DP Chapter Review Test

Question 1

1.1) Development is about

a. change.
b. age.
c. gender.
d. genes.

Answer 1

a. change.

Question 2

1.3) Lifespan psychology assumes that
development is

a. unidimensional.
b. chronologically explained.
c. multidimensional.
d. age limited.

Answer 2

c. multidimensional.

Question 3

1.2) Development is

a. a lifelong process.
b. age focused.
c. topically restricted.
d. circular in nature.

Answer 3

a. a lifelong process.

Question 4

1.4) Understanding childhood at any
historical period depends on
what _______ think of children.
a. peers
b. scientists
c. siblings
d. adults

Answer 4

d. adults

Question 5

1.5) A model that uses the interaction
of biological, psychological, and
social influences to explain
development is the

a. psychoanalytic.
b. cognitive.
c. biopsychosocial.
d. behavioral.

Answer 5

c. biopsychosocial.

Question 6

1.6) One of the first outstanding theorists to recognize the importance of the early years was

a. Skinner.
b. Freud.
c. Bandura.
d. Hebb.

Answer 6

b. Freud.

Question 7

1.7) Lifespan psychologists cannot focus
solely on _____ for explanation.

a. maturation
b. genes
c. schooling
d. age

Answer 7

d. age

Question 8

1.8) When we refer to the values,
beliefs, and characteristics of a
people, we are referring to

a. culture.
b. race.
c. ethnicity.
d. customs.

Answer 8

a. culture.

Question 9

1.9) Adolescence begins in ____ and
ends in _______.

a. biology, culture
b. school, marriage
c. structures, schema
d. ego, superego

Answer 9

a. biology, culture

Question 10

1.10) Descriptive studies

a. determine cause and effect.
b. manipulate variables.
c. require experimenter control.
d. generate considerable data.

Answer 10

d. generate considerable data.

Question 11

1.11) When an experimenter keeps all
variables constant but one, that
one is called
a. determined.
b. predicted.
c. descriptive.
d. treatment.

Answer 11

d. treatment.

Question 12

1.12) An example of a cross-sectional
study is

a. comparing individuals of various
ages at the same time.
b. continued observations of the
same individuals.
c. careful description by the
researcher.
d. one that requires no
manipulation.

Answer 12

a. comparing individuals of various
ages at the same time.

Question 13

1.13) The typical research article
contains four sections. Which
item is not included in a
research article?

a. introduction
b. method
c. results
d. author biography

Answer 13

d. author biography

Question 14

2.1) Freud’s structure of the mind
included

a. cognitive structures.
b. safety needs.
c. ego.
d. reinforcing elements.

Answer 14

c. ego.

Question 15

2.2) The id is the structure of the mind
that is present

a. at birth.
b. through experience.
c. by internal representations.
d. through crisis resolution.

Answer 15

a. at birth.

Question 16

2.3) Freud believed that development entailed moving through psycho-sexual stages. Difficulty at any stage can cause a person to become

a. fixated.
b. operational.
c. negatively reinforced.
d. displaced.

Answer 16

a. fixated.

Question 17

2.4) According to Freud, sexual desire
becomes dormant during the

a. oral stage.
b. anal stage.
c. phallic stage.
d. latency stage.

Answer 17

d. latency stage.

Question 18

2.5) Bronfenbrenner’s theory of devel-
opment is called

a. the environmental search model.
b. the generic trace model.
c. the bioecological model.
d. the reinforcement model.

Answer 18

c. the bioecological model.

Question 19

2.6) One-year-old Jane has already
learned that her mother will be
there when Jane needs her. This
predictable world helps a child to
develop
a. creativity.
b. intimacy.
c. generativity.
d. trust.

Answer 19

d. trust.

Question 20

2.7) The psychosocial crisis of industry versus inferiority must be resolved during

a. the school years.
b. early childhood.
c. adolescence.
d. adulthood.

Answer 20

a. the school years.

Question 21

2.8) Piaget’s theory of cognitive development focused on the formation and development of

a. zones of proximal development.
b. reinforcement schedules.
c. cognitive structures.
d. modeling strategies.

Answer 21

c. cognitive structures.

Question 22

2.9) Piaget placed considerable emphasis on operations, which he viewed as

a. reflexes.
b. age-appropriate responses.
c. internalized actions.
d. interactions.

Answer 22

c. internalized actions.

Question 23

2.10) Although both Piaget and Vygotsky devoted their lives to studying cognitive development, Vygotsky placed greater emphasis on

a. cognitive structures.
b. social interactions.
c. sensitive periods.
d. observational learning.

Answer 23

b. social interactions.

Question 24

2.14) Today’s developmental psychologists consider theories such as those of Freud and Piaget as too

a. insensitive.
b. biologically focused.
c. cultural oriented.
d. unidimensional.

Answer 24

d. unidimensional.

Question 25

2.12) In operant conditioning, the environment acts as the major source of

a. operations.
b. cognitive structures.
c. defense mechanisms.
d. reinforcement.

Answer 25

d. reinforcement.

Question 25

2.11) Skinner carefully analyzed the role of reinforcement in development and distinguished it from

a. cognitive structures.
b. reward.
c. operations.
d. needs.

Answer 25

b. reward.

Question 26

2.13) The great value of observational learning is that a person need not overtly react to learn

a. mental operations.
b. new responses.
c. ego identity.
d. schedule of reinforcements.

Answer 26

b. new responses.

