaviors.
3. Vindictiveness or spiteful
Conduct Disorder (CD)
:
A 4-year-old boy in day care often displays fear that does not seem to be related to any of his activities. Although frequently distressed, he does not seek contact with any of the staff and does not respond when a staff member tries to comfort him. What additional caregiver-obtained information about this child would be important in deciding whether his symptoms represent Reactive Attachment Disorder (RAD) or Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
A. Age at first appearance of the behavior.
B. Family history about his siblings.
C. History of language delay.
D. History of severe social neglect.
D. History of severe social neglect.
Reactive Attachment Disorder
:
A. Pattern of inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers:
1. The child rarely or minimally seeks comfort when distressed.
2. The child rarely or minimally responds to comfort when distressed.
B. Social and emotional disturbance:
1. Minimal social and emotional responsiveness to others.
2. Limited positive effect.
3. Episodes of unexplained irritability, sadness, or fearfulness that are evident even during nonthreatening interactions with adult caregivers.
C. The child has experience a pattern of extremes of insufficient care:
1. Social neglect or deprivation
2. Repeated changes of primary caregivers that limit opportunities to form stable attachments.
3. Rearing in unusual settings that severely limit opportunities to form selective attachments.
D. The care in Criterion C is presumed to be responsible for the disturbed behavior in Criterion A.
E. The criteria are not met for Autism Spectrum Disorder.
F. Evident before age 5 years.
G. Developmental age of at least 9 months.
Reactive attachment is disorder is characterized by a pattern of:
A. Minimal comfort seeking behavior
B. Reduced reticence in approaching unfamiliar adults.
C. Deficits in social communication and interaction.
D. All of the above
A. Minimal comfort seeking behavior
Which of the following tests should be administered when determining if a person has a specific learning disorder?
A. BPI, PAI, MMPI-3, BVMGT
B. HEXACO-Pi-r, MMPI-3
C. NEO-Pi-r, BVMGT, DAT
D. WIAT, WAIS or WISC or WPPSI
D. WIAT, WAIS or WISC or WPPSI
In diagnosing a person with specific learning disorder, you need 2 tests–1 intelligence test (IQ Test) and the other 1 is an achievement test.
If you are going to diagnose a person with specific learning disorder, the IQ of the person should be normal because if its below normal, you should consider it instead as intellectual disability.
Which of the following is FALSE about ADHD
A. Most cases of adult ADHD are characterized by symptoms of inattention
B. Their poor academic performance is attributed to their behavioral problems instead of lack of intelligence.
C. The popular view that refined sugar can cause ADHD has not been supported by careful research.
D. Stimulants have been found to worsen ADHD symptoms, particularly hyperactivity.
D. Stimulants have been found to worsen ADHD symptoms, particularly hyperactivity.
True about ADHD:
B. Their poor academic performance is attributed to their behavioral problems instead of lack of intelligence.
C. The popular view that refined sugar can cause ADHD has not been supported by careful research.
The following are TRUE about selective mutism EXCEPT
A. The disturbance is often marked by high social anxiety
B. It cannot be diagnosed alongside social anxiety disorder
C. The person is capable of speaking in some situations
D. It may lead to academic impairment
B. It cannot be diagnosed alongside social anxiety disorder
Selective Mutism
:
Criterion A:
Consistent failure to speak in specific social situations in which there is an expectation for speaking (e.g. - at school) despite speaking in other situations.
Criterion B:
The disturbance interferes with educational or occupational achievement or with social communication.
Criterion C:
The duration of the disturbance is at least 1 month (cannot be during first month of school).
Criterion D:
The failure to speak is not attributable to a lack of knowledge of, or comfort with, the spoken language required in the social situation.
Criterion E:
The disturbance is not better explained by a communication disorder (e.g. - childhood-onset fluency disorder) and does not occur exclusively during the course of autism spectrum disorder, schizophrenia, or another psychotic disorder.
School phobia among kids may be a form of
A. Social Anxiety Disorder
B. Separation Anxiety Disorder
C. Either a or b
D. None of these
C. Either a or b
In addition to feeling restless or “keyed up,” individuals with generalized anxiety disorder are most likely to experience which of the following symptoms?
A. Panic attacks.
B. Obsessions.
C. Muscle tension.
D. Multiple somatic complaints.
C. Muscle tension.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder:
Criterion A
Excessive anxiety and worry (apprehensive expectation), occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activities (such as work or school performance).
Criterion B
The individual finds it difficult to control the worry.
Criterion C
The anxiety and worry are associated with at least 3 of the 6 symptoms (with at least some symptoms present for more days than not for the past 6 months);
(Only 1 item is required in children)
1. Blanking out or difficulty concentrating
2. Easily fatigued
3. Sleep changes (difficulty falling or staying asleep, or restless, unsatisfying sleep)
4. Keyed up, on edge, or restless
5. Irritability
6. Muscle tension
Criterion D
The anxiety, worry, or physical symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
Criterion E
The disturbance is not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance (e.g. - a drug of abuse, a medication) or another medical condition (e.g. - hyperthyroidism).
Criterion F
The disturbance is not better explained by another mental disorder:
> Anxiety or worry about having panic attacks (panic disorder) > Negative evaluation (social anxiety disorder) > Contamination or other obsessions (obsessive-compulsive disorder) > Separation from attachment figures (separation anxiety disorder) > Reminders of traumatic events (post-traumatic stress disorder) > Gaining weight (anorexia nervosa) > Physical complaints (somatic symptom disorder) > Perceived appearance flaws (body dysmorphic disorder) > Having a serious illness (illness anxiety disorder) > The content of delusional beliefs (schizophrenia or delusional disorder)
