P3 Chapter 29 DEVELOPMENT & INHERITANCE Flashcards
Which one represents the blastocyst stage?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
e) E
Where is the amniotic cavity?
a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A
a) E
Which of the following are major potential teratogens that affect embryonic development?
a) Alcohol
b) Cigarette smoke
c) Various prescription drugs
d) Irradiation
e) All of these
e) All of these
In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives polydactyly. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?
a) Normal vision
b) Brachydactyly
c) Normal digits
d) Syndactylism
e) Straight thumb
c) Normal digits
A mother with blood type B and a father with blood type A have four children. One child is type AB, one is A, one is B, and one is type O. Which of the following represents the genotypes of the parents?
a. IAi x IB
i b. IAIA x IBi
c. IAi x IBIB
d. IAIA x IBi
a. IAi x IBi
An embryo develops into a normal baby girl because it
a. is exposed to very high levels of estrogen during development
b. received two X chromosomes from its mother
c. has two copies of the SRY gene
d. lacks the SRY gene
d. lacks the SRY gene
Which condition listed gives rise to sterile females with virtually no ovaries and limited development of secondary sex characteristics?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
The primary germ layers are the endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm. The endoderm ultimately develops into tissues such as epithelial linings and associated glands in the respiratory, digestive and reproductive systems. The mesoderm becomes connective tissues, muscle tissues and the dermis. The ectoderm yields the epidermis, the nervous system and some additional epithelial membranes.
Functional changes that sperm undergo in the female reproductive tract which allow them to fertilize a secondary oocyte are termed
a. syngamy
b. fertilization
c. capacitation
d. implantation
c. capacitation
Implantation is the process where the
a. egg is fertilized by the sperm
b. sperm is deposited in the vagina
c. blastocyst attaches to and enters the endometrium
d. cervix becomes plugged with mucus to prevent the entry of more sperm
c. blastocyst attaches to and enters the endometrium
If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what blood type is possible for their child?
a) AB
b) A
c) B
d) O
e) All of these choices
e) All of these choices
Which of the following is NOT a change that occurs after birth, as a fetus becomes a newborn baby?
a. the lungs fill with air for the first time
b. the umbilibcal arteries fill with connective tissue
c. the ductus arteriosus provides a connection to the inferior vena caca
d. foramen ovlae closed and becomes the fossa ovalis
c. the ductus arteriosus provides a connection to the inferior vena caca
In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives normal skin pigmentation. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?
a) Normal vision
b) Albinism
c) Normal nervous system
d) Polydactyly
e) Cystic fibrosis
b) Albinism
Which condition listed is one of the most common causes of mental retardation and the most common preventable cause of birth defects in the United States?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Metafemale syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
What stage happens 3–4 days after fertilization?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
c) C
Which condition listed gives rise to individuals that are: somewhat mentally disadvantaged, sterile males with undeveloped testes, scant body hair, and enlarged breasts?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Amniocentesis can produce results that indicate
a. successful implantation
b. the beginning of a normal pregnancy
c. the presence of certain genetic disorders such as Down syndrome
d. the onset of labor
c. the presence of certain genetic disorders such as Down syndrome
Which cells are derived from the yolk sac and form a connective tissue layer?
a) A
b) B
c) E
d) F
e) G
b) B
The gene for red-green colorblindness is represented by the symbol ‘c’. The normal allele is represented by ‘C’. An individual with the genotype XC Xc would be
a a. color-blind female
b. normal carrier female
c. normal male
d. color-blind male
b. normal carrier female
At the end of the first month of gestation
a. the fetus has fully formed head with properly located eyes and ears
b. subcutaneous fat is lost and lanugo increases in density
c. ossification is complete, blood formation ends
d. arm and leg buds form, heart begins to beat
d. arm and leg buds form, heart begins to beat
At the end of a full-term of pregnancy, the top of the uterus reaches
a. the top of the pelvic rim
b. the level of the umbilicus (navel)
c. the lower surface of the stomach
d. nearly to the xyphoid process of the sternum
d. nearly to the xyphoid process of the sternum
In Klinefelter’s syndrome
a. females are lacking one X chromosome
b. males have an extra X chromosome
c. the extra chromosome 21 results in mental retardation
d. females are characterized by short stature and webbed neck
b. males have an extra X chromosome
Chromosome #15 is considered
a) A sex chromosome
b) An autosome
c) The SRY chromosome
d) A linked gene
e) A transposon
b) An autosome
What exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities?
