ABP MockBoard REFRESHER (FINALIZED) (12/17/23)

Question 1

When trying to determine whether a person has a psychological disorder or not, it is important to remember that:

A. Using one model of abnormality is more efficient and provides more accurate results
B. One of the four general criteria of abnormality (Distress, Dysfunction, Deviance, Danger) is enough to determine a disorder
C. Cultural differences between assessor and assessed should be observed
D. Biomedical treatments must always be given when doing therapy

Answer 1

C. Cultural differences between assessor and assessed should be observed

Question 2

The diathesis-stress model is one of many perspectives explaining psychopathology. Which of the following is TRUE of this model?

A. Genetics alone are largely responsible for a person developing a disorder
B. The larger the vulnerability, the more stressful an event should be to trigger a disorder
C. Social factors may buffer development of a disorder even when vulnerability is triggered
D. One major genetic variation is likely responsible for most disorders

Answer 2

C. Social factors may buffer development of a disorder even when vulnerability is triggered

Question 3

According to the biological perspective, one of the associated conditions leading to schizophrenia in children is when their mothers are exposed to _______ during pregnancy. This is:

A. Influenza
B. Rubella
C. Pollution-related stress
D. Alcohol

Answer 3

A. Influenza

Question 4

Which of the following DOES NOT describe the DSM-5?

A. Is criterion-referenced when it comes to disorder descriptions
B. Adopts a prototypical approach
C. Helps in setting the stage for treatment planning
D. Is theory based when it comes to disorder etiology

Answer 4

D. Is theory based when it comes to disorder etiology

Question 5

The MMPI-2 examines _______ instead of ______

A. Patterns of responses: Individual responses
B. Individual responses: Patterns of responses
C. Unstructured responses: Structured responses
D. Structured responses: Patterns of responses

Answer 5

A. Patterns of responses: Individual responses

Question 6

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), serves what primary purpose in clinical assessment?

A. Providing treatment guidelines for mental health professionals
B. Categorizing and classifying mental disorders for diagnostic purposes
C. Providing information on appropriate developmental patterns
D. Assessing the effectiveness of psychotherapy techniques

Answer 6

B. Categorizing and classifying mental disorders for diagnostic purposes

Question 7

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

I. When treatments are found to be statistically significant in clinical trials, clinical significance is ensured

II. Case studies provide poor external validity but high internal validity

III. The heterogeneity of participants does not matter when research points out that treatment is significant

IV. Case studies provide an opportunity to investigate problems that do not occur too often

A. Only II and III is TRUE
B. Only I is TRUE
C. Only IV is TRUE
D. All of the Above is TRUE

Answer 7

C. Only IV is TRUE

Question 8

Which of the following order makes sense in clinical work?

A. Assessment –> treatment planning –> case conceptualization –> diagnosis
B. Assessment –> diagnosis –> case conceptualization –> treatment planning
C. Assessment –>case conceptualization –> treatment planning –> diagnosis
D. Assessment –> diagnosis –> treatment planning –> case conceptualization

Answer 8

B. Assessment –> diagnosis –> case conceptualization –> treatment planning

Question 8

Ling wanted to study the effect of some intervention on decreasing the anxiety levels of a single subject. She wanted to teach self-management skills and to determine how effective it is as a treatment. For this, she decided to use a withdrawal design. What could you say about the scenario?

A. Using a withdrawal design is appropriate because it provides for high external validity
B. Using a withdrawal design is inappropriate because it is only useful for large groups
C. Using a withdrawal design is appropriate because she is working on reducing anxiety levels
D. Using a withdrawal design is inappropriate because she is teaching self-management skills

Answer 8

D. Using a withdrawal design is inappropriate because she is teaching self-management skills

Question 9

Dr. Wilson is conducting an assessment of a patient who exhibits a lack of insight into their mental health condition, making it challenging to establish an accurate diagnosis. What is the term for this lack of awareness?

