IOP DX REFRESHER (Finalized) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is not considered as a basic component to any organization according to the Classical Theory?

a) People
b) Cooperation
c) Authority
d) Physical Setting

A

d) Physical Setting

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2
Q
  1. This theory believes that an organization should best be structured in order to accomplish its goals

a) Classical

b) Neo-classical

c) Systems

d) Structural

A

A) Classical

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3
Q
  1. This principle accounts for the grouping of work into such units as production, sales, engineering, finance, and so on

a) Functional
b) Scalar
c) Line/staff
d) Span-of-control

A

A) Functional

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4
Q
  1. _________: horizontal growth; ________: vertical growth

a) Functional ; scalar
b) Scalar; line/staff
c) Line/staff ; functional
d) None of the above

A

A) functional;scalar

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5
Q
  1. The best way to overcome organizational fragmentation according to Classical theorists

a) Unity of command
b) Cooperation
c) Task differentiation
d) Commend hierarchy

A

A) Unity of command

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6
Q
  1. A disadvantage of imposing division of labor

a) each job requires relatively few skills
b) easier to find people who have the necessary KSAOs
c) lessens time required for training
d) requires resources to coordinate the activities of many specialized people

A

d) requires resources to coordinate the activities of many specialized people

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is best considered as a line function?

a) Manufacturing
b) Talent management
c) Compensation
d) Marketing

A

a) Manufacturing

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following statements would a neoclassicist disagree with?

a) Division of labor results to job dissatisfaction
b) Distinction between line and staff functions is valuable
c) Effective span of control is not determined by numbers alone
d) Many activities extend beyond the scalar principle

A

b) Distinction between line and staff functions is valuable

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9
Q
  1. Neoclassicists believe that supervisor-subordinate ratio should depend on the following except

a) managerial ability
b) intensity of needed supervision
c) number of subordinates
d) leadership skills

A

c) number of subordinates

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10
Q
  1. This theory stresses that status and role differences exist among jobs within an organization and define the behavior of individuals within the system

a) Bureaucracy
b) Neoclassical
c) Contingency
d) Systems

A

d) Systems

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11
Q
  1. This approach argues that ideas that work well in one situation might not work as well in another situation

a) Bureaucracy
b) Neoclassical
c) Contingency
d) Systems

A

c) Contingency

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12
Q
  1. An important element for organizational success, according to the Systems theory

a) Organizational communication
b) Division of labor
c) Functional similarities
d) Formal lines of authority

A

a) Organizational communication

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13
Q
  1. The concept of ______ in an open system perspective states that there is no one correct way to structure and operate an organization

a) Equifinality
b) Entropy
c) Homeostasis
d) Input energy

A

a) Equifinality

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14
Q
  1. The basic idea is that the attitudes and beliefs of supervisors about their subordinates determine the organization’s management approach, which in turn affects how subordinates behave

a) Modern Organizational
b) Bureaucracy
c) TheoryX/Y
d) Neoclassical

A

c) TheoryX/Y

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15
Q
  1. According to McGregor, the hard approach entails

a) Use of coercion and threats
b) close supervision
c) results in employee resistance
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an empowered individual?

a) get “energized” about a given activity
b) more likely to challenge and question
c) believes that he or she can affect or influence organizational outcomes
d) none of the above

A

d) none of the above

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17
Q
  1. A method of improving business processes using statistical information to achieve greater customer satisfaction

a) Six Sigma
b) Standard Practice
c) Five S
d) Systematic Change

A

a) Six Sigma

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18
Q
  1. A type of organizational change which involves incremental modifications to the organization, and as a consequence, does not suddenly alter the individual’s understanding of, or relationship to, the organization

a) Additive
b) Evolutionary
c) Revolutionary
d) Imposed

A

b) Evolutionary

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19
Q
  1. An organizational change technique wherein each employee’s own goals are coordinated with the goals of both supervisors and subordinates

a) MBO
b) T-group
c) Goal Setting
d) Team Sync

A

a) MBO

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20
Q
  1. An OD technique that uses unstructured group interaction to assist workers gain insight concerning their own behavior, to develop greater openness, and to improve skills in understanding and dealing with others

a) Sensitivity training
b) Team Building
c) Behavior Modelling
d) None of the above

A

a) Sensitivity training

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21
Q
  1. A strategy to create urgency for change by putting employees in direct contact with dissatisfied customers

a) Saving face
b) Environmental pressure
c) Coercion
d) Customer-driven change

A

d) Customer-driven change

22
Q
  1. An approach to promote work-life balance by evaluating employees based on results, not their face time

a) ROWE initiative
b) Six Sigma
c) MARS model
d) Action approach

A

a) ROWE initiative

23
Q
  1. This approach is deeply grounded in the emerging philosophy of positive organizational behavior and breaks out of the problem-solving mentality of traditional change management

a) Action-research
b) Appreciative inquiry
c) Occupational positivity
d) None of the above

A

b) Appreciative inquiry

24
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of large-group interventions for organizational change?

a) Increases the risk that few people will dominate
b) High expectation about an ideal future state
c) Difficulty in finding common ground
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

25
Q
  1. This refers to the division of labor as well as the patterns of coordination, communication, workflow, and formal power that direct organizational activities.

