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Nervous 2 (spinal cord) Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: Ependymal cells are CNS glial cells

A

False

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2
Q

Which cells of the CNS are most important for repair and play a role similar to fibroblasts?

A

Astrocytes

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3
Q

What is the medical term for inflammation of the arachnoid and pia mater?

A

Leptomeningitis

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4
Q

What is the medical term for inflammation of the meninges?

A

Meningitis

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5
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis?

A

Bacterial

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6
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

The presence of bacteria in the blood

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7
Q

What is septicemia?

A

The presence and multiplication of bacteria in the blood

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8
Q

What is sepsis?

A

A body wide inflammatory response to septicemia

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9
Q

Neonatal septicemia is more common when neonates receive __________________

A

Inadequate colostrum

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10
Q

Neonatal septicemia is common in animals of what age?

A

< 3 days old

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11
Q

What are the three portals of entry for bacteria to cause neonatal septicemia (in each age category)?

A

Animals < 3 days: intrauterine and gastrointestinal
Animals 1-4 weeks: umbilical, castration, and ear notching
Animals 3+ months: respiratory

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12
Q

Where do bacteria in the blood tend to seed (five)?

A
  1. Filtration organs (liver, kidney, spleen, lung)
  2. Joints
  3. Growth plates
  4. Uvea
  5. Meninges
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13
Q

What does bacterial meningitis look like grossly?

A

The brain will have a cloudy slime on the bottom of it (because of gravity)

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14
Q

Vertebral body abscesses occur in production animals secondary to which two things?

A
  1. Tail docking/tail biting
  2. Septicemia
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15
Q

What is discospondylitis?

A

A vertebral body abscess that expands to include the intervertebral disks and adjacent vertebral bodies

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16
Q

What are the three types of malformations of the vertebral column?

A
  1. Kyphosis (back is hunched over)
  2. Lordosis (back is curved inward)
  3. Scoliosis (spine is curved to either side)
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17
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A

A failure of the neural tube to close, but there is no herniation. There will be an absence of skin over the area with muscle and spinal cord below

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18
Q

What breeds are predisposed to spina bifida?

A

English bulldogs and Manx cats

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19
Q

What can happen secondary to spina bifida?

A

A spinal cord infection

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20
Q

Spina bifida usually affects the _______ spine

A

Caudal

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21
Q

What is a meningocele?

A

A spina bifida with herniation of the meninges alone

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22
Q

What is a meningomyelocele?

A

A spina bifida with herniation of the meninges and spinal cord

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23
Q

What is hydromyelia?

A

The abnormal dilation of the central canal of the spinal cord

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24
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

A tubular cavitation (cyst) in the spinal cord that extends over several segments

