P3 Chapter 29 DEVELOPMENT & INHERITANCE

Question 1

Which one represents the blastocyst stage?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

Answer 1

e) E

Question 2

Where is the amniotic cavity?

a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A

Answer 2

a) E

Question 3

Which of the following are major potential teratogens that affect embryonic development?

a) Alcohol
b) Cigarette smoke
c) Various prescription drugs
d) Irradiation
e) All of these

Answer 3

e) All of these

Question 4

In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives polydactyly. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?

a) Normal vision
b) Brachydactyly
c) Normal digits
d) Syndactylism
e) Straight thumb

Answer 4

c) Normal digits

Question 5

A mother with blood type B and a father with blood type A have four children. One child is type AB, one is A, one is B, and one is type O. Which of the following represents the genotypes of the parents?

a. IAi x IB

i b. IAIA x IBi

c. IAi x IBIB
d. IAIA x IBi

Answer 5

a. IAi x IBi

Question 6

An embryo develops into a normal baby girl because it

a. is exposed to very high levels of estrogen during development
b. received two X chromosomes from its mother
c. has two copies of the SRY gene
d. lacks the SRY gene

Answer 6

d. lacks the SRY gene

Question 7

Which condition listed gives rise to sterile females with virtually no ovaries and limited development of secondary sex characteristics?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 7

c) Turner’s syndrome

Question 8

Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.

Answer 8

The primary germ layers are the endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm. The endoderm ultimately develops into tissues such as epithelial linings and associated glands in the respiratory, digestive and reproductive systems. The mesoderm becomes connective tissues, muscle tissues and the dermis. The ectoderm yields the epidermis, the nervous system and some additional epithelial membranes.

Question 9

Functional changes that sperm undergo in the female reproductive tract which allow them to fertilize a secondary oocyte are termed

a. syngamy
b. fertilization
c. capacitation
d. implantation

Answer 9

c. capacitation

Question 10

Implantation is the process where the

a. egg is fertilized by the sperm
b. sperm is deposited in the vagina
c. blastocyst attaches to and enters the endometrium
d. cervix becomes plugged with mucus to prevent the entry of more sperm

Answer 10

c. blastocyst attaches to and enters the endometrium

Question 11

If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what blood type is possible for their child?

a) AB
b) A
c) B
d) O
e) All of these choices

Answer 11

e) All of these choices

Question 12

Which of the following is NOT a change that occurs after birth, as a fetus becomes a newborn baby?

a. the lungs fill with air for the first time
b. the umbilibcal arteries fill with connective tissue
c. the ductus arteriosus provides a connection to the inferior vena caca
d. foramen ovlae closed and becomes the fossa ovalis

Answer 12

c. the ductus arteriosus provides a connection to the inferior vena caca

Question 13

In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives normal skin pigmentation. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?

a) Normal vision
b) Albinism
c) Normal nervous system
d) Polydactyly
e) Cystic fibrosis

Answer 13

b) Albinism

Question 14

Which condition listed is one of the most common causes of mental retardation and the most common preventable cause of birth defects in the United States?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Metafemale syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 14

d) Fetal alcohol syndrome

Question 15

What stage happens 3–4 days after fertilization?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

Answer 15

c) C

Question 16

Which condition listed gives rise to individuals that are: somewhat mentally disadvantaged, sterile males with undeveloped testes, scant body hair, and enlarged breasts?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 16

e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Question 17

Amniocentesis can produce results that indicate

a. successful implantation
b. the beginning of a normal pregnancy
c. the presence of certain genetic disorders such as Down syndrome
d. the onset of labor

Answer 17

c. the presence of certain genetic disorders such as Down syndrome

Question 18

Which cells are derived from the yolk sac and form a connective tissue layer?

a) A
b) B
c) E
d) F
e) G

Answer 18

b) B

Question 19

The gene for red-green colorblindness is represented by the symbol ‘c’. The normal allele is represented by ‘C’. An individual with the genotype XC Xc would be

a a. color-blind female

b. normal carrier female
c. normal male
d. color-blind male

Answer 19

b. normal carrier female

Question 20

At the end of the first month of gestation

a. the fetus has fully formed head with properly located eyes and ears
b. subcutaneous fat is lost and lanugo increases in density
c. ossification is complete, blood formation ends
d. arm and leg buds form, heart begins to beat

Answer 20

d. arm and leg buds form, heart begins to beat

Question 21

At the end of a full-term of pregnancy, the top of the uterus reaches

a. the top of the pelvic rim
b. the level of the umbilicus (navel)
c. the lower surface of the stomach
d. nearly to the xyphoid process of the sternum