Question 27

2.15) Lerner’s analysis of development
depends on analyzing

a. multiple levels of development.
b. schedules of reinforcement.
c. identity stages.
d. cognitive stages.

Answer 27

a. multiple levels of development.

Question 28

2.16) The resurgence of interest in biological explanations of development is due to

a. government subsidies.
b. the influence of learning theorists.
c. recent genetic research.
d. studies of prenatal development.

Answer 28

c. recent genetic research.

Question 29

2.17) More complex explanations of development depend on the idea of

a. genes.
b. reciprocal interactions.
c. naturalistic research.
d. stimulus-response experiments.

Answer 29

b. reciprocal interactions.

Question 30

3.1) From ovulation to implantation takes about

a. seven days.
b. two weeks.
c. one month.
d. nine months.

Answer 30

a. seven days.

Question 31

3.2) The union of sperm and egg is known as

a. mitosis.
b. fertilization.
c. meiosis.
d. mutation.

Answer 31

b. fertilization.

Question 32

3.3) In vitro fertilization takes place

a. in the fallopian tube.
b. in the uterus.
c. outside the woman’s body.
d. in the ovary.

Answer 32

c. outside the woman’s body.

Question 33

3.4) The process by which eggs are ripened and released is called

a. ovulation.
b. mitosis.
c. fertilization.
d. implantation.

Answer 33

a. ovulation.

Question 34

3.5) Each sex cell carries a total of __ chromosomes.

a. 23
b. 24
c. 47
d. 46

Answer 34

a. 23

Question 35

3.6) ___________ twins are likely to occur when a woman’s ovaries release two ripened eggs that are fertilized by separate sperm.

a. Nonidentical
b. Identical
c. Siamese
d. Monozygotic

Answer 35

a. Nonidentical

Question 36

3.7) Which factor is not thought to be a cause of infertility in men?

a. influenza
b. low sperm count
c. defective sperm
d. genetic disease

Answer 36

a. influenza

Question 37

3.8) Which of these statements is true?

a. XX indicates male.
b. XY indicates male.
c. XO indicates male.
d. X-indicates male.

Answer 37

b. XY indicates male.

Question 38

3.9) Which of these is an example of a genetic disorder?

a. sickle-cell anemia
b. Turner syndrome
c. Klinefelter syndrome
d. Down syndrome

Answer 38

a. sickle-cell anemia

Question 39

3.10) When a natural mother relinguishes her child but retains input into the process of adoption, it’s called ______ adoption.

a. closed
b. foreign
c. selected
d. open

Answer 39

d. open

Question 40

3.11) Which of the following is an example of a chromosomal disorder?

a. spina bifida
b. sickle-cell anemia
c. phenylketonuria
d. Turner syndrome

Answer 40

d. Turner syndrome

Question 41

3.12) _____ is the most widely used assisted fertilization
technique.

a. IVF
b. AID
c. ATCG
d. BRCA1

Answer 41

b. AID (artificial insemination by donor)

Question 42

3.13) Which combination is not possible?

a. AT
b. TA
c. GT
d. GC

Answer 42

c. GT

Question 43

3.14) DNA possesses the remarkable ability to _____ itself.

a. accommodate
b. reproduce
c. assimilate
d. disengage

Answer 43

b. reproduce

Question 44

3.15) Which of the following populations is more likely than others to be afflicted with sickle-cell anemia?

a. European-Americans
b. African-Americans
c. Asian-Americans
d. Hispanic-Americans

Answer 44

b. African-Americans

Question 45

3.16) Down syndrome is caused by

a. the body’s failure to break down amino acids.
b. the fragile X syndrome.
c. a deviation on the 21st pair of chromosomes.
d. an XO pattern.

Answer 45

c. a deviation on the 21st pair of chromosomes.

Question 46

3.17) An example of sex-linked inheritance includes

a. PKU.
b. neural tube defects.
c. Tay-Sachs disease.
d. hemophilia.

Answer 46

d. hemophilia.

Question 47

3.18) The Human Genome Project is an endeavor to identify and map

a. certain substances within cells.
b. all human genes.
c. cell divisions.
d. sex-linked inheritance.

Answer 47

b. all human genes.

Question 48

3.19) Which of the following is not suspected of having a strong genetic origin?

a. polio
b. epilepsy
c. diabetes
d. cancer

Answer 48

a. polio

Question 49

3.20) The chromosome with the fewest genes is

a. chromosome 1
b. x chromosome
c. z chromosome
d. y chromosome

Question 50

4.1) It takes a fertilized egg about ___ to travel through the fallopian tube to the uterus.

a. 3 days
b. 14 days
c. 30 days
d. 9 months

Answer 50

a. 3 days

Question 51

4.2) It then takes another ____ days for the fertilized egg to implant.

a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 14 days
d. 30 days

Answer 51

a. 3 days

Question 52

4.3) The first two weeks following fertilization are called the ____ period.

a. embryonic
b. fetal
c. germinal
d. pregnancy

Answer 52

c. germinal

Question 52

4.4) A (An) ______ is a one-week-old-zygote.

a. fetus
b. embryo
c. blastocyst
d. trophoblast

Answer 52

c. blastocyst

Question 53

4.7) Development is most vulnerable
to outside agents during the ____ period.

a. embryonic
b. germinal
c. fetal
d. sensitive

Answer 53

a. embryonic

Question 53

4.5) During the ____ period the nervous system develops rapidly.

a. embryonic
b. fetal
c. gestational
d. germinal

Answer 53

a. embryonic

Question 54

4.6) Which system does not develop from the mesoderm?

a. muscular
b. skeletal
c. circulatory
d. respiratory

Answer 54

d. respiratory

Question 54

4.9) Red blood cells transport _____ and white blood cells to combat disease.

a. oxygen
b. amniotic fl uid
c. teratogens
d. villi

Answer 54

a. oxygen

Question 55

4.8) The peak growth period for the
fetus is during the _______
and ______ months.
a. first, second
b. fourth, fifth
c. sixth, seventh
d. eighth, ninth

Answer 55

b. fourth, fifth

Question 56

4.10) Which of the following statements is true?

a. The earlier the damage, the greater the chance of negative long-term effects.
b. The fetus is safe from all harm
while in the womb.
c. Babies are usually born on the
day predicted.
d. A fetus hears no sound until birth.