a) Sonogram
b) Amniocentesis
c) CVS
d) AFP test
e) CBC
b) Amniocentesis
Involution is
a) When the placenta is expelled
b) When the umbilical cord is cut
c) When the uterus decreases in size
d) When the cervix dilates
e) None of these choices
c) When the uterus decreases in size
Sickle-cell disease is an example of
a. a dominant-recessive trait
b. sex-linked inheritance
c. incomplete dominance
d. multiple allele inheritance
c. incomplete dominance
What connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava in infants?
a) Ductus venosus
b) Ductus arteriosus
c) Anteriosum
d) Patent ductus arteriosus
e) Superior vena cava
a) Ductus venosus
An example of incomplete dominance is
a) ABO blood groups
b) Sickle-cell disease
c) Angelman Syndrome
d) Prader-Willi Syndrome
e) PKU
b) Sickle-cell disease
At about 14 days of development the embryonic disc, yolk sac, and amniotic cavity are surrounded by the,
a. umbilical cord
b. extraembryonic coelom
c. inner cell mass
d. uterine cavity
b. extraembryonic coelom
Which condition listed is a malpresentation in which the fetal buttocks or lower limbs present into the maternal pelvis?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
d) breech presentation
Which of the following is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix?
a) Stage of dilation
b) Stage of expulsion
c) Placental stage
d) Gestation
e) Effacement
a) Stage of dilation
When are the three primary germ layers established during pregnancy?
a) First week of development
b) Second week of development
c) Third week of development
d) Fourth week of development
e) Second month of development
c) Third week of development
If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the possible genotype of the father?
a) B
b) O
c) AB
d) B or O
e) B, O or AB
e) B, O or AB
Red-green color blindness is a recessive, X-linked trait represented as Xc. (Normal color vision is represented as XC.) If a daughter has red-green color blindness, what must the genotypes of her parents be?
The daughter can only have red-green color blindness if she received two copies of Xc chromosomes. Since her father only has one X chromosome, his genotype must be XcY. The other Xc chromosome had to come from her mother. If her mother has normal color vision, the mother’s genotype is XCXc. However, if the mother is also color blind, the mother’s genotype must be XcXc.
Which of the following is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract?
a) Acrosomal reaction
b) Maturation
c) Fertilization
d) Capacitation
e) Polyspermy
d) Capacitation
CVS is taking cells from where?
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Placenta
d) Umbilical cord
e) Uterus
b) Chorion
This is composed of the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
c) C
Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy characterized by at least 3 X chromosomes (XXX)?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Metafemale syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Lethal gene
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Metafemale syndrome
During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
e) 50%
c) 30%
The developing embryo is surrounded by and bathed in
a. amniotic fluid
b. chorionic fluid
c. fluid in the yolk sac
d. plasma from the mother
a. amniotic fluid
Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?
a) Ovary
b) Fallopian tube
c) Ovarian ligament
d) Body of uterus
e) Vagina
b) Fallopian tube
Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis
The position of the fetus and placenta is identified via ultrasound and palpation, and the skin is prepared with antiseptic and local anesthetic. A hypodermic needle is inserted through the abdominal wall and uterus to withdraw 10 mL of amniotic fluid from the amniotic cavity. The fluid and cells are examined and biochemically tested for abnormal proteins and chromosome abnormalities that may signal fetal problems and congenital defects.