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25
What causes hydromyelia?
Genetic damage to ependymal cells causes disruption to normal CSF flow (since ependymal cells control CSF flow). This leads to increased CSF pressure in the central canal, which expands outwards, compressing surrounding tissue
26
What 'Wobbler's' also known as?
Cervical stenotic myelopathy
27
What is cervical stenotic myelopathy? What does this result in?
A narrowing of the vertebral canal causes compression of the spinal cord and nerve roots. It causes Wallerian degeneration of the spinal cord.
28
True or False: Females are more likely to be affected by Wobbler's
False, it is males that are more affected ## Footnote Rapidly growing horses and large breed dogs are more affected too
29
In Wobbler's, ataxia will be more severe in the ________ end
Hind
30
What dog breeds are more prone to Wobbler's? Which form do they usually get?
Great Danes and Doberman pinschers. They only get the static form
31
What is the difference between static and dynamic stenosis in horses?
In static stenosis, the horse has a stiff neck all the time. In dynamic stenosis, the cervical vertebrae are only affected when the horse extends or bends its neck
32
Which section of the vertebrae does static stenosis occur in horses with Wobbler's?
C5-C7
33
What age are horses commonly affected with static stenosis with Wobbler's?
1-4 years
34
Which section of the vertebrae does dynamic stenosis occur in horses with Wobbler's?
C3-C5
35
What age are horses commonly affected with dynamic stenosis with Wobbler's?
8-18 months old
36
What are the layers of the intervertebral disk called?
Nucleus pulposis (center) Anulus fibrosis (outside)
37
In what breeds is intervertebral disk disease most common?
Chondrodystrophic dog breed (ex. Dachshund)
38
In intervertebral disk disease, where does rupture most commonly occur in the spine?
Dorsally at the thoracolumbar junction
39
What are the two types of disc herniation?
Hansen Type 1 and Hansen Type 2
40
What is Hansen Type 1 disc herniation? What breed is this most common in?
The sudden rupture of the annulus fibrosus with release of nucleus pulposus material into the spinal canal. This happens commonly with chondrodystrophic breeds when they jump down off something
41
What is Hansen Type 2 disc herniation? What breed is this most common in?
A gradual degeneration of the disc that leads to the disc bulging into the spinal cord. This is more common in older (6-8 years) non-chondrodystrophic breeds
42
Which type of Hansen disc herniation is more severe?
Type 1 is more severe
43
Intervertebral disc disease results in ______________ degeneration
Wallerian
44
What is also known as ischemic myelopathy?
Fibrocartilaginous emboli
45
True or False: Fibrocartilaginous emboli is more common in chondrodystrophic breeds
False
46
What species is more often affected with fibrocartilaginous emboli?
Dogs (particularly large breeds)
47
What is fibrocartilaginous emboli? What does this result in?
A herniation from the intervertebral disc (nucleus pulposus) that results in fibrocartilaginous tissue getting into the vasculature (often associated with exercise or trauma). This will lead to infarction.
48
Which mineral deficiency can cause swayback?
Copper deficiency
49
What are the two forms of disease that can occur from copper deficiency?
1. Congenital 2. Enzootic ataxia
50
What are the differences between congenital and enzootic ataxic forms of copper deficiency in horses?
Congenital: - Cerebrum, brainstem, and spinal cord affected - Usually born dead - Causes swayback Enzootic ataxia: - Only brainstem and spinal cord are affected - Causes ataxia
51
True or False: Swayback is more common in neonatal goats versus lambs
False, it's more common in lambs
52
What two clinical signs will you see in a lamb with a copper deficiency?
Poor wool quality and pigmentation
53
Equine motor neuron disease (EMND) is associated with a deficiency of what mineral?
Vitamin E
54
Equine motor neuron disease (EMND) causes what three issues?
- Progressive weakness - Atrophy of skeletal muscles - Pigmentary retinopathy (this can help you diagnose)
55
What is EMND caused by?
It is caused by degeneration of lower motor neurons in the ventral horns of the spinal cord and brain stem nuclei
56
__________ horses get EMND more commonly
Older
57
What does EMND look like grossly in muscle?
Red to yellow discoloration of skeletal muscle in the medial head of triceps brachii and vastus intermedius
58
What animals more commonly get equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy (EDM)?
Young horses and zebras (particularly Arabian horses)
59
What is the pathogenesis of EDM?
We don't really know, it may have a genetic component and is always associated with Vitamin E deficiency
60
What does EDM look like histologically?
There will be demyelination of the white matter of the spinal cord funiculi and brainstem
61
What protozoa causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)?
Sarcocystis neurona
62
Sarcocystis neurona is shed in the feces of what animal?
Opossums
63
What type of horses are more commonly affected by EPM and where in the CNS is affected?
Young adults horses get it in their spinal cord
64
What will EPM look like histologically (two)?
- White and gray matter are both affected - Can sometimes see protozoal cysts in the tissues
65
True or False: EDM and EMND are two equine conditions associated with Vitamin E deficiency
True
66
Equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1) can cause what three major syndromes in horses?
1. Abortion and neonatal death (reproductive manifestation) 2. Rhinopneumonitis (respiratory manifestation) 3. Myeloencephalitis (neurological manifestation)
67
What does EHV-1 look like histologically (two)?
- White and gray matter are both affected - Vasculitis
68
Dural ossification in old dogs is a form of __________________
Osseous metaplasia
69
What dog breed is most affected by degenerative radiculomyelopathy?
German shepherds
70
True or False: Equine herpesvirus 1 is neurotropic
False, it is endotheliotropic (meaning it has a higher affinity for endothelial cells than neurons)
71
Which virus moves to the CNS via leukocyte trafficking?
EHV-1 (equine herpesvirus 1)

Systemic Path (35 decks)

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