Answer 56

a. The earlier the damage, the greater the chance of negative long-term effects.

Question 57

4.11) Toxoplasmosis is

a. a sexually transmitted disease.
b. a virus capable of causing
deafness or cataracts.
c. a disease capable of causing mental retardation or death.
d. a problem caused by the genetic
makeup of the father.

Answer 57

c. a disease capable of causing mental retardation or death.

Question 58

4.12) Which of the following does not result from exposure to rubella?

a. congenital heart disorder
b. hair follicle defects
c. deafness
d. mental retardation

Answer 58

b. hair follicle defects

Question 59

4.13) ______ is not a STORCH infection.

a. Rh disease
b. CMV
c. Herpes simplex
d. Toxoplasmosis

Answer 59

a. Rh disease

Question 59

4.14) It is almost impossible for a mother to pass the AIDS virus to her baby through

a. delivery.
b. handling.
c. pregnancy.
d. breast milk.

Answer 59

b. handling.

Question 60

4.16) A woman’s emotions can affect her pregnancy indirectly by a release of her.

a. villi.
b. teratogens.
c. hormones.
d. Rh factor.

Answer 60

c. hormones.

Question 60

4.15) In a typical pregnancy, a woman will gain about ____ to ____ pounds.

a. 25 to 30
b. 30 to 35
c. 35 to 40
d. 40 to 45

Answer 60

a. 25 to 30

Question 61

4.17) ____ is a technique in
which a needle is inserted through
a pregnant woman’s abdomen
and into the amniotic sac in order
to obtain a fluid sample.
a. Ultrasound
b. Chorionic villi sampling
c. Amniocentesis
d. Non-stress test

Answer 61

c. Amniocentesis

Question 62

4.18) Prematurity is not associated with

a. vitamin therapy.
b. low SES.
c. multiple births.
d. cigarette use.

Answer 62

a. vitamin therapy.

Question 63

4.19) ______ was a pioneer in the
technique of prepared childbirth.

a. Leboyer
b. Lamaze
c. DeCasper
d. Salk

Answer 63

b. Lamaze

Question 64

4.20) Mental retardation, hyper activity,
and primary growth retardation
can be symptoms of

a. fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
b. Rh factor.
c. prematurity.
d. anoxia.

Answer 64

a. fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

Question 65

4.21) Premature babies of very low birth weight are

a. not normally at severe risk.
b. not permitted visits by their
parents.
c. more likely to develop cerebral
palsy.
d. more likely to have problems later in life.

Answer 65

d. more likely to have problems later in life

Question 66

6.3) A true relationship has

a. language aspects.
b. cognitive aspects.
c. physical aspects.
d. all of these.

Answer 66

d. all of these.

Question 67

6.4) More sensitive mothers have in-
fants who are more

a. restless.
b. nervous.
c. detached.
d. responsive.

Answer 67

d. responsive.

Question 68

6.6) What parents see as their ____ affects parent-child

relationships.
a. interactions
b. function
c. background
d. role

Answer 68

d. role

Question 69

6.5) Parents and infants both exercise control over the

a. siblings.
b. interactions.
c. labeling.
d. temperament.

Answer 69

b. interactions.

Question 70

6.7) Children’s ______ contribute significantly to their interactions with their environments.

a. ages
b. gender
c. temperaments
d. culture

Answer 70

c. temperaments

Question 71

6.8) Chess and Thomas described a child with a low intensity of reactions and a somewhat negative attitude as

a. slow to warm-up.
b. diffi cult.
c. easy.
d. depressed.

Answer 71

a. slow to warm-up.

Question 72

6.9) Constitutionally based individual differences are known as

a. interactions.
b. attachments.
c. temperament.
d. parental signposts.

Answer 72

c. temperament.

Question 73

6.10) The author of the strange situation test is

a. Ainsworth.
b. Bowlby.
c. Brazelton.
d. Kagan.

Answer 73

a. Ainsworth.

Question 73

6.11) _______ is a characteristic that identifies the rhythm that is established between a parent’s and an infant’s behavior.

a. Synchrony
b. Autonomy
c. Entrainment
d. Symmetry

Answer 73

c. Entrainment

Question 74

6.12) According to Bowlby, ______ behavior is any
form of behavior that results in a
person attaining or maintaining
proximity to some other clearly identified individual who is conceived as better able to cope with the world.
a. detachment
b. attachment
c. protest
d. emotional

Answer 74

b. attachment

Question 75

6.13) Which statement is true?

a. Only mothers have the potential
to induce attachment.
b. Fathers and mothers act quite
differently with their infants.
c. There is a sensitive period for
parent-infant bonding.
d. No sensitive period exists for
parent-infant bonding.

