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DP Online Drill(1) Flashcards

https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdeRCtZNm2imXgcVrYp7evFe1sWAN6LH24__XExCdLzWY0guQ/viewform

1
Q

In Kubler-Ross’ stages of dying, this is the stage where the person develops the hope that death can somehow be postponed or delayed.

A. Depression
B. Anger
C. Bargaining
D. Denial

A

C. Bargaining

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2
Q

Human’s unique understanding of death, in concert with self-preservation needs and capacity for fear, results in common emotional and psychological responses when mortality, or thoughts of death are made salient

A. Terror Management Theory
B. Terminal Drop
C. Near Death Experience
D. Advance Directive

A

A. Terror Management Theory

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3
Q

Statement 1: By age 4, children build a partial understanding of the biological nature of death
Statement 2: Children do not understand death, but they understand loss
Statement 3: Middle-Aged and Older adults are more prepared with death

A. All statements are inaccurate
B. Statement 1 and 2 are accurate
C. All statements are accurate
D. Statement 2 and 3 are accurate

A

C. All statements are accurate

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4
Q

It is the emotional response that generally follows closely on the heels of death.

A. Grief
B. Depression
C. Grief Work
D. Bereavement

A

A. Grief

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5
Q

Top causes of deaths in 1900s are the following except;

A. Tuberculosis
B. Diarrhea
C. Pneumonia
D. Cancer

A

D. Cancer

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6
Q

It is the multigenerational network consisting of grandparents, aunts, uncles and more relatives. Multigenerational households have become
more common in recent years.

A. Extended Family
B. Kinship
C. Nuclear Family
D. Family

A

A. Extended Family

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7
Q

During the APGAR test, the newborn’s score was 7. What does this mean?

A. Needs moderate care
B. Life-threatening situation
C. Needs special attention
D. Healthy

A

D. Healthy

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8
Q

Statement 1: Children with high IQ scores generally come from well-organized homes with appropriate play materials
Statement 2: High-quality preschool programs (e.g., Head Start) can help low-income children do better in school and have higher test scores
Statement 3: IQ test scores rose in the 20th century

A. Statement 1 and 3 are inacurate
B. Statement 3 is inaccurate
C. All are accurate
D. All are inaccurate

A

C. All are accurate

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9
Q

Statement 1: No evidence that some ethnic groups are genetically predisposition to have higher IQs than other groups
Statement 2: All ethnic groups have children who do extremely well and extremely poorly on tests

A. All statements are less likely false
B. Statement 1 is less likely true
C. Statement 2 is less likely true
D. All statements are less likely true

A

A. All statements are less likely false

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10
Q

Statement 1: A strong sense of religion and spiritual identity helps many older adults deal with life’s changes
Statement 2: Spiritual support is a type of coping strategy
Statement 3: Neuroscience research provides evidence that those who practice meditation have more organized attention and memory systems

A. Statement 3 is not true
B. Statement 2 and 3 is not false
C. Statement 1, 2, and 3 is not true
D. Statement 1, 2, and 3 is not false

A

D. Statement 1, 2, and 3 is not false

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11
Q

Statement 1: Based on limited data, gay and lesbian relationships differ in quality from heterosexual relationships in later life
Statement 2: Women are more likely to experience widowhood than men
Statement 3: Men tend to recover more slowly since they may not have a strong social support system

A. Statement 3 is not true
B. Statement 2 is not true
C. All statement are not true
D. Statement 1 is not true

A

D. Statement 1 is not true

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12
Q

A genetic restriction of phenotype to a small number of developmental outcomes.``

A. Genotype/environment correlations
B. Range of reaction principle
C. Concordance Rates
D. Canalization

A

D. Canalization

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13
Q

It is a study of the bioevolutionary basis of behavior and development with a focus on the survival of the individual.

A. Ethology
B. Evolutionary Psychology
C. Endology
D. Etiology

A

A. Ethology

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14
Q

Systematic continuities and changes in the individual over the course of life.

A. Development
B. Life span
C. Maturation
D. Change

A

A. Development

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15
Q

Developmental changes in the body or behavior that result from the aging process rather than from injury, illness, or some other life experience.

A. Puberty
B. Change
C. Maturation
D. Development

A

C. Maturation

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16
Q

Developmental changes that characterize most or all members of a species; typically patterns of development.

A. Normative development
B. Holistic development
C. Ideographic development
D. Non-normative development

A

A. Normative development

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17
Q

A unified view of the developmental process that emphasizes the important interrelationships among the physical, mental, social, and emotional aspects of human development.