Answer 21

d. nearly to the xyphoid process of the sternum

Question 22

In Klinefelter’s syndrome

a. females are lacking one X chromosome
b. males have an extra X chromosome
c. the extra chromosome 21 results in mental retardation
d. females are characterized by short stature and webbed neck

Answer 22

b. males have an extra X chromosome

Question 23

Chromosome #15 is considered

a) A sex chromosome
b) An autosome
c) The SRY chromosome
d) A linked gene
e) A transposon

Answer 23

b) An autosome

Question 24

What exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities?

a) Sonogram
b) Amniocentesis
c) CVS
d) AFP test
e) CBC

Answer 24

b) Amniocentesis

Question 25

Involution is

a) When the placenta is expelled
b) When the umbilical cord is cut
c) When the uterus decreases in size
d) When the cervix dilates
e) None of these choices

Answer 25

c) When the uterus decreases in size

Question 26

Sickle-cell disease is an example of

a. a dominant-recessive trait
b. sex-linked inheritance
c. incomplete dominance
d. multiple allele inheritance

Answer 26

c. incomplete dominance

Question 27

What connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava in infants?

a) Ductus venosus
b) Ductus arteriosus
c) Anteriosum
d) Patent ductus arteriosus
e) Superior vena cava

Answer 27

a) Ductus venosus

Question 28

An example of incomplete dominance is

a) ABO blood groups
b) Sickle-cell disease
c) Angelman Syndrome
d) Prader-Willi Syndrome
e) PKU

Answer 28

b) Sickle-cell disease

Question 29

At about 14 days of development the embryonic disc, yolk sac, and amniotic cavity are surrounded by the,

a. umbilical cord
b. extraembryonic coelom
c. inner cell mass
d. uterine cavity

Answer 29

b. extraembryonic coelom

Question 30

Which condition listed is a malpresentation in which the fetal buttocks or lower limbs present into the maternal pelvis?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 30

d) breech presentation

Question 31

Which of the following is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix?

a) Stage of dilation
b) Stage of expulsion
c) Placental stage
d) Gestation
e) Effacement

Answer 31

a) Stage of dilation

Question 32

When are the three primary germ layers established during pregnancy?

a) First week of development
b) Second week of development
c) Third week of development
d) Fourth week of development
e) Second month of development

Answer 32

c) Third week of development

Question 33

If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the possible genotype of the father?

a) B
b) O
c) AB
d) B or O
e) B, O or AB

Answer 33

e) B, O or AB

Question 34

Red-green color blindness is a recessive, X-linked trait represented as X^c. (Normal color vision is represented as X^C.) If a daughter has red-green color blindness, what must the genotypes of her parents be?

Answer 34

The daughter can only have red-green color blindness if she received two copies of X^c chromosomes. Since her father only has one X chromosome, his genotype must be X^cY. The other X^c chromosome had to come from her mother. If her mother has normal color vision, the mother’s genotype is X^CX^c. However, if the mother is also color blind, the mother’s genotype must be X^cX^c.

Question 35

Which of the following is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract?

a) Acrosomal reaction
b) Maturation
c) Fertilization
d) Capacitation
e) Polyspermy

Answer 35

d) Capacitation

Question 36

CVS is taking cells from where?

a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Placenta
d) Umbilical cord
e) Uterus

Answer 36

b) Chorion

Question 37

This is composed of the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

Answer 37

c) C

Question 38

Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy characterized by at least 3 X chromosomes (XXX)?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Metafemale syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Lethal gene
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 38

b) Metafemale syndrome

Question 39

During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
e) 50%

Answer 39

c) 30%

Question 40

The developing embryo is surrounded by and bathed in

a. amniotic fluid
b. chorionic fluid
c. fluid in the yolk sac
d. plasma from the mother

Answer 40

a. amniotic fluid

Question 41

Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?

a) Ovary
b) Fallopian tube
c) Ovarian ligament
d) Body of uterus
e) Vagina

Answer 41

b) Fallopian tube

Question 42

Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis

Answer 42

The position of the fetus and placenta is identified via ultrasound and palpation, and the skin is prepared with antiseptic and local anesthetic. A hypodermic needle is inserted through the abdominal wall and uterus to withdraw 10 mL of amniotic fluid from the amniotic cavity. The fluid and cells are examined and biochemically tested for abnormal proteins and chromosome abnormalities that may signal fetal problems and congenital defects.