Answer 75

d. No sensitive period exists for
parent-infant bonding.

Question 76

6.14) The study of behavior in natural settings is known as

a. ethology.
b. physiology.
c. anthropology.
d. molecular biology.

Answer 76

a. ethology.

Question 77

6.18) Inhibiting or minimizing the intensity of emotional reactions is known as emotion

a. guidance.
b. latitude.
c. regulation.
d. short-circuiting.

Answer 77

c. regulation.

Question 77

6.15) Bowlby’s work on attachment began to notice the behavior of infants who experienced _____ from their mothers.

a. attention
b. separation
c. neglect
d. habituation

Answer 77

b. separation

Question 78

6.16) The true social smile appears at about _____ months.

a. 8
b. 6
c. 4
d. 3

Answer 78

d. 3

Question 78

6.17) Which is not a likely explanation of an infant’s smile?

a. Infants smile at human beings
around them.
b. Infants smile at high-contrast
stimuli.
c. Infants smile at discovering a
relationship between their
behavior and external events.
d. Infants smile at environmental
noise.

Answer 78

d. Infants smile at environmental
noise.

Question 79

6.19) Chess and Thomas believe that positive emotions produce a that leads to sensitive responsiveness.

a. happiness
b. memory
c. consistency
d. phase

Answer 79

c. consistency

Question 80

6.20) One of the great adaptive values of emotions is that they feelings and shared experiences.

a. communicate
b. sublimate
c. actualize
d. repress

Answer 80

a. communicate

Question 80

7.1) Glia cells are mainly
cells.

a. support.
b. transmission
c. synaptic
d. embryonic

Answer 80

a. support.

Question 80

7.2) By the age of 5 to 6 years, ___ % of adult brain
weight is present.

a. 70
b. 80
c. 90
d. 100

Answer 80

c. 90

Question 81

7.7) Which of the following would not be considered a motor skill?
a. running
b. skipping
c. tying shoes
d. concept formation

Answer 81

d. concept formation

Question 81

7.4) frequent cause of psychological disturbance for children can be

a. brain adaptation.
b. muscle growth.
c. equilibration.
d. stress.

Answer 81

d. stress.

Question 82

7.3) When children show a preference for one hand or the other, this illustrates brain

a. lateralization.
b. synapses.
c. dendrites.
d. initiative.

Answer 82

a. lateralization.

Question 83

7.5) Using the large muscles is re ferred to as motor skills.
a. fi ne
b. peripheral
c. gross
d. anatomical

Answer 83

c. gross

Question 83

7.6) Which of the following factors is not known to influence physical development?

a. genetic elements
b. SES
c. disease
d. ethnicity

Answer 83

d. ethnicity

Question 84

7.8) Controlled scribbling appears at about age
a. 5.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 2.

Question 85

7.9) Which of the following behaviors is not associated with the preoper ational period?
a. symbolic play
b. drawing
c. language
d. walks steadily

Question 86

7.10) A child’s belief that inanimate ob jects are real and conscious is known as
a. artifi cialism.
b. delusion.
c. animism.
d. centration.

Question 87

7.11) By the time children are ready to enter first grade they have a vocabulary of about
words.
a. 8,000
b. 6,500
c. 3,000
d. 1,200

Question 88

7.13) Effective use of humor is not credited with stimulating
a. motor development.
b. creative thinking.
c. social development.
d. emotional development.

Question 88

7.12) McGhee notes that the basis of most children’s humor is
a. irony.
b. play on words.
c. incongruity.
d. sarcasm.

Question 89

7.14) Montessori’s ideas concerning periods are impor
tant in planning preschool
programs.
a. lengthy
b. class
c. sensitive
d. time

Question 89

7.15) Project Head Start was initiated in the
a. 1960s.
b. 1970s.
c. 1980s.
d. 1990s.

Question 89

7.16) When children produce language, the result is called
a. vocables.
b. receptive language.
c. phonetic output.
d. expressive language.

Question 90

7.18) The brain area thought to inter pret speech is called
a. Broca’s area.
b. Wernicke’s area.
c. Lau’s area.
d. Bloom’s area.

Question 91

7.17) The rules of de scribe how to put words together to form sentences.
a. phonology
b. semantics
c. syntax
d. pragmatics

Question 92

7.20) Children who receive 90% of their instruction in a minority language are in
programs.
a. bilingual immersion
b. sheltered language
c. autonomous
d. gramatically correct

Question 92

7.19) A 3-year-old’s statement that “Daddy comed home” is an
example of
a. overextension.
b. mispronunciation.
c. overregulation.
d. delayed development.

Question 93

8.4) About _____ of first
marriages end in divorce.
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 50%
d. 25%

Question 93

8.3) Today’s homeless population is a. mostly alcoholic men.
b. skid row inhabitants.
c. younger and more mixed than previously.
d. socially more limited

Question 94

8.5) Almost _______ of second
marriages end in divorce.
a. 48%
b. 62%
c. 74%
d. 83%

Question 94

8.2) A child who is aggressive and demonstrates a lack of
responsibility is associated with parenting behavior.
a. authoritative
b. permissive
c. authoritarian
d. doting

Question 94

8.1) During the early childhood years, a child’s becomes distinctive.
a. walking
b. personality
c. socialization
d. growth

Question 95

8.6) Divorce is thought of today as a ______ of experiences.

a. sequence
b. repression
c. assimilation
d. amalgamation

Question 96

8.7) After divorce, family conditions
usually stabilize in about _______ years.