A. Holistic development
B. Plasticity
C. Holistic Perspective
D. Normative Perspective

A

C. Holistic Perspective

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18
Q

Methods that measure the relationships between physiological processes and aspects of children’s physical, cognitive, social, or emotional behavior or development.

A. Physiological Method
B. Psychophysiological Method
C. Assessment Method
D. Clinical Method

A

B. Psychophysiological Method

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19
Q

A research design in which subjects from different age groups are studied at the same point in time.

A. Cross-sectional
B. Longitudinal
C. Sequential
D. Correlational

A

A. Cross-sectional

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20
Q

A threadlike structure made up of genes.

A. Autosomes
B. Chromosomes
C. Genes
D. Zygote

A

B. Chromosomes

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21
Q

The process in which a cell duplicates its chromosomes and then divides into two genetically identical daughter cells.

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Moises
D. Eclectics

A

A. Mitosis

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22
Q

A process in which genetic material is exchanged between pairs of chromosomes during meiosis.

A. Eclectics
B. Crossing over
C. Stretching
D. Conception

A

B. Crossing over

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23
Q

A genetic disease in which the child is unable to metabolize phenylalanine; if left untreated, it may cause hyperactivity and mental retardation.

A. Trisomy 21
B. Sickle-cell
C. Fragile X
D. PKU

A

D. PKU

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24
Q

A study that compares the behavior and/or development of people from different cultural or subcultural backgrounds.

A. Cross-cultural Design
B. Ethnography
C. Etiology
D. Sequential Design

A

B. Ethnography

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25
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of prenatal development?

I. Zygote, Fetus, Embryo
II. Embryo, Zygote, Fetus
III. Fetus, Zygote, Embryo
IV. Zygote, Embryo, Fetus

A. I
B. IV
C. III
D. There is no sequence in prenatal development
E. II

A

B. IV

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26
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of prenatal development?

I. Zygote, Fetus, Embryo
II. Embryo, Zygote, Fetus
III. Fetus, Zygote, Embryo
IV. Zygote, Embryo, Fetus

A. II
B. There is no sequence in prenatal development
C. IV
D. I
E. III

A

C. IV

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27
Q

A membrane that becomes attached to the uterine tissues to gather nourishment for the embryo.

A. Placenta
B. Umbilical Cord
C. Chorion
D. Amnion

A

C. Chorion

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28
Q

The phase of the prenatal development wherein all major organ systems begin to function and the fetus grows rapidly.

A. Birth
B. Period of the Zygote
C. Period of the Fetus
D. Period of the Embryo

A

C. Period of the Fetus

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29
Q

At what month does sexual differentiation progress rapidly?

A. 2nd month
B. 7th month
C. 3rd month
D. 5th month

A

C. 3rd month

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30
Q

The white cheesy substance that covers the fetus to protect the skin from chapping.

A. Vernix
B. Lanugo
C. Placenta
D. Ectoderm

A

A. Vernix

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31
Q

The point between the 23rd and 28th prenatal weeks when survival outside the uterus is possible.

A. Survival of the fittest
B. Age of variability
C. Age differentiation
D. Age of viability

A

D. Age of viability

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32
Q

Concept of human development as lifelong process, which can be studied scientifically.

A. Life-span perspective
B. Life-span development
C. Human development
D. Physical development

A

B. Life-span development

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33
Q

Focuses on scientific study of the systematic process of change and stability in people.

A. Life-span perspective
B. Life-span development
C. Human development
D. Physical development

A

C. Human development

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34
Q

Focuses on the degree to which development involves either gradual, cumulative change or distinct stages.

A. Continuity-discontinuity
B. Maturation
C. Stability change issue
D. Heritability

A

A. Continuity-discontinuity

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35
Q

Child’s genotype evokes certain kind of reactions from other people. Genetic make up may affect reactions of other people to a child.

A. Evocative gene-environment
B. Passive gene-environment
C. Active gene-environment
D. Heredity

A

A. Evocative gene-environment

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36
Q

He studied the heredity in plants.

A. John Locke
B. Gregor Mendel
C. Jean Jacques Rousseau
D. Jean Piaget

A

B. Gregor Mendel

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37
Q

He states that children are born “Noble savages”

A. John Locke
B. Gregor Mendel
C. Jean Jacques Rousseau
D. Jean Piage

A

C. Jean Jacques Rousseau

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38
Q

Emphasized the importancef adaptation reproduction and “survival of the fittest” in shaping behavior.

