Neurology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When to do surgery in ICH?

A

Cerebellar hemorrhage > 3cm, Brainstem compression

Hydrocephalus

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2
Q

What is rule of 0,3,6,12 rule?

A
Restart NOAC after 
0 days - TIA
3 days - small infarct
6 days - medium infarct
12 days - large infarct
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3
Q

Dabigatran compare to warfarin?

A

Lower ICH risk but higher GI bleeding risk

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4
Q

Dabigatran, Rivaroxaban compare to warfarin?

apixaban compare to warfarin?

A

Lower ICH risk but higher GI bleeding risk

Lower ICH/GI and all bleeding risk - superior to warfarin

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5
Q

In embolic stroke of unknown source ? (ESUS)

A

Use only aspirin. The rest not beneficial

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6
Q

Raedar syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral trigeminal sensory deficits + Partial horner ( without anhidrosis)

+
Headache mimic trigeminal cephalagia

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7
Q

Why partial horner’s syndrome?

A

The sweat glands travel together with external carotid artery ( which is not affected)

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8
Q

Pathophysiology of Raedar syndrome?

A

Lesion in internal carotid artery compressing sympathetic ganglion + it’s pathway

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9
Q

Multiple sclerosis - pathophysio?

A

B cell mediated - trigger B/T cells towards specific antigen

  • lead to axonal loss/astrocyte gliosis
  • then re-myelination
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10
Q

Majority of Optic neuritis location?

A

Retrobulbar - so no optic disc swelling

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11
Q

Oligoclonal bands in CSF are what type of Ig]?

A

IgG

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12
Q

Strong predictor of MS?

A

Oligoclonal bands and CIS

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13
Q

Older Men, spinal cord lesions likely to have one pattern of MS?

A

Primary progressive MS

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14
Q

Which approach treatment better for MS?

A

Intensive/induction therapy

  • less disability
  • more time spent in Single PMS time
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15
Q

Glatiramer Acetate mechanism of action in MS?

A

Act as altered MHC II - stimulate Treg cells

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16
Q

Side effect of Teriflunomide?

A

Hair thinning/ GI upset/ Teratogenic

17
Q

Dimethyl fumarate mechanism of action in MS?

Commonest side effect?

A

Activate Nuclear factor erythroid 2 - Nrf2 transcriptional pathway ( protective) - reduce lymphocytes

diarrhea - commonest
PML!

18
Q

Similarity of Natalizumab and Fingolimod?

A

Rebound post cessation of therapy

19
Q

Fingolimod extremely high risk of what side effects ?

A

First dose - bradycardia
Macular oedema - OCT every 6 months
Varicella zoster re-activation

20
Q

JC virus does what?

When virus titre consider high risk?

A

Attack oligodendrocytes - so demyelination

> 1:5

21
Q

PML treatment?

A

Pembrolizumab - use for BK virus as well

22
Q

Alemtuzumab known to cause what autoimmune disease?

A

Graves disease

ITP

23
Q

Best MS treatment in reducing relapse?

A

Natalizumab

24
Q

Best Primary progressive MS + Oligoclonal bands in CSF treatment?

A

Ocrelizumab

25
Q

Best Secondary progressive MS treatment?

Best Relapse Remitting MS treatment?

A

Siponimod ( 2nd generation fingolimod)

Ofatumomab

26
Q

Aggressive secondary progressive MS treatment?

Known side effect of this treatment?

A

Mitoxantrone ( chemo - inhibits B/T cells)

Cardiac toxicity - don’t use if EF < 50%

27
Q

Drugs in MS treatment - avoid in pregnancy?

A

Teriflunomide
Dimethyl fumarate
Fingolimod
Rituximab/Ocrelizumab - not to use in 2nd/3rd trimester

28
Q

MOG antibody found in what disorder?

A

Recurrent bilateral ON

ADEM

29
Q

Treatment for NMO?

A

Inebilizumab (anti-CD19) - mainly targets plasma cells/plasmablasts

Eculizumab

Satralizumab (IgG bind to IL6)

30
Q

What is Valproic-acid role in patient with encephalopathy?

Risk factors?

A

Induce hyperammonaemia = causing cerebral oedema

Sodium valproate inhibits glutamate - can’t metabolise nitrogen

risk factor = Urea cycle disorder, topiramate