Question 43

Which of the terms below describes the beginning or first discernable indication of the development of an organ or structure?

a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age

Answer 43

b) Primordium

Question 44

Implantation occurs _____ after fertilization

a. immediately
b. a few hours
c. a day
d. about 6 days

Answer 44

d. about 6 days

Question 45

How many alleles are present in humans that produce the phenotypes of the four blood types of the ABO blood groups?

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

Answer 45

c. three

Question 46

Clubfeet is an example of which condition listed?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 46

b) Deformation

Question 47

Which of the following structures is NOT produced from the mesoderm?

a) Melanocytes
b) All skeletal muscle
c) All cardiac muscle
d) Blood vessels
e) Lymphatic tissue

Answer 47

a) Melanocytes

Question 48

In the process of lactation

a. the posterior pituitary releases prolactin that initiates milk ejection
b. feeding inhibits the release of oxytocin, thus ensuring the continuation of lactation
c. the uterine smooth muscle returns to pre-pregnancy size more rapidly in nursing than non-nursing mothers
d. the estrogen and progesterone in colostrum stimulate growth of the newborn nervous system

Answer 48

c. the uterine smooth muscle returns to pre-pregnancy size more rapidly in nursing than non-nursing mothers

Question 49

The fusion of the male pronucleus and the female pronucleus results in which developmental stage?

a) Female pronucleus
b) Male pronucleus
c) Zygote
d) Blastomeres
e) Morula

Answer 49

c) Zygote

Question 50

After implantation

a. the morula becomes the blastocyst
b. the trophoblast develops into two layers
c. the embryoblast forms the cytotrophoblast
d. the syncytiotrophoblast is replaced by the blastocoele

Answer 50

b. the trophoblast develops into two layers

Question 51

Which of the following is an agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo?

a) Carcinogen
b) Toxin
c) Nicotine
d) Radiation
e) Teratogen

Answer 51

e) Teratogen

Question 52

Which condition listed is an infectious disease of childbirth resulting from an infection originating in the birth canal and affecting the mother’s endometrium?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Puerperal fever
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 52

b) Puerperal fever

Question 53

What does diagram “A” represent?

a) Cleavage of embryo
b) Cleavage of zygote
c) Cleavage of morula
d) Cleavage of blastocyst
e) Cleavage of fetus

Answer 53

b) Cleavage of zygote

Question 54

Fertilization in a laboratory dish and transfer of the developing embryo into the uterus is called

a. in vitro fertilization
b. embryo transfer
c. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
d. ectopic pregnancy

Answer 54

a. in vitro fertilization

Question 55

Which of the following is a breast-feeding benefit for infants?

a) Beneficial cells
b) Beneficial molecules
c) Decreased incidence of diseases later in life
d) Enhancement of intellectual and neurological development
e) All of these are breast-feeding benefits

Answer 55

e) All of these are breast-feeding benefits

Question 56

Which of the following will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus?

a) Chorionic villi of the placenta
b) Amnion
c) Amnionic fluid
d) Embryonic disc
e) Endoderm

Answer 56

a) Chorionic villi of the placenta

Question 57

What is line “G” pointing to?

a) Chorion
b) Chorionic villi
c) Sinusoid
d) Extraembryonic mesoderm
e) None of these choices

Answer 57

e) None of these choices

Question 58

Which of the following is the portion of the endometrium that lies between the embryo and the stratum basalis?

a) Decidua basalis
b) Decidua capsularis
c) Decidua parietalis
d) Lamina propria
e) Adventitia

Answer 58

a) Decidua basalis

Question 59

What is the term used to describe the age of an embryo or fetus calculated from the presumed first day of the last normal menstrual period?

a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Gestational age
e) Fertilization age

Answer 59

d) Gestational age

Question 60

Where are the fetal blood vessels?

a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G

Answer 60

c) E

Question 62

Which of the terms below describes the chromosomal characteristic of an individual presented as a systematic arrangement of pairs of metaphase chromosomes arranged by size?

a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age

Answer 62

d) Karyotype

Question 63

The placenta is fully developed and is functioning completely

a. during the embryonic period
b. shortly after implantation
c. by the end of the third month of development
d. when the fetal period begins

Answer 63

c. by the end of the third month of development

Question 64

In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives Huntington’s disease. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?

a) Normal vision
b) Normal digits
c) Normal nervous system
d) Polydactyly
e) Straight thumb

Answer 64

c) Normal nervous system

Question 65

Which hormone causes release of milk into the mammary ducts via the milk ejection reflex?

a) Prolactin
b) Oxytocin
c) Estrogen
d) Progesterone
e) Aldosterone

Answer 65

b) Oxytocin

Question 66

Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition

Answer 66

Fetal CRH secretion increases, which causes estrogen to rise as fetal ACTH triggers an increase in cortisol and DHEA. Placenta converts DHEA to estrogen. In turn, estrogen increases oxytocin receptors on uterine smooth muscle fibers and makes them form gap junctions. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction, and relaxin dilates the cervix and loosens the pubic symphysis. Estrogen also increases prostaglandins to digest collagen in the cervix. Oxytocin, cervix, and the hypothalamus maintain a positive feedback loop to maintain labor.