A. Quantitative change
B. Orgasmic model
C. Evolutionary psychology
D. Qualitative change

A

C. Evolutionary psychology

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39
Q

To take care and to do no harm.

A. Fidelity
B. Justice
C. Integrity
D. Beneficence and nonmaleficence

A

D. Beneficence and nonmaleficence

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40
Q

Seek to describe the pattern of relationships, customs, beliefs, technology, arts, and traditions make up society’s way of life.

A. Case study
B. Ethnographic studies
C. Correlational study
D. Research

A

B. Ethnographic studies

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41
Q

Determine whether a correlation exist between variables, phenomena that change or vary among people or can be varied for purpose of research.

A. Case study
B. Ethnographic studies
C. Correlational study
D. Research

A

C. Correlational study

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42
Q

Natural experience compares people who have been accidentally assigned to separate groups by circumstances of life.

A. Experimental
B. Natural experiment
C. Quasi-experiment
D. Case study

A

C. Quasi-experiment

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43
Q

Pleasure principle, impulsive, irrational, selfish, seeks immediate gratification.

A. Superego
B. Motivation
C. Ego
D. Id

A

D. Id

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44
Q

Reality principle, rational, finds realistic ways to gratify instincts.

A. Superego
B. Motivation
C. Ego
D. Id

A

C. Ego

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45
Q

Data are collected on successive cross-sectional or longitudinal samples.

A. Cross-sectional
B. Personal development
C. Sequential
D. Longitudinal

A

C. Sequential

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46
Q

May be obsessively clean, rigidly tied to schedules and routines.

A. Genital fixation
B. Latency fixation
C. Oral fixation
D. Anal fixation

A

D. Anal fixation

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47
Q

Attribute unwanted impulses and felings to someone else.

A. Projection
B. Sublimation
C. Reaction-formation
D. Displacement

A

A. Projection

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48
Q

Expression of unwanted feeling or mere thought is redirected from more threatening, powerful person to a weaker one.

A. Displacement
B. Regression
C. Sublimation
D. Reaction-formation

A

A. Displacement

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49
Q

How children handle new information in light of what they already know.

A. Assimilation
B. Adaptation
C. Equilibration
D. Accommodation

A

B. Adaptation

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50
Q

Infant learns to reproduce events originally discovered by chance.

A. Schemes
B. Assimilation
C. Circular reactions
D. Organization

A

C. Circular reactions

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51
Q

Coordinate previously learned schemes and are previously learned behaviors to attain their goals.

A. Primary circular reactions
B. Secondary circular reactions
C. Coordination of secondary schemes
D. Tertiary circular reactions

A

C. Coordination of secondary schemes

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52
Q

Purposely vary their actions to see results.

A. Primary circular reactions
B. Secondary circular reactions
C. Coordination of secondary schemes
D. Tertiary circular reactions

A

D. Tertiary circular reactions

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53
Q

The concept that people and many things remain even if they change in outward form, size, or appearance.

A. Animism
B. Identities
C. Centration
D. Theory of mind

A

B. Identities

54
Q

Start with a general statement about a class and applies it to particular members of the class.

A. Inductive reasoning
B. Deductive reasoning
C. Transduction
D. Introduction

A

B. Deductive reasoning

55
Q

Decision making is influenced by two cognitive systems: verbatim analytical and gist-intuitional which operate in parallel.

A. Fuzzy-trace theory dual-process model
B. Hypothetical-deductive reasoning
C. Personal fable
D. Imaginary audience

A

A. Fuzzy-trace theory dual-process model

56
Q

People consider the effect of their actions not only on other people but on the universe as a whole.

A. Cause and effect
B. Personal fable
C. Cosmic style
D. Imaginary audience

A

C. Cosmic style

57
Q

Linkages between home and school or between family or peer groups.

A. Mesosystem
B. Microsystem
C. Macrosystem
D. Exosystem

A

A. Mesosystem

58
Q

Family composition, place of residence or parent’s employment.

A. Mesosystem
B. Microsystem
C. Macrosystem
D. Exosystem

A

D. Exosystem

59
Q

Supportive assistance with a task that parents, teachers, or other gives a child.

A. Normal help
B. Guidance
C. Scaffolding
D. Zone of proximal development

A

C. Scaffolding

60
Q

Designed to assess attachment pattern between infants and caregiver.

A. Separation Anxiety Test
B. Strange situation
C. Visual cliff
D. Cry experiment

A

B. Strange situation

61
Q

Ability of both infant and caregiver to respond appropriately and sensitively to each other’s mental and emotionnal states.