A. Avolition
B. Malingering
C. Anosognosia
D. Factitious disorder

Answer 9

C. Anosognosia

Question 10

Which of the following is TRUE regarding cross-cultural research on psychopathology?

A. Treatment models have the same application across cultures
B. The same disorder might be reported differently across different societies
C. Abnormal behavior should be consistent with the researcher’s idea of abnormality
D. The same model of abnormality should be applied with different people

Answer 10

B. The same disorder might be reported differently across different societies

Question 11

You are most likely to observe dementia pugilistica among which of the ff?

A. Boxers
B. Police officers
C. Heavy drinkers
D. Runners

Answer 11

A. Boxers

Question 12

Among those with Alzheimer’s, difficulties such as agitation, confusion, and combativeness become ________ late in the day. This phenomenon is called _______

A. Better: Moonriser syndrome
B. Worse: Degeneration syndrome
C. Better: Cognitive buffer syndrome
D. Worse: Sundowner syndrome

Answer 12

D. Worse: Sundowner syndrome

Question 13

This hypothesis tells us that the more synapses/neural connections a person develops throughout life, the more neuronal death must take place before the signs of dementia are obvious:

A. Cognitive reserve hypothesis
B. Cognitive buffer hypothesis
C. Cognitive practice hypothesis
D. Cognitive processing hypothesis

Answer 13

A. Cognitive reserve hypothesis

Question 14

Higher educational attainment serves to ________ for Alzheimer’s disease:

A. Be preventive
B. Shorten the duration
C. Provide a buffer
D. Have little to no effect

Answer 14

C. Provide a buffer

Question 15

Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the motor difficulties of Parkinson’s?

A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Glutamate

Answer 15

B. Dopamine

Question 16

Unlike dementia, people who experience delirium have symptoms with _______

A. Rapid onset
B. Gradual onset
C. Either rapid or gradual onset depending on the case
D. None. It is usually hard to tell.

Answer 16

A. Rapid onset

Question 17

This NCD is associated with cannibalism:

A. NCD due to Prion disease
B. NCD due to Lewy Bodies
C. NCD due to Pick’s disease
D. NCD due to health issues

Answer 17

A. NCD due to Prion disease

Question 18

People with this disorder were once described by Bleuler as having a “tendency to turn inward”:

A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
D. Schizoid Personality Disorder

Answer 18

D. Schizoid Personality Disorder

Question 19

Beliefs related to spirituality or religion are common for those with:

A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B. Schizoid Personality Disorder
C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

Answer 19

C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Question 20

People with antisocial personality disorder have ____ cortical arousal and ____ levels of serotonin:

A. Low: Low
B. Low: High
C. High: Low
D. High: High

Answer 20

A. Low: Low

Question 20

A combination of which childhood-related disorders increases the risk for antisocial PD?

A. ADHD-HI and conduct disorder
B. ADHD-PI and conduct disorder
C. Oppositional defiant disorder and ADHD
D. Oppositional defiant disorder and Reactive attachment disorder

Answer 20

A. ADHD-HI and conduct disorder

Question 21

The term “stably unstable” is most associated with:

A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder

Answer 21

D. Borderline personality disorder

Question 22

A person with _________ would most likely get low scores on tests measuring ego identity:

A. Narcissistic Personality disorder
B. Histrionic Personality disorder
C. Borderline Personality disorder
D. Schizotypal Personality disorder

Answer 22

C. Borderline Personality disorder

Question 23

Looking into personality disposition, those with high ____ are at a higher risk for PTSD:

A. Hostility
B. Anxiety
C. Needs for control
D. Fantasy life

Answer 23

B. Anxiety

Question 24

Developmentally, a child must be at least ____ to be diagnosed with reactive attachment disorder or disinhibited social engagement disorder:

A. 9 months
B. 2 years old
C. 1 year and 6 months
D. 6 months

Answer 24

A. 9 months

Question 25

EMDR is a treatment which may help for what disorder?