a) Organizational structure
b) Organizational activities
c) Organizational planning
d) Organizational design

A

a) Organizational structure

26
Q
  1. The four main elements of organizational structure include:

a) Division of labor, coordination, chain of command, physical setting
b) Span of control, centralization, formalization, departmentalization
c) External environment, organizational size, technology, strategy
d) Knowledge, skills, abilities, other characteristics

A

b) Span of control, centralization, formalization, departmentalization

27
Q
  1. Formal hierarchy can be efficient in complex and novel situations. It involves the exercise of legitimate power.

a) Both statements are true
b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

A

c) Only the second statement is true

28
Q
  1. Which form of coordination works best for self-directed teams?

a) Informal communication
b) Formal hierarchy
c) Standardized practice
d) None of the above

A

a) Informal communication

29
Q
  1. A wider span of control is applicable when

a) Coaching is much needed
b) Employees perform routine jobs
c) There is evident interdependence of work
d) All of the above

A

b) Employees perform routine jobs

30
Q
  1. If Company A has a wider span of control than Company B, then Company A must have __________ than does Company B.

a) Fewer layers of management
b) Flatter organizational structure
c) Larger number of direct reports
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

31
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a problem regarding taller hierarchies?

a) higher overhead costs
b) lower-quality and less timely information
c) undermines employee empowerment
d) none of the above

A

d) none of the above

32
Q
  1. Cutting out too much middle management may lead to the following outcomes, except

a) Restrict managerial career development
b) Increase number of direct reports
c) Decrease workload and stress
d) Fewer promotion opportunities

A

c) Decrease workload and stress

33
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is not true about formalization?

a) It applies the principles of participative mgmt.
b) It is related to standardization of activities
c) It reduces organizational flexibility
d) All of the above

A

a) It applies the principles of participative mgmt.

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely a characteristic of a mechanistic structure?

a) Narrow span of control
b) High degree of formalization
c) Horizontal communication flows
d) Taller hierarchies

A

c) Horizontal communication flows

35
Q
  1. This element of organizational structure establishes the chain of command—the system of common supervision among positions and units within the organization

a) Centralization
b) Formalization
c) Departmentalization
d) Span of control

A

c) Departmentalization

36
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of divisional structure?

a) Geographical
b) Product
c) Client
d) Branch

A

d) Branch

37
Q
  1. McDonalds probably utilizes this type of divisional structure

a) Geographical
b) Product
c) Client
d) Branch

A

a) Geographical

38
Q
  1. Employees are assigned to a cross-functional team responsible for a specific game project, yet they also belong to a permanent functional unit from which they are reassigned when their work is completed on a particular project

a) Divisional
b) Matrix
c) Team-based
d) Functional

A

b) Matrix

39
Q
  1. In research settings, there is high variety and low analyzability. This means that an organic structure if more applicable.

a) Both statements are true
b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

A

a) Both statements are true

40
Q
  1. A type of team created for the purpose of developing innovative possibilities or solutions.

a) Problem-resolution
b) Creative
c) Tactical
d) Ad hoc

A

b) Creative

41
Q
  1. Used in organizations that encounter unusual or atypical problems that require an atypical response for a limited duration

a) Problem-resolution
b) Creative
c) Tactical
d) Ad hoc

A

d) Ad hoc

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is a work producer function?

a) Completer-finisher
b) Monitor-evaluator
c) Resource-investigator
d) Team facilitator

A

a) Completer-finisher

43
Q
  1. According to the Team Effectiveness Model, the main components of an effective team involves

a) Environment, design, processes
b) Cooperating, coordinating, communicating
c) Size, composition, roles
d) None of the above

A

a) Environment, design, processes

44
Q
  1. This would occur in a team setting where each member works alone but shares raw materials or machinery to perform her or his otherwise independent tasks.

a) Pooled interdependence
b) Sequential interdependence
c) Reciprocal interdependence
d) Team interdependence

A

a) Pooled interdependence

45
Q
  1. A process that consists of formal activities intended to improve the development and functioning of a work team.

a) Team Stabilization
b) Team training
c) Team Building
d) Team Design

A

c) Team Building

46
Q
  1. Type of trust which entails team members to act appropriately because they will face sanctions if their actions violate reasonable expectations

a) Knowledge-based
b) Calculus-based
c) Identification-based
d) None of the above

A

b) Calculus-based

47
Q
  1. A group member who intentionally provides an opposing opinion to that expressed by the leader or the majority of the group is called a/an

a) Devil’s advocate
b) Outlier
c) Outgroup member
d) Inhibitor

A

a) Devil’s advocate

48
Q
  1. The four dimensions of empowerment include all of the following except

a) Meaning
b) Competence
c) Impact
d) Responsibility

A

d) Responsibility

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is related to mental imagery?

a) practicing a task and visualizing its successful completion
b) “crossing the bridge even if you’re not there yet”
c) anticipating obstacles to goal accomplishment
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is a good depiction of self-reinforcement?

a) Taking a nap instead of a break because you believe this reinforcement works best for you
b) Taking a break only after achieving a self-set goal
c) Doing an enjoyable task first to gain momentum to do a task you dislike
d) Rewarding self from time to time to stay reinforced

A

b) Taking a break only after achieving a self-set goal