A. Separation protest
B. Mutual regulation
C. Social referencing
D. Strange test

A

B. Mutual regulation

62
Q

Child develops sense of self, separated from the mother.

A. Separation-individuation
B. Normal symbiotic phase
C. Separation
D. Symbiotism

A

A. Separation-individuation

63
Q

No commitment and no crisis.

A. Identity diffusion
B. Moratorium
C. Foreclosure
D. Identity achievement

A

A. Identity diffusion

64
Q

With crisis but no commitment.

A. Identity diffusion
B. Moratorium
C. Foreclosure
D. Identity achievement

A

B. Moratorium

65
Q

Observed behavior as a predictable response to experience.

A. Classical conditioning
B. Behaviorism
C. Operant conditioning
D. Reinforcement

A

B. Behaviorism

66
Q

Behavior returns to its original level when response is no longer reinforced.

A. Punishment
B. Social learning theory
C. Extinguished
D. Behaviorism

A

C. Extinguished

67
Q

Extra copy of chromosome 21.

A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Fragile X
C. Turner syndrome
D. Trisomy

A

D. Trisomy

68
Q

Extra X chromosome.

A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Fragile X
C. Turner syndrome
D. Trisomy 21

A

A. Klinefelter syndrome

69
Q

Limit body oxygen supply

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Spina bifida
C. Hemophilia
D. Asthma

A

A. Sickle-cell anemia

70
Q

Incompletely closed spinal canal.

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Spina bifida
C. Hemophilia
D. Asthma

A

B. Spina bifida

71
Q

Accumulation of lipids in the nervous system.

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Diabetes
C. Tay-sachs disease
D. Anencephaly

A

C. Tay-sachs disease

72
Q

Severe anemia.

A. Aplha thalassemia
B. Beta thalassemia
C. Alpha antitrypsin deficiency
D. Polycystic kidney disease

A

B. Beta thalassemia

73
Q

Less than 3 pounds 4 ounces during birth.

A. Low birth weight infants
B. Small for date infants
C. Very low birth weight
D. Extremely low birth weight

A

C. Very low birth weight

74
Q

Weigh less than 5 pounds and 8 ounces at birth.

A. Low birth weight infants
B. Small for date infants
C. Very low birth weight
D. Extremely low birth weight

A

A. Low birth weight infants

75
Q

Involves skin-to-skin contact in which the baby wearing only diapers and is held upright against the parent’s bare chest to help stabilize preterm’s heartbeat, temp, and breathing.

A. Cuddle
B. Hug
C. Kangaroo care
D. Koala cuddle

A

C. Kangaroo care

76
Q

Miscarriage occured after 20 weeks of gestation.

A. Stillbirth
B. Critical period
C. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
D. Postmature

A

A. Stillbirth

77
Q

Used to relieve morning sickness.

A. Cocaine
B. Alcohol
C. Coffee
D. Thalidomide

A

D. Thalidomide

78
Q

Causes spontaneous abortion and premature detachment of placenta.

A. Cocaine
B. Alcohol
C. Coffee
D. Thalidomide

A

A. Cocaine

79
Q

Caused by parasite in the bodies of cattle, sheep, pigs, and intestine tract of cats that causes brain damage, impaired eyesight, seizure, and miscarriage.

A. SIDS
B. Neonate abstinence syndrome
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Fecesmosis

A

C. Toxoplasmosis

80
Q

Perfectionism, rule follower, anal, constrained.

A. Maladaptive tendency:impulsiveness
B. Malignant tendency:compulsiveness
C. Malignant tendency:withdrawal
D. Significant person

A

B. Malignant tendency:compulsiveness

81
Q

Shameless, willfulness that leads jump into things without proper consideration reckless, and inconsiderate.

A. Maladaptive tendency:impulsiveness
B. Malignant tendency:compulsiveness
C. Malignant tendency:withdrawal
D. Significant person

A

A. Maladaptive tendency:impulsiveness

82
Q

Early indication of the ability to understand other’s mental states and their own.

A. Pretend play
B. Socialization
C. Self-concept
D. Playing

A

A. Pretend play

83
Q

Eager willingness to cooperate harmoniously with a parent, not only in disciplinary actions but in variety of daily interactions.

A. Committeed compliance
B. Situational compliance
C. Conscience compliance
D. Receptive cooperation

A

D. Receptive cooperation

84
Q

Their crisis is initiative versus guilt.