a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five

Question 97

8.8) There are about ________
licensed child-care centers in the
United States.
a. 25,000
b. 98,000
c. 116,000
d. 140,00

Question 98

8.10) In the United States, the majority
of children under __________
years receive nonparental care.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Question 98

8.9) _________ are older, better
educated, and higher paid care
givers.
a. Au pairs
b. Babysitters
c. Nannies
d. Grandparents

Question 99

8.11) The most important feature of
day care is the ____________ of
care provided.
a. time
b. degree
c. extent
d. quality

Question 100

8.12) Probably the best type of day care
is found in the ______
center, which may not provide an
accurate picture of all centers.
a. research
b. company
c. commercial
d. family-run

Question 101

8.13) The American psychologist who
discussed the “I” and “Me”
elements of the self was
a. Edward L. Thorndike.
b. William James.
c. B. F. Skinner.
d. John Watson.

Question 102

8.14) The beliefs that we have about the
characteristics and behavior we
associate with male and female
is called
a. accommodation.
b. gender practices.
c. gender stereotypes.
d. gender equality.

Question 103

8.15) In cognitive development theory,
children first acquire their
a. gender identity.
b. appropriate gender behavior.
c. psychic stability.
d. conditioned behavior.

Question 104

8.16) In cognitive development theory,
children fi rst acquire their
a. gender identity.
b. appropriate gender behavior.
c. psychic stability.
d. conditioned behavior.

Question 104

8.17) When children of the same sex tend
to play together, it is referred to as
a. sex differentiation.
b. sex cleavage.
c. sex bias.
d. sex dichotomy.

Question 105

8.18) True play has no ____ goals.

a. divergent
b. coercive
c. intrinsic
d. extrinsic

Question 106

8.19) Play materials are grouped into _____
categories.

a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10

Question 107

8.20) Piaget classifi ed games as practice, with rules, and

a. complex.
b. routine.
c. simple.
d. symbolic.

Question 107

9.1) Psychological characteristics of
middle childhood include all but
a. seriation.
b. numeration.
c. moral reasoning.
d. random scribbling.

Question 108

9.2) The protective coating around the
axon is
a. dendrite.
b. myelin.
c. synapse.
d. neural induction.

Question 109

9.3) The energy needs for children of
these years is
a. 1,000—1,200 calories.
b 2,000–2,200 calories.
c. 3,000–3,200 calories.
d. 4,000–4,200 calories.

Question 110

9.4) Which of these is out of order?
Conservation of
a. number.
b. volume.
c. liquids.
d. length.

Question 111

9.5) The acquisition of the number
concept is known as
a. classifi cation.
b. seriation.
c. numeration.
d. conservation.

Question 112

9.6) Sternberg’s theory is based on
components, experience, and
a. context.
b. gender.
c. age.
d. chromosomes.

Question 113

9.7) A popular Taxonomy of Educational Objectives was devised by

a. Sternberg.
b. Gardner.
c. Piaget.
d. Bloom.

Question 114

9.8) Howard Gardner’s theory of
multiple intelligences includes ____
equal intelligences.

a. 4
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10

Question 115

9.9) In Sternberg’s theory, learning
how to solve problems is a
function of
a. metacomponents.
b. genetic endowment.
c. environment.
d. knowledge-acquisition
components.

Question 116

9.10) When we plan, monitor, and
evaluate our problem-solving
strategies, we are using
a. knowledge-acquisition
components.
b. performance components.
c. metacomponents.
d. general intelligence.

Question 117

9.11) Mental age scales were used
by in creating his
intelligence test.
a. Binet
b. Bloom
c. Gardner
d. Piaget

Question 118

9.12) Mental age scales were used
by in creating his
intelligence test.
a. Binet
b. Bloom
c. Gardner
d. Piaget

Question 119

9.13) Which of Gardner’s intelligences
results from contact with the
objects of the world?
a. musical
b. interpersonal, intrapersonal

c. linguistic
d. logical-mathematical

Question 120

9.14) One problem with tests is that test
takers and test makers may differ
in their
a. relationships.
b. circumstances.
c. conditions.
d. values.

Question 121

9.15) The adaptive strategy choice
model was devised by
a. Bjorklund.
b. Bransford.
c. Skinner.
d. Siegler.

Question 122

9.17) Gilligan’s developmental se-
quence is based on

a. social justice.
b. female superiority.
c. an ethic of care.
d. moral reasoning.

Question 122

9.16) Gilligan’s developmental se-
quence is based on

a. social justice.
b. female superiority.
c. an ethic of care.
d. moral reasoning.

Question 123

9.18) The major change in language
development during the middle
childhood years is in
sophistication.

a. pragmatic
b. phonetic
c. syntactic
d. semantic

Question 123

9.19) A belief that reading should de-
velop naturally much as language

does is characteristic of
theorists.
a. nonstage
b. stage
c. quantitative
d. trait

Question 124

9.20) Processing lower level information quickly and with a minimum of cognitive input is called
a. emergent.
b. independent.
c. automaticity.
d. inputting.

Question 125

10.1) Children who have similar levels
of competence may have quite
different levels of
a. cognitive development.
b. friendship.
c. television viewing.
d. self-esteem.

Question 126

10.2) A peer is defi ned as one who is
a. equal in intelligence.
b. in the same grade.
c. within 12 months of age.
d. in a nearby house.