Question 67

The phenotype of an individual refers to the

a. genetic makeup of the chromosomes
b. type of mutations that are present
c. the type of dominant and recessive genes
d. physical or outward expression of a gene

Answer 67

d. physical or outward expression of a gene

Question 68

Which of the terms below describes the development of an organism from an undifferentiated cell?

a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age

Answer 68

c) Epigenesis

Question 69

How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6

Answer 69

d) 5

Question 70

If a man with hemophilia marries a woman who does not carry the hemophilia gene, which of the following concerning their children is probable?

a. All of the sons will be carriers
b. All of the sons will have hemophilia
c. All of the daughters will be carriers
d. One half of the sons will have hemophilia and one half will be carriers

Answer 70

c. All of the daughters will be carriers

Question 71

What stage happens 6 days after fertilization?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

Answer 71

e) E

Question 72

Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.

Answer 72

Genotype is the actual DNA sequence or genetic makeup of an individual. Teratogens (agents that cause mutations) might damage the DNA and change the genotype. For instance, the DNA in an embryo exposed to ionizing radiation might be damaged, resulting in genes that malfunction. Phenotype is the physical expression of the genes. Height, hair color, and even enzyme activity are phenotypes. If the genotype is changed by the environment, the phenotype may also be changed. A single base change in DNA is responsible for the sickle cell phenotype. Phenotype is dependent on the environment in a variety of ways. One example is that a child might have the genotype “tall”. If the child doesn’t receive adequate nutrition, though, he still might not be as tall as his genes would ordinarily allow.

Question 73

Which condition listed is also called morning sickness?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 73

a) Emesis gravidarum

Question 74

Each somite may differentiate into a

a) Sertoli cell
b) Dermatome
c) Ovary
d) Myogenic cells
e) Ductus deferens

Answer 74

b) Dermatome

Question 75

Which of the following is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts?

a) Prolactin
b) PIH
c) PRH
d) Oxytocin
e) GnRH

Answer 75

d) Oxytocin

Question 76

After implantation, the only tissue of the developing embryo to come in direct contact with maternal tissue is the

a. zona pellucida
b. embryoblast
c. blastocoele
d. trophoblast

Answer 76

d. trophoblast

Question 77

Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy, caused by the presence of a single X chromosome designated XO?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 77

c) Turner’s syndrome

Question 78

Which of the following is a noninvasive prenatal test?

a) AFP
b) CVS
c) Amniocentesis
d) All of these
e) None of these

Answer 78

a) AFP

Question 79

Which condition listed is a developmental abnormality due to mechanical forces that mold a part of the fetus over a prolonged period of time?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 79

b) Deformation

Question 80

Labor cannot take place until all of which hormone’s effects are diminished?

a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Testosterone
d) Relaxin
e) Inhibin

Answer 80

b) Progesterone

Question 81

Which of the following develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid?

a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Yolk sac
c) Exocoelomic membrane
d) Amnion
e) Lacunae

Answer 81

d) Amnion

Question 82

Which of the following structures is(are) produced from the endoderm?

a) Adrenal cortex
b) Gonads
c) Epithelium of the oral cavity
d) Epithelial lining of the pharynx
e) Arachnoid mater

Answer 82

d) Epithelial lining of the pharynx

Question 83

Which of the following is a function of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone?

a) Maintain endometrium of uterus during pregnancy
b) Help prepare mammary glands for lactation
c) Establish the timing of birth
d) Increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis
e) All of these are functions of CRH

Answer 83

c) Establish the timing of birth

Question 85

In normal development of the male fetus, it assumes its upside-down position and the testes start to descend into the scrotal sac during the

a. third month
b. fifth month
c. seventh month
d. ninth month

Answer 85

c. seventh month

Question 86

if a couple are both heterozygous for the gene that causes phenylketonuria, the probability that their first child will have PKU is

a. 25 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 100 percent

Answer 86

a. 25 percent

Question 87

The embryonic portion of the placenta develops from the

a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. chorion
d. allantois

Answer 87

c. chorion

Question 88

Hemophilia is an example of

a. a dominant-recessive trait
b. sex-linked inheritance
c. incomplete dominance
d. multiple allele inheritance