A. School age
B. Early childhood
C. Play age
D. Infancy

A

C. Play age

85
Q

The realization that girl remains a girl even if she has a short haircut and plays with trucks that is between ages 3 and 7.

A. Gender typing
B. Gener consistency
C. Gender stability
D. Gender identity

A

B. Gener consistency

86
Q

Voluntary control of emotions, attention, and behavior tend to become more empathetic and inclined to prosocial behaviors.

A. Internalizing behaviors
B. Coregulations
C. Gender stereotypes
D. Emotional self-regulation

A

D. Emotional self-regulation

87
Q

Unfavorable attitudes towards outsiders. Children can be negatively affected by discrimination.

A. Judgement
B. Prejudice
C. Corregulation
D. Negative feelings

A

B. Prejudice

88
Q

Infrequently nominated as bestieut not really disliked.

A. Popular children
B. Average children
C. Neglected children
D. Controversial children

A

C. Neglected children

89
Q

Frequently norminated both bestie and most disliked.

A. Popular children
B. Average children
C. Neglected children
D. Controversial children

A

D. Controversial children

90
Q

Aimed at achieving an objective. Proactive and view force and coercion as effective ways to get what they want.

A. Instrumental aggression
B. Hostile aggression
C. Hostile attributional bias
D. Attributional aggression

A

A. Instrumental aggression

91
Q

Sustained loyalty, faith, or a sense of belonging to a loved one, friends, or companions.

A. Commitment
B. Crisis
C. Fidelity
D. Identity

A

C. Fidelity

92
Q

People who seek medical assistance to permanently transition to their preffered gender.

A. Transgender
B. Juvenile deliquency
C. Transsexual
D. SRS

A

C. Transsexual

93
Q

Type of attachment style that is resistant about getting involved in romatic relationship and once they do, they distance themselves to their partners.

A. Anxious
B. Avoidant
C. Secure
D. Choosy

A

B. Avoidant

94
Q

Freedom emotional stages of retirement wherein one is enjoying newfound freedom and retirement.

A. Honeymoon phase
B. Pre-retirement
C. Disenchantment phase
D. Retirement

A

A. Honeymoon phase

95
Q

Changes in personality occurs during middle forties.

A. Turning point
B. Midlife crisis
C. Midlife review
D. Identity processing

A

B. Midlife crisis

96
Q

Views the development of self as a continuous process of constructing one’s life story.

A. Developmental psychology
B. Narrative psychology
C. Behavioral psychology
D. Evolutionary psychology

A

B. Narrative psychology

97
Q

Occurs when the youngest child leaves home.

A. Despidida
B. Thanksgiving party
C. Empty nest
D. Emptiness syndrome

A

C. Empty nest

98
Q

Adults learn to balance love and duty to their parents with autonomy in a two-way relationship.

A. Sandwich generation
B. Respite care
C. Kinship care
D. Filial crisis

A

D. Filial crisis

99
Q

Giving caregivers some time off.

A. Caregiver burnout
B. Respite care
C. Kinship care
D. Sandwich break

A

B. Respite care

100
Q

Involves withholding or discontinuing treatment that might extend the life of a terminally ill patient.

A. Active euthanasia
B. Passive euthanasia
C. Suicide
D. Assisted suicide

A

B. Passive euthanasia

101
Q

Resemble revolutionary movements that do not appear until moths after the reflexes have disappeared.

A. Reflex behavior
B. Postural reflexes
C. Primitive reflexes
D. Locomotor reflexes

A

D. Locomotor reflexes

102
Q

Early human reflex wherein mouth open, eyes closes, neck flexes. and head titles forward.

A. Babkin
B. Walking
C. Babinski
D. Tonic neck

A

A. Babkin

103
Q

In what month can a baby keep their heads erect while being held or supported in a sitting position.

A. 4th month
B. 3rd month
C. 6th month
D.1st month

A

A. 4th month

104
Q

Developmental test designed to assess children from 1 month to 3 and 1/2.

A. Observation
B. Bayley scales of infant and toddler development
C. Newborn screening
D. Apgar scale

A

B. Bayley scales of infant and toddler development

105
Q

Repeating pleasurable behaviors that first occur by chance. Begin to coordinate sensory information and grasp objects.

A. Secondary circular reactions
B. Primary circular reactions
C. Tertiary circular reactions
D. Mental combinations

A

B. Primary circular reactions

106
Q

The realization that something continues to exist when ouot of sight.

A. Dual representation hypothesis
B. Deferred imitation
C. Object permanence
D. Dishabituation

A

C. Object permanence

107
Q

Tendency to spend more time looking at one sight rather than another.