A. Conduct disorder
B. Adjustment disorder
C. Reactive attachment disorder
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

Answer 25

D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

Question 26

Among the following, someone with reactive attachment disorder may be MOST mistaken to have which other childhood-related disorder?

A. ADHD
B. Autism
C. Childhood-onset schizophrenia
D. Oppositional defiant disorder

Answer 26

B. Autism

Question 27

Comparing reactive attachment disorder and disinhibited social engagement disorder after providing quality caregiving, what can be said about these disorders?

A. Children with RAD are more likely to recover
B. Children with DSED are more likely to recover
C. Children with either disorders are more likely to recover
D. Children with either disorders are not impacted by quality caregiving

Answer 27

A. Children with RAD are more likely to recover

Question 28

Serious social neglect is _____ for the diagnosis of RAD and DSED:

A. Necessary but not sufficient
B. Sufficient and necessary
C. Sufficient but not necessary
D. Neither sufficient nor necessary

Answer 28

A. Necessary but not sufficient

Question 29

This term is most associated with the wear and tear experienced on biological systems due to chronic stress:

A. Allostatic load
B. Alloplastic load
C. Anankastic load
D. Allogenic load

Answer 29

A. Allostatic load

Question 30

The following are implicated in the stress response which can lead to long term mental health problems EXCEPT FOR?

A. Hippocampus
B. Pre-frontal cortex
C. Cerebellum
D. Amygdala

Answer 30

C. Cerebellum

Question 31

When it comes to processing and expressing the turmoil experienced as part of PTSD, girls are more likely to express ______ while boys are more likely to show _____

A. Shame: Aggression
B. Submissiveness: Anger
C. Fear: Embarrassment
D. Confusion: Distractibility

Answer 31

A. Shame: Aggression

Question 32

The specifier “with delayed expression” is given if the full diagnostic criteria for PTSD are not met until at least ____ after the event:

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

Answer 32

B. 6 months

Question 33

People with Autism Spectrum Disorder…

A. Have deficits in social communication which is the only major defining feature of ASD
B. Are always accompanied by intellectual deficits
C. Have little to no capacity in forming attachments with caregivers
D. May use echolalia as a first step in language acquisition

Answer 33

D. May use echolalia as a first step in language acquisition

Question 34

Which of the following activities would children with ASD most likely perform best at?

A. Going on a field trip
B. Sally-Anne Task
C. Embedded Figures Test
D. Completing a Jigsaw Puzzle

Answer 34

C. Embedded Figures Test

Question 35

When looking at brain imaging studies, researchers have found out that this is largely responsible for why people with ASD may have rapid shifts from one stimuli to another:

A. Smaller cerebellum
B. Enlarged ventricles
C. Enlarged amygdala
D. Reduced corpus callosum area

Answer 35

A. Smaller cerebellum

Question 36

Children with Attention Deficit/ Hyperactivity Disorder…

A. Are children who experience severe intellectual deficits
B. Are those who are not capable of simple tasks needed to survive
C. Are children who have the same attentional capacity as others
D. Are those who have no problems with distractibility and sustained attention

Answer 36

C. Are children who have the same attentional capacity as others

Question 37

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. ADHD-HI is the most common presentation
B. ADHD-PI are more likely to be aggressive and defiant
C. ADHD-C is the presentation most referred to treatment
D. When a parent has ADHD, the risk for their child having ADHD is around 30%

Answer 37

C. ADHD-C is the presentation most referred to treatment

Question 38

When a child with ADHD exhibits positive bias, research tells us that:

A. The child thinks more positively when it comes to stress or trauma-related events making assessment difficult
B. The child constantly demonstrates aggression related behaviors but only towards those who are not his/her friends
C. The child eventually becomes naturally capable of interacting in a more appropriate manner with lower impairment
D. The child displays more negative behaviors and persistent social impairment

Answer 38

D. The child displays more negative behaviors and persistent social impairment

Question 39

According to research (Beauchaine, Hinshaw, & Pang, 2010), about 30-50% of children who have ADHD eventually develop what?