Which of the terms below describes the beginning or first discernable indication of the development of an organ or structure?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age
b) Primordium
Implantation occurs _____ after fertilization
a. immediately
b. a few hours
c. a day
d. about 6 days
d. about 6 days
How many alleles are present in humans that produce the phenotypes of the four blood types of the ABO blood groups?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
c. three
Clubfeet is an example of which condition listed?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Deformation
Which of the following structures is NOT produced from the mesoderm?
a) Melanocytes
b) All skeletal muscle
c) All cardiac muscle
d) Blood vessels
e) Lymphatic tissue
a) Melanocytes
In the process of lactation
a. the posterior pituitary releases prolactin that initiates milk ejection
b. feeding inhibits the release of oxytocin, thus ensuring the continuation of lactation
c. the uterine smooth muscle returns to pre-pregnancy size more rapidly in nursing than non-nursing mothers
d. the estrogen and progesterone in colostrum stimulate growth of the newborn nervous system
c. the uterine smooth muscle returns to pre-pregnancy size more rapidly in nursing than non-nursing mothers
The fusion of the male pronucleus and the female pronucleus results in which developmental stage?
a) Female pronucleus
b) Male pronucleus
c) Zygote
d) Blastomeres
e) Morula
c) Zygote
After implantation
a. the morula becomes the blastocyst
b. the trophoblast develops into two layers
c. the embryoblast forms the cytotrophoblast
d. the syncytiotrophoblast is replaced by the blastocoele
b. the trophoblast develops into two layers
Which of the following is an agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo?
a) Carcinogen
b) Toxin
c) Nicotine
d) Radiation
e) Teratogen
e) Teratogen
Which condition listed is an infectious disease of childbirth resulting from an infection originating in the birth canal and affecting the mother’s endometrium?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Puerperal fever
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Puerperal fever
What does diagram “A” represent?
a) Cleavage of embryo
b) Cleavage of zygote
c) Cleavage of morula
d) Cleavage of blastocyst
e) Cleavage of fetus
b) Cleavage of zygote
Fertilization in a laboratory dish and transfer of the developing embryo into the uterus is called
a. in vitro fertilization
b. embryo transfer
c. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
d. ectopic pregnancy
a. in vitro fertilization
Which of the following is a breast-feeding benefit for infants?
a) Beneficial cells
b) Beneficial molecules
c) Decreased incidence of diseases later in life
d) Enhancement of intellectual and neurological development
e) All of these are breast-feeding benefits
e) All of these are breast-feeding benefits
Which of the following will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus?
a) Chorionic villi of the placenta
b) Amnion
c) Amnionic fluid
d) Embryonic disc
e) Endoderm
a) Chorionic villi of the placenta
What is line “G” pointing to?
a) Chorion
b) Chorionic villi
c) Sinusoid
d) Extraembryonic mesoderm
e) None of these choices
e) None of these choices
Which of the following is the portion of the endometrium that lies between the embryo and the stratum basalis?
a) Decidua basalis
b) Decidua capsularis
c) Decidua parietalis
d) Lamina propria
e) Adventitia
a) Decidua basalis
What is the term used to describe the age of an embryo or fetus calculated from the presumed first day of the last normal menstrual period?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Gestational age
e) Fertilization age
d) Gestational age
Where are the fetal blood vessels?
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G
c) E
Which of the terms below describes the chromosomal characteristic of an individual presented as a systematic arrangement of pairs of metaphase chromosomes arranged by size?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age
d) Karyotype
The placenta is fully developed and is functioning completely
a. during the embryonic period
b. shortly after implantation
c. by the end of the third month of development
d. when the fetal period begins
c. by the end of the third month of development
In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives Huntington’s disease. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual?
a) Normal vision
b) Normal digits
c) Normal nervous system
d) Polydactyly
e) Straight thumb
c) Normal nervous system
Which hormone causes release of milk into the mammary ducts via the milk ejection reflex?
a) Prolactin
b) Oxytocin
c) Estrogen
d) Progesterone
e) Aldosterone
b) Oxytocin
Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition
Fetal CRH secretion increases, which causes estrogen to rise as fetal ACTH triggers an increase in cortisol and DHEA. Placenta converts DHEA to estrogen. In turn, estrogen increases oxytocin receptors on uterine smooth muscle fibers and makes them form gap junctions. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction, and relaxin dilates the cervix and loosens the pubic symphysis. Estrogen also increases prostaglandins to digest collagen in the cervix. Oxytocin, cervix, and the hypothalamus maintain a positive feedback loop to maintain labor.