Question 127

10.3) Which of these differences between schools has little effect on children’s development?

a. emphasis on academic success
b. teacher expectations
c. time-on-task
d. size of school

Question 128

10.4) Impulse control at 4 years of age predicted

a. the nature of interactions with
siblings.
b. future academic success.
c. the health of child.
d. physical competence.

Question 129

10.5) Friends provide certain resources for children that adults lack. Which of these is not a resource
provided by friends?

a. membership in the sibling
underworld
b. opportunity for learning skills
c. chance to compare self with
others
d. chance to belong to a group

Question 130

10.6) Selman’s theory of interpersonal relationships is known as

a. observational learning.
b. social perspective taking.
c. linguistic interpretation.
d. accommodation.

Question 131

10.7) A critical factor in effective schools is

a. condition of the school.
b. recreational facilities.
c. number of tenured teachers.
d. good instructional leadership.

Question 132

10.8) Teachers find themselves functioning in
a. nested ecosystems.
b. experiential consciousness.
c. assimilated environments.
d. interactive restrictiveness.

Question 133

10.9) The author of a scathing criticism of schools in low SES environments is

a. Bruner.
b. Skinner.
c. Kozol.
d. Deming.

Question 134

10.10) Toward the end of the middle-childhood period, television viewing time begins to
a. increase.
b. stabilize
c. decline.
d. compete.

Question 135

10.11) Television can also further ___ behavior.
a. regressive
b. accommodating
c. subliminal
d. prosocial

Question 136

10.12) Which of these is not considered a severe stressor of childhood?

a. parental alcoholism
b. school life
c. abuse
d. separation from parent

Question 137

10.16) Although middle-childhood
youngsters are more exposed to
stressful situations, they possess
a better ability to
a. cope.
b. ignore.
c. retreat.
d. achieve.

Question 137

10.13) Child abusers often share parental characteristics. Which of these is not such a characteristic?
a. perpetrator abused as a child
b. have unreasonable expectations
for the child
c. often immature and dependent
d. low SES

Question 137

10.14) Abused children feel they have lost
a. memory.
b. appetite.
c. control.
d. time.

Question 138

10.15) Which is not a long-term effect of
sexual abuse?
a. permissive parenting
b. depression
c. negative self-concept
d. sexual problems

Question 139

10.20) Among the protective factors for
resilient children is
a. temperament.
b. interactive error.
c. geographic mobility.
d. assimilation.

Question 139

101.17) Stress has the tendency to
upset our
a. denial patterns.
b. equilibrium.
c. sublimations.
d. trust.

Question 140

10.19) Children react differently to
stress according to all but
a. age.
b. gender.
c. temperament.
d. race.

Question 141

10.18) Which of the following does not
account for individual differences
in the reaction to stress?
a. age
b. sex
c. temperament
d. athletic ability

Question 142

Which of these is part of the male
reproductive system?
a. fi mbriae
b. vas deferens
c. cervix
d. ova

Question 143

What controls sexual characteris-
tics in both males and females?

a. pituitary gland
b. Bartholin’s glands
c. Cowper’s glands
d. epididymis

Question 144

What marks the onset of puberty?
a. menarche for females; fi rst
ejaculation for males
b. the growth spurt for females and
males
c. the beginning of breast
development for females; the
enlargement of the genitals for
males
d. No single event marks the onset
of puberty.

Question 145

Adolescents who are dependent
and childlike, who feel a growing
dislike for their bodies, and who
become more introverted and
self-rejecting because of it are
most likely to be
a. early-maturing males.
b. early-maturing females.
c. average-maturing males.
d. late-maturing females.

Question 146

The identity status in which nu-
merous crises have been experi-
enced and resolved and relatively
permanent commitments have
been made is called
a. identity moratorium.
b. identity achievement.
c. foreclosed identity.
d. confused identity.

Question 147

The decreasing age of the onset of
puberty is referred to as
a. early physical maturation.
b. early psychological maturity.
c. the evolutionary trend.
d. the secular trend.

Question 148

Specifi c criteria for anorexia
nervosa include
a. weight loss of at least 25% of
original body weight.
b. onset before age 25.
c. distorted attitudes toward eating
and weight.
d. All these answers are correct.

Question 149

One of the traits by which Lerner
characterized the adolescent
transition is
a. independence.
b. eating disorders.
c. relative plasticity.
d. negative body image.

Question 150

From the standpoint of adoles-
cence, the most important of

Erikson’s eight stages is the stage of
a. identity.
b. autonomy.
c. intimacy.
d. industry.

Question 151

What occurs during Piaget’s
formal operational stage?
a. Concrete operations combine to
become formal operations.
b. Preoperations turn into formal
operations.
c. Parts of the sensorimotor stage
turn into formal operations.
d. The preoperational stage and the
sensorimotor stage combine to
become formal operations.

Question 152

One of the criticisms of Piaget’s
theory of cognitive development
is that it

a. is too broad.
b. does not address abstract thought.
c. is too complex.
d. does not account for culture and
gender infl uences.

Question 153

To think of oneself in heroic or
mythical terms is known as
a. egocentrism.
b. imaginary audience.
c. the personal fable.
d. invincibility.

Question 154

When teenagers believe they are
being scrutinized for their behavior
and physical appearance, they are
a. egocentric.
b. creating a personal fable.
c. creating an imaginary audience.
d. exaggerating their abilities and
skills.