A. Conduct Disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Narcissistic PD

Answer 39

A. Conduct Disorder

Question 40

Which of the following clearly differentiates between Oppositional Defiant Disorder and Conduct Disorder?

A. ODD has much more severe features than CD
B. CD has difficulties with emotion regulation as part of its features as compared to ODD
C. When a person has features of both, only ODD can be given as diagnosis
D. Hurting animals and theft is common for CD rather than ODD

Answer 40

D. Hurting animals and theft is common for CD rather than ODD

Question 41

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Rates of completed suicide are much higher for people with bipolar disorder than for those with recurrent depression
B. People with cyclothymic disorder never become bipolar
C. Rapid cycling happens when the person experiences at least two manic and depressive episodes within a year
D. An accumulation of negative life experiences is needed in order to experience depression—therefore, babies can’t experience depression

Answer 41

A. Rates of completed suicide are much higher for people with bipolar disorder than for those with recurrent depression

Question 42

Tyrus experienced manic and depressive episodes which seemingly was “non-stop”. He would often experience pure manic episodes right after depressive episodes and vice versa. This causes severe distress on his part. On top of that, he also sees and hears things which aren’t even there. Tyrus might be said to have ____________ and when diagnosed, he should be given a specifier of _______________.

A. Bipolar switching: w/ schizotypal features
B. Non-stop switching: w/ schizotypal features
C. Chronic switching: w/ psychotic features
D. Rapid switching : w/ psychotic features

Answer 42

D. Rapid switching : w/ psychotic features

Question 43

Manic episodes are often a neurotransmitter imbalance of…

A. Low serotonin, Low norepinephrine
B. High serotonin, Low Acetylcholine
C. Low serotonin, High norepinephrine
D. High serotonin, High dopamine

Answer 43

C. Low serotonin, High norepinephrine

Question 44

Considering the course of a disorder, which of the following is a good predictor of full recovery among those with schizophrenia?

A. Those with good premorbid functioning
B. Those who receive early treatment in the residual phase
C. Those without concurrent substance abuse in the active phase
D. Those who develop the psychotic symptoms at an early age

Answer 44

A. Those with good premorbid functioning

Question 45

What research has found out about schizophrenia is that:

A. The largest contributions to the disorder are environmental and socio-cultural factors
B. Having two parents with schizophrenia offers a smaller risk than having one parent with schizophrenia
C. Identical twins have higher concordance rates than fraternal twins
D. None of the Above

Answer 45

C. Identical twins have higher concordance rates than fraternal twins

Question 46

Which of the following statements is TRUE in terms of explaining schizophrenia?

A. Biological perspectives explain that schizophrenia risk is higher in children when the father has influenza virus during sex
B. Psychodynamic perspectives explain that schizophrenia happens when the ego becomes overwhelmed with neurotic anxiety and tries to re-establish super ego control
C. Behavioral perspectives explain that schizophrenia develops as a response to too much punishments and double blind communication
D. Cognitive perspectives explain that due to biological causes, schizophrenia develops out of drawing bizarre and incorrect conclusions

Answer 46

D. Cognitive perspectives explain that due to biological causes, schizophrenia develops out of drawing bizarre and incorrect conclusions

Question 47

When a person with schizophrenia has auditory hallucinations, research has shown that…

A. Their delusions are rarely congruent with their hallucinations
B. Voices that they hear are misinterpretations of external sound stimuli
C. The Wernicke’s area responsible for understanding speech gets stimulated
D. They listen to their own inner voices and cannot recognize it as theirs

Answer 47

D. They listen to their own inner voices and cannot recognize it as theirs

Question 48

This was an attempt at reducing psychotic and related behaviors by using principles of operant conditioning:

A. Social Therapy
B. Token Economy
C. Milieu Therapy
D. Assertive Community

Answer 48

B. Token Economy