The phenotype of an individual refers to the
a. genetic makeup of the chromosomes
b. type of mutations that are present
c. the type of dominant and recessive genes
d. physical or outward expression of a gene
d. physical or outward expression of a gene
Which of the terms below describes the development of an organism from an undifferentiated cell?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Karyotype
e) Fertilization age
c) Epigenesis
How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
d) 5
If a man with hemophilia marries a woman who does not carry the hemophilia gene, which of the following concerning their children is probable?
a. All of the sons will be carriers
b. All of the sons will have hemophilia
c. All of the daughters will be carriers
d. One half of the sons will have hemophilia and one half will be carriers
c. All of the daughters will be carriers
What stage happens 6 days after fertilization?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
e) E
Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Genotype is the actual DNA sequence or genetic makeup of an individual. Teratogens (agents that cause mutations) might damage the DNA and change the genotype. For instance, the DNA in an embryo exposed to ionizing radiation might be damaged, resulting in genes that malfunction. Phenotype is the physical expression of the genes. Height, hair color, and even enzyme activity are phenotypes. If the genotype is changed by the environment, the phenotype may also be changed. A single base change in DNA is responsible for the sickle cell phenotype. Phenotype is dependent on the environment in a variety of ways. One example is that a child might have the genotype “tall”. If the child doesn’t receive adequate nutrition, though, he still might not be as tall as his genes would ordinarily allow.
Which condition listed is also called morning sickness?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
a) Emesis gravidarum
Each somite may differentiate into a
a) Sertoli cell
b) Dermatome
c) Ovary
d) Myogenic cells
e) Ductus deferens
b) Dermatome
Which of the following is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts?
a) Prolactin
b) PIH
c) PRH
d) Oxytocin
e) GnRH
d) Oxytocin
After implantation, the only tissue of the developing embryo to come in direct contact with maternal tissue is the
a. zona pellucida
b. embryoblast
c. blastocoele
d. trophoblast
d. trophoblast
Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy, caused by the presence of a single X chromosome designated XO?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
Which of the following is a noninvasive prenatal test?
a) AFP
b) CVS
c) Amniocentesis
d) All of these
e) None of these
a) AFP
Which condition listed is a developmental abnormality due to mechanical forces that mold a part of the fetus over a prolonged period of time?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Deformation
Labor cannot take place until all of which hormone’s effects are diminished?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Testosterone
d) Relaxin
e) Inhibin
b) Progesterone
Which of the following develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid?
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Yolk sac
c) Exocoelomic membrane
d) Amnion
e) Lacunae
d) Amnion
Which of the following structures is(are) produced from the endoderm?
a) Adrenal cortex
b) Gonads
c) Epithelium of the oral cavity
d) Epithelial lining of the pharynx
e) Arachnoid mater
d) Epithelial lining of the pharynx
Which of the following is a function of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone?