Question 155

According to John Hill’s biopsychosocial theory, which three factors are most involved?

a. biological, achievement, and
social
b. biological, psychological, and
sexual
c. intimacy, dependency, and
autonomy
d. biological, psychological, and
social

Question 155

To solve problems that have only
one correct answer, we are using
a. divergent thinking.
b. convergent thinking.
c. creative thinking.
d. critical thinking.

Question 155

11.16) New ideas are to creative thinking
as existing ideas are to
a. convergent thinking.
b. critical thinking.
c. divergent thinking.
d. preoperational thinking.

Question 156

12.1) Brown (1990) states that the peer group can change in four ways during adolescence: adolescents spend more time with peers; they receive less adult supervision; they interact more with peers of the opposite sex; and they
a. interact with peers in a work setting.
b. become sexually active.
c. begin to identify with certain crowds.
d. interact more with peers in
school and service activities.

Question 157

12.2) Most family researchers have agreed that the three styles of parenting are
a. authoritarian, permissive, and devoted.
b. permissive, aggressive, and impassive.
c. authoritarian, authoritative, and permissive.
d. aggressive, impassive, and
devoted.

Question 158

12.3) What reason is cited in the text for why there may be a decline in early sexual activity?
a. concern about AIDS and other STIs
b. prevailing conservative attitudes c. more people devoting time to making money
d. increasing infl uence of religion

Question 159

12.4) The fi rst stage of sexuality a. is heterosexuality.
b. is homosexuality.
c. is autosexuality.
d. depends on the individual.

Question 160

12.5) Parents who practice a nurturing parenting style are

a. interested in their child’s behavior but seldom prescribe rules, relying instead on modeling and family discussions to instill a well-defined set of values.
b. controlling but loving in guiding their children through
development.
c. nurturing but providing little structure in the family.
d. nurturing yet strictly controlling of the way in which the family functions.

Question 161

The genetic theory on homosexu ality claims that
a. people learn to be homosexual. b. as children homosexuals identifi ed with the same-sex parent.
c. persons born with a
predisposition toward
homosexuality can be infl uenced by the environment to either
select or avoid homosexuality.
d. many homosexuals are in denial about their genetically
predisposed orientation.

Question 161

Although he has a girlfriend, Steve wants to prove to his friends

that he can “score” with a number of different girls in school. Steve’s nonsexual motive for sex is to

a. get affection.
b. confi rm his masculinity.
c. ensure the fi delity of his

girlfriend.
d. obtain greater self-esteem.

Question 162

A female adolescent who “acts
out” by running away, engaging
in sexual promiscuity, or damag
ing her school performance may

be a victim of
a. drug abuse.
b. peer pressure.

c. extreme loneliness.
d. sexual abuse.

Question 162

A recent 6% decline in AIDS has been attributed to
a. safe sex.

b. powerful new drugs.
c. better practices.
d. none of these.

Question 163

Intravenous drug users, homosex ual men, and inner-city heterosex uals are groups most at risk for contracting

a. syphilis.
b. genital herpes.
c. hepatitis B.
d. gonorrhea.

Question 164

Each year in the United States approximately teenage girls become pregnant.

a. 25,000
b. 250,000
c. 500,000
d. 1,000,000

Question 165

Sara is an African-American teenager who grew up in a poor, single-parent home and has low occupational aspirations. Sara fits the profile of a

a. drug abuser.
b. gang member.
c. pregnant teenager.
d. domestic abuse victim.

Question 166

Risk factors that predict teenage
pregnancy are

a. early school failure.
b. early behavior problems.
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

Question 167

Factors that affect teenage pregnancy include

a. poverty.
b. a history of sexual abuse.
c. teenage siblings who are
sexually active.
d. all of these.

Question 168

John joins a gang because it serves as a pseudo-family for him. Most likely, John has strong needs that are being displaced onto the peer group.

a. dependency
b. friendship
c. fi nancial
d. All of the answers are correct.

Question 169

Recent research indicates that gangs have which of these characteristics?

a. They possess a consistent set of norms and expectations that are understood by all gang members. b. Members have lower expectations of success than do nonmembers.
c. Members are as likely to have divorced parents as are nonmembers.
d. Members are more likely to score high on IQ tests than are nonmembers.

Question 170

Many adolescents are willing to endure pain to be initiated into groups because
a. they want to be tested.
b. they want to prove to themselves that they are courageous.
c. they want to prove to themselves that they have self-control.
d. all of these.

Question 171

13.1) A bar mitzvah or bat mitzvah is an example of a(n) ____________ rite of passage.
a. religious
b. physical
c. social
d. educational

Question 171

Because we seldom call on its total capacity, people often are not aware of the decline of
their ____________ during early adulthood.
a. aerobic capacity
b. blood pressure
c. heart rate
d. organ reserve

Question 172

Research indicates that heart dis ease and cancer are linked to
a. nutrition.
b. other related diseases.
c. childhood habits.
d. none of these.

Question 172

Lack of exercise, snacking, and use of labor-saving devices are the main causes of
a. leukemia.
b. cancer.
c. obesity.
d. diabetes.

Question 173

A survey among college students on alcohol use showed that

alcohol consumption was directly related to
a. low grade-point average.
b. poor relations with peers.
c. memory loss.
d. length of time needed to earn a college degree.

Question 174

What is the major reason that young adults smoke?
a. stress
b. economic reasons
c. peer pressure
d. get a fix

Question 175

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC, 2004), there are approxi mately ____________ times fewer reported AIDS cases during
young adulthood than in middle adulthood.
a. one and a half
b. two
c. two and a half
d. three

Question 176

Among young adult females, max imum height is usually reached at age ____________; for males, it is age ____________
a. 18, 25.
b. 19, 16.
c. 18, 20.
d. 18, 18.