Answer 88

b. sex-linked inheritance

Question 89

Early pregnancy tests depend on the detection of _____ in the urine

a. estrogen
b. human chorionic gonadotropin
c. chorionic progesterone
d. follicle stimulating hormone

Answer 89

b. human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 90

A Barr body

a) Is an inactivated X chromosome
b) Cannot be stained
c) Are transcribed and translated
d) Is seen in males
e) Is only found in humans

Answer 90

a) Is an inactivated X chromosome

Question 91

if pregnancy continues for two weeks beyond the due date, there is a chance of brain damage to the fetus because of

a. breakdown of fetal red blood cells
b. an aging placenta
c. overstretching of the uterus
d. disintegration of the umbilical cord

Answer 91

b. an aging placenta

Question 92

What is line “G” pointing to?

a) Chorionic villi
b) Amnion
c) Umbilical vein
d) Umbilical artery
e) Amnionic capillary bed

Answer 92

a) Chorionic villi

Question 93

Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy, usually due to trisomy XXY?

a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer 93

e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Question 94

Which one represents the morula stage?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

Answer 94

c) C

Question 95

Which of the following is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG?

a) Blastocyte
b) Blastosphere
c) Trophoblast
d) Blastocyst cavity
e) Uterine cavity

Answer 95

c) Trophoblast

Question 96

Which structure was formerly called the blastocyst cavity?

a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G

Answer 96

d) F

Question 97

Which of the following structures is(are) produced from the endoderm?

a) Cartilage
b) Dermis of the skin
c) Kidneys and ureters
d) Internal and external ear
e) Gametes

Answer 97

e) Gametes

Question 98

Which of the terms below includes all structures that develop from a zygote: the embryo, the embryonic placenta and its associated membranes?

a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Gestational age
e) Karyotype

Answer 98

a) Conceptus

Question 99

An autosomal aneuploidy resulting from nondisjunction is

a. color blindness
b. fragile X syndrome
c. Down syndrome
d. phenylketonuria

Answer 99

c. Down syndrome

Question 100

What is line “F” pointing to?

a) Umbilical arteries
b) Umbilical vein
c) Fetal blood vessels
d) Maternal endometrial arteriole
e) Chorionic villi

Answer 100

d) Maternal endometrial arteriole

Question 101

Which of the following is a permanent change in an allele?

a) Mutation
b) Phenotype
c) Genotype
d) Dominant
e) Recessive

Answer 101

a) Mutation

Question 102

Chorionic villi sampling (CVS) has an advantage over amniocentesis because CVS

a. involves removal of fluid only
b. never has any negative side effects
c. yields test results in a few days
d. can be performed during the second week of pregnancy

Answer 102

c. yields test results in a few days

Question 103

When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin it is called:

a) Mutation
b) Translocation
c) Genomic imprinting
d) Incomplete dominance
e) Codominance

Answer 103

c) Genomic imprinting

Question 104

Which of the following is the connection between the placenta and the embryo?

a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Umbilical cord
d) Placenta
e) Capillary beds

Answer 104

c) Umbilical cord

Question 105

The intervillous spaces of the placenta

a. are derived from the chorion
b. contain maternal blood
c. are rich in hCG and HCS
d. enlarge under the influence of relaxin

Answer 105

b. contain maternal blood

Question 106

What is line “A” pointing to?

a) Endometrial gland
b) Trophoblast
c) Embryoblast
d) Blastocyst
e) Dermatome

Answer 106

b) Trophoblast

Question 107

A hormone called _____, released from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates the production of milk by the mammary glands

a. relaxin
b. oxytocin
c. prolactin
d. luteinizing hormone

Answer 107

c. prolactin

Question 108

Which hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus?

a) GnRH
b) hCG
c) CRH
d) AFP
e) ATP

Answer 108

c) CRH

Question 109

In the umbilical cord, there are

a. two arteries that carry oxygenated blood and one vein that carries deoxygenated blood
b. one artery that carries oxygenated blood and one vein that carries deoxygenated blood
c. one artery that carries deoxygenated blood and two veins that carries deoxygenated blood
d. two arteries that carry deoxygenated blood and one vein that carries oxygenated blood

Answer 109

d. two arteries that carry deoxygenated blood and one vein that carries oxygenated blood