A. Visual preference
B. Dishabituation
C. Visual recognition memory
D. Habituation

A

A. Visual preference

108
Q

Words that the child uses or expresses.

A. Receptive vocabulary
B. Overextension
C. Spoken vocabulary
D. Telegraphic speech

A

C. Spoken vocabulary

109
Q

Sudden long, initial loud cry followed by breath holding.

A. Basic cry
B. Pain cry
C. Basic hunger cry
D. Frustration cry

A

B. Pain cry

110
Q

Higher pitch and a more monotonic vocalization is associated with autonomic system activity during stressful procedure.

A. Basic cry
B. Basic hunger cry
C. Frustration cry
D. Pain cry

A

C. Frustration cry

111
Q

Infants smile at an object then gaze at an adult while continuing to smile.

A. Social smile
B. Anticipatory smile
C. Reflexive smile
D. Basic smile

A

B. Anticipatory smile

112
Q

A concept involves the rules for putting together sentences in a particular language.

A. Syntax
B. Pragmatics
C. Fast mapping
D. Vocabulary

A

A. Syntax

113
Q

Manage emotions by refusing to think about an issue or reframing the event in the positive light.

A. Problem-focused coping
B. Premenstrual syndrome
C. Solution-focused coping
D. Emotion-focused coping

A

D. Emotion-focused coping

114
Q

Characterized by the ability to deal with inconsistency, contradictions, and compromise.

A. Reflexive thinking
B. Postformal thought
C. Spillover
D. Informal thought

A

B. Postformal thought

115
Q

Focused on the purpose of what they do and concentrate on tasks that have most meaning for them.

A. Reintegrative stage
B. Legacy-creating stage
C. Executive stage
D. Responsible stage

A

A. Reintegrative stage

116
Q

Treated as family members despite a lack of blood relationship.

A. Siblings
B. Neighborhood
C. Girlfriend/boyfriend
D. Fictive kin

A

D. Fictive kin

117
Q

Motivational element that is based on inner drives that translate physiological arousal into sexual desire.

A. Love
B. Intimacy
C. Passion
D. Commitment

A

C. Passion

118
Q

Intimacy and commitment are present.

A. Infatuation
B. Fatous love
C. Consummate love
D. Companionate love

A

D. Companionate love

119
Q

Ability to remember and use information acquired over a lifetime such as academics.

A. Crystallized intelligence
B. Fluid intelligence
C. Specialized knowledge
D. Expertise

A

A. Crystallized intelligence

120
Q

Relationship of friend blended with physical intimacy but little commitment.

A. Cohabituation
B. Close friend
C. MU
D. Friends with benefits

A

D. Friends with benefits

121
Q

Switching to another company or new line of work.

A. Bridge employment
B. Phased retirement
C. Literacy
D. Change role

A

A. Bridge employment

122
Q

Difficulty focusing on new objects.

A. Presbyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbycusis
D. Basal metabolism

A

A. Presbyopia

123
Q

Beginning of menopause.

A. Hot flashes
B. Perimenopause
C. Premenopause
D. Before menopausal

A

B. Perimenopause

124
Q

Often involving a sense of being out of the body or sucked into a tunnel and visions of bright light or anytical encounters.

A. Terminal drop
B. Terminal decline
C. Near death experience
D. Loss of breath

A

C. Near death experience

125
Q

Distressed for a long time.

A. Depression
B. Chronic grief
C. Delayed grief
D. Stress

A

B. Chronic grief

126
Q

Type of suicide that result of marked disruption such as sudden loss of job.

A. Anomic
B. Egoistic
C. Altruistic
D. Fatalistic

A

A. Anomic

127
Q

Viewing problems and solutions in rigid terms.

A. Hopelessness
B. Advance directive
C. Faiure to decide
D. Dichotomous thinking

A

D. Dichotomous thinking

128
Q

The person survives from attempts.

A. Suicidal ideation
B. Suicidal attempts
C. Subintentional death
D. Death ignorers

A

B. Suicidal attempts

129
Q

Clearly intent to end their lives at the time they attempt.

A. Death ignorers
B. Death initiators
C. Death seekers
D. Death darers

A

C. Death seekers

130
Q

Diagnostic x-ray of the breasts.

A. 2d echo
B. Mammography
C. MRI
D. Ultrasound

A

B. Mammography

131
Q

Inability to conceive a baby.

A. Fertile
B. Infertile
C. Infertilement
D. Infertilitarian

A

B. Infertile

drills (29 decks)

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