Question 177

Cigarettes, cigars, and trendy pipes called ____________ are equally addictive and contain nicotine that is toxic to the human body.

a. hookahs
b. tubas
c. poppers
d. none of these

Question 177

Research indicates that obesity has become an epidemic in the

United States. Anyone who is
over ____________% above
normal weight is considered

obese.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

Question 178

Perry’s stages of dualism, relativism, and commitment refer to a person’s

a. relationship development.
b. intellectual and ethical development.
c. ability to make moral decisions.
d. interpersonal relationships.

Question 179

In a study of women’s perspectives on knowledge (Belenky & others), received knowledge is

a. the view that words are central to the knowing process.
b. an experience that resulted in a distrust of outside sources of knowledge.
c. a distrust of knowledge from authority.
d. learned passivity and dependency in relationships.

Question 180

Belenky’s category of procedural knowledge is most similar to which of Perry’s stages?

a. dualism
b. commitment
c. affi rmation
d. relativism

Question 180

Today, women are taking on many of the

a. middle-level jobs.
b. new, high-growth jobs.
c. old, less-skilled jobs.
d. none of these

Question 181

The ability to recognize that cer tainty is impossible but that ____________ to a certain position is necessary, even without certainty, describes Perry’s third stage.

a. aspiring
b. commitment
c. ambivalence
d. disgust

Question 182

14.1) Since 1890, the average age at fi rst marriage in the United States has a. increased for males and
decreased for females.
b. increased for females and
decreased for males.
c. increased for both males and females.
d. decreased for both males and females.

Question 183

A group marriage can be defi ned as
a. when there is one husband and two or more wives.
b. when there is one wife and two or more husbands.
c. when one husband marries two or more sisters.
d. when there are two or more of both husbands and wives, who
all exercise common privileges and responsibilities.

Question 183

The recent trend in increased divorce rates may be caused by which of the following?
a. liberalization of divorce laws b. growing societal acceptance of divorce and remaining single
c. increases in the educational and work experience of women
d. all of these

Question 184

Compared with the baby-boom generation, the dating practices of young adults are quite
a. different.
b. superior.
c. inferior.
d. similar.

Question 184

The role of a , ac cording to some theorists, is to pro vide an individual with guidance during life transitions, assistance with decision making, and a clearer view of what the individual wishes to make of himself or herself.
a. teacher
b. mentor
c. partner
d. sibling

Question 185

In Sternberg’s conceptualization of love, when a person is able to share his or her deepest feelings and thoughts with another, that person is experiencing
a. passion.
b. commitment.
c. intimacy.
d. true love.

Question 186

According to Levinson, the pur pose of the developmental periods in our lives is to cause greater
individuation, which is

a. our developing separate and special personalities, derived less and less from our parents and teachers and more from our own behavior.
b. the realization that one does not need to be in a relationship to attain happiness.
c. the recognition of our distinct interests.
d. the inability for peers to have great influence on major life decisions.

Question 186

Androgyny refers to
a. persons who are more likely to behave in a way appropriate to a situation, regardless of their sex.
b. women who have higher than average male elements in their
personalities.
c. men who have higher than
average female elements in their personalities.
d. the midpoint between the two poles of masculinity and
femininity.

Question 186

If someone forced his way into a line at a football game, an androgynous female

a. would accept the fact that he probably had good reason to cut in line.
b. would be angry but not let her feelings show.
c. would look disapproving.
d. would tell the offender to go to the end of the line.

Question 187

Erikson used the term distantiation to describe

a. the distance we keep between ourselves and others during personal conversation.
b. our ability to distance ourselves from our families of origin.
c. the time we need to progress
from one developmental stage to the next.
d. the readiness all of us have to distance ourselves from others when we feel threatened by their behavior.

Question 188

Over the last two decades, one
reason for the increase in the
age of people at fi rst marriage
may be higher numbers of
women
a. entering the workforce.
b. traveling alone.
c. afraid of divorce.
d. having children.

Question 188

Whose theories fi nd fault with
Erikson because of his belief that
women are judged through their
relationships with others?
a. Erikson and evolutionary
psychologists
b. Gilligan and Erikson
c. Friedan
d. Bem and Erikson

Question 188

Researcher Carol Gilligan states
that, because femininity is defi ned

through attachment, female gen-
der is most threatened by

a. divorce.
b. personal loss.
c. separation.
d. dispassionate males.

Question 189

The term biopsychosocial refers
to the interactions of biology,
psychology, and __________
in relation to the individual.
a. sociology
b. theology
c. environment
d. heredity

Question 190

Men are more likely to react to
stress with a(n) __________ response, whereas women are
more likely to react with a _______response.

a. assertive, subversive
b. “bend-and-bond,” “fight-or-flight”
c. “fight-or-flight,” “bend-and-bond”
d. positive, negative

Question 191

The person who used the term
validation to describe our need,
as humans, to feel loved and
accepted is
a. Fromm.
b. Levinson.
c. Bem.
d. Erikson.15.1

Question 192

15.1) Basal metabolism rate refers to

a. the minimum amount of energy
an individual tends to use after
exercising.
b. the minimum amount of energy
an individual tends to use when
in a resting state.
c. the maximum amount of energy
an individual tends to use after
exercising.
d. the maximum amount of energy
an individual tends to use when
in a resting state.