a) Maintain endometrium of uterus during pregnancy
b) Help prepare mammary glands for lactation
c) Establish the timing of birth
d) Increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis
e) All of these are functions of CRH
c) Establish the timing of birth
In normal development of the male fetus, it assumes its upside-down position and the testes start to descend into the scrotal sac during the
a. third month
b. fifth month
c. seventh month
d. ninth month
c. seventh month
if a couple are both heterozygous for the gene that causes phenylketonuria, the probability that their first child will have PKU is
a. 25 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 100 percent
a. 25 percent
The embryonic portion of the placenta develops from the
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. chorion
d. allantois
c. chorion
Hemophilia is an example of
a. a dominant-recessive trait
b. sex-linked inheritance
c. incomplete dominance
d. multiple allele inheritance
b. sex-linked inheritance
Early pregnancy tests depend on the detection of _____ in the urine
a. estrogen
b. human chorionic gonadotropin
c. chorionic progesterone
d. follicle stimulating hormone
b. human chorionic gonadotropin
A Barr body
a) Is an inactivated X chromosome
b) Cannot be stained
c) Are transcribed and translated
d) Is seen in males
e) Is only found in humans
a) Is an inactivated X chromosome
if pregnancy continues for two weeks beyond the due date, there is a chance of brain damage to the fetus because of
a. breakdown of fetal red blood cells
b. an aging placenta
c. overstretching of the uterus
d. disintegration of the umbilical cord
b. an aging placenta
What is line “G” pointing to?
a) Chorionic villi
b) Amnion
c) Umbilical vein
d) Umbilical artery
e) Amnionic capillary bed
a) Chorionic villi
Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy, usually due to trisomy XXY?
a) Emesis gravidarum
b) Deformation
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Breech presentation
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
e) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Which one represents the morula stage?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
c) C
Which of the following is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG?
a) Blastocyte
b) Blastosphere
c) Trophoblast
d) Blastocyst cavity
e) Uterine cavity
c) Trophoblast
Which structure was formerly called the blastocyst cavity?
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G
d) F
Which of the following structures is(are) produced from the endoderm?
a) Cartilage
b) Dermis of the skin
c) Kidneys and ureters
d) Internal and external ear
e) Gametes
e) Gametes
Which of the terms below includes all structures that develop from a zygote: the embryo, the embryonic placenta and its associated membranes?
a) Conceptus
b) Primordium
c) Epigenesis
d) Gestational age
e) Karyotype
a) Conceptus
An autosomal aneuploidy resulting from nondisjunction is
a. color blindness
b. fragile X syndrome
c. Down syndrome
d. phenylketonuria
c. Down syndrome
What is line “F” pointing to?
a) Umbilical arteries
b) Umbilical vein
c) Fetal blood vessels
d) Maternal endometrial arteriole
e) Chorionic villi
d) Maternal endometrial arteriole
Which of the following is a permanent change in an allele?
a) Mutation
b) Phenotype
c) Genotype
d) Dominant
e) Recessive
a) Mutation
Chorionic villi sampling (CVS) has an advantage over amniocentesis because CVS
a. involves removal of fluid only
b. never has any negative side effects
c. yields test results in a few days
d. can be performed during the second week of pregnancy
c. yields test results in a few days
When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin it is called:
a) Mutation
b) Translocation
c) Genomic imprinting
d) Incomplete dominance
e) Codominance
c) Genomic imprinting
Which of the following is the connection between the placenta and the embryo?
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Umbilical cord
d) Placenta
e) Capillary beds
c) Umbilical cord
The intervillous spaces of the placenta
a. are derived from the chorion
b. contain maternal blood
c. are rich in hCG and HCS
d. enlarge under the influence of relaxin
b. contain maternal blood
What is line “A” pointing to?
a) Endometrial gland
b) Trophoblast
c) Embryoblast
d) Blastocyst
e) Dermatome
b) Trophoblast
A hormone called _____, released from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates the production of milk by the mammary glands
a. relaxin
b. oxytocin
c. prolactin
d. luteinizing hormone
c. prolactin
Which hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus?
a) GnRH
b) hCG
c) CRH
d) AFP
e) ATP
c) CRH
In the umbilical cord, there are
a. two arteries that carry oxygenated blood and one vein that carries deoxygenated blood
b. one artery that carries oxygenated blood and one vein that carries deoxygenated blood
c. one artery that carries deoxygenated blood and two veins that carries deoxygenated blood
d. two arteries that carry deoxygenated blood and one vein that carries oxygenated blood
d. two arteries that carry deoxygenated blood and one vein that carries oxygenated blood
