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MSK 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Osteoblasts are of _______________ origin

A

Mesenchymal

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2
Q

What do osteoblasts produce?

A

Osteoid

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3
Q

What cells send signals that control mineralization to form mature bone?

A

Osteoblasts

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4
Q

What cells stimulate the formation and resorption of bone as needed by the mechanical forces exerted on bone?

A

Osteocytes

If the bone has been under a lot of force, they will stimulate stronger bone; if they have not been under force, they may stimulate resorption as strength is deemed unnecessary.

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5
Q

The primary function of ______________ is resorption of bone

A

Osteoclasts

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6
Q

How are osteoclasts formed?

A

The fusion of cells from monocyte/macrophage lineage

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7
Q

True or False: Osteoclasts are of mesenchymal origin

A

FALSE

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8
Q

The extracellular matrix of bone is made up of what organic and inorganic elements?

A

Osteoid (organic) and calcium hydroxyapatite crystals (inorganic)

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9
Q

What is osteoid made of?

A

Type 1 collagen fibers (90%) and glycoproteins (10%)

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10
Q

What makes up calcium hydroxyapatite (CHAP) crystals?

A

Mostly calcium and phosphorous but carbonate, magnesium, sodium, and zinc in lesser amounts

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11
Q

The ______________ is the outer lining of bone

A

Periosteum

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12
Q

What is woven bone?

A

Immature bone that is present during fetal development and in the early stages of bone repair (active remodelling)

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13
Q

Which is weaker, lamellar or woven bone?

A

Woven bone

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14
Q

What is lamellar bone?

A

Mature bone where collagen fibers are arranged in a parallel pattern

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15
Q

What are the two microscopic classifications of bone?

A

Woven or lamellar

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16
Q

What are the two macroscopic classifications of bone?

A

Compact and cancellous (also called cortical and spongy bone)

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17
Q

Can macroscopic classification tell you about bone age?

A

NO! Compact and cancellous bone has nothing to do with maturity or immaturity of bone

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18
Q

What is compact bone?

A

The bone type found in the cortex of bone or below articular cartilage. It is high density and can take a beating without breaking. It can be immature or mature.

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19
Q

What is cancellous bone?

A

The bone type found in the medullary cavity of bone. It is low density and is tough but will fall apart with rough use. It can be mature or immature. It is also known as spongy bone.

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20
Q

Long bones grow via _____________________

A

Endochondral ossification

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21
Q

Physeal growth (growth at the physis/growth plate) occurs by what?

A

Endochondral ossification

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22
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

When bone develops from a cartilaginous precursor that is subsequently replaced by osseous tissue present in the so called ossification centers

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23
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

The bone formation that occurs within the membranes of condensed mesenchymal tissue (there is no cartilaginous precursor)

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24
Q

Growth (lengthening) of the bone occurs on the ______________ side of the bone

A

Metaphyseal

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25
Once the growth plate closes can there be any more growth in the bone?
No
26
What are the three zones in the growth plate and what occurs there?
1. Reserve zone (chondrocytes hang out and do nothing) 2. Proliferative zone (chondrocytes multiply and the bone lengthens) 3. Hypertrophic zone (chondrocytes mature and begin to mineralize and once their job is done they die)
27
Remodelling occurs at the ______________ spongiosa
Secondary
28
What is remodelling?
The lifelong process in which bone is removed from the skeleton and new bone tissue is formed
29
What are five reactions to injury bone can have?
1. Necrosis 2. Altered trabeculae 3. Changes in size/shape/mass 4. Production of new bone 5. Periosteal reaction
30
What is a sequestrum?
A piece of devitalized (necrotic/mummified) bone is walled off by fibrous granulation tissue or reactive bone
31
What is the wall of reactive bone or granulation tissue surrounding a bone sequestrum called?
Involucrum
32
What is a growth arrest line?
A line that signifies a time when bone growth stopped (may have happened due to injury). This line will disappear though if the animal lives long enough for remodelling to come and clean it up
33
What is Wolff's Law?
A bone adapts or remodels in response to forces or demands placed upon it. Decreased mechanical use will lead to increased resorption
34
True or False: In normal remodelling there is no change in shape or amount of bone produced
True
35
Excessive new bone formation is called __________________
Hyperostosis
36
A periosteal reaction may also be referred to as _________________
Exostosis
37
What is a periosteal reaction?
When the periosteum produces new woven bone in response to irritation or injury
38
What is a traumatic fracture?
A normal bone that is broken by excessive force
39
What is a pathologic fracture?
An abnormal bone (could be due to neoplasia, infection, or metabolic bone disease) that is broken by normal forces
40
What are the four overlapping stages of bone repair?
1. Hematoma (blood clots around the site break and signal for repair) 2. Soft (primary) callus formation (fibroblasts and cartilage form callus) 3. Hard (secondary) callus formation (woven bone replaces the primary callus) 4. Remodelling (woven bone is remodelled to lamellar bone and callus is reduced)
41
What is a fracture callus?
A widened bulbous area of bone surrounding the two broken ends of bone during the healing process
42
An unstable fracture will have a _______________ callus
Larger
43
A stable fracture will have a __________ callus
Smaller
44
What are the four most common reasons for poor fracture healing?
1. Instability (excessive instability inhibits the formation of a hard callus) 2. Inadequate blood supply (poor blood supply can lead to large areas of bone necrosis and formation of a sequestrum) 3. Infection (this is a big problem in open fractures and can cause osteomyelitis) 4. Underlying systemic disease (lack of nutrients or energy will slow healing)
45
In a growing animal, where is a fracture most likely to occur?
At the physis (growth plate). Remember, the physis is made out of cartilage which is weaker than bone
46
There are five different types of growth plate fractures which are called ____________
Salter-Harris Fractures
47
What are the two classifications of angular limb deformities?
1. Valgus- lateral deviation of the distal portion of bone (splay-legged) (valgus has an 'l' in it, so remember splay legged and lateral deviation) 2. Varus- medial deviation of the distal portion of the bone (bow legged)
48
What is epiphysiolysis?
The separation of epiphysis from metaphysis
49
What is the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
To directly or indirectly raise the plasma calcium concentration. The overall effect is in increased blood calcium and a decreased blood phosphorus, all this causes reduced mineralization of the skeleton
50
How does PTH affect the bone and kidneys?
Kidneys: Increases the resorption of calcium in tubules and increases excretion of phosphorus Bone: Makes osteoclasts resorb bone and put calcium into blood
51
What effect does vitamin D have on calcium and phosphorus levels?
Vitamin D acts to increase absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the kidneys and intestine leading to higher blood calcium and phosphorus levels. It also inhibits the production of PTH
52
_____________ acts as the physiological antagonist of PTH
Calcitonin
53
What effect does calcitonin have on the bone and kidneys?
Kidneys: It decreases resorption of calcium and phosphorus Bone: It decreases osteoclasts and leads to increased mineral in bone
54
What causes a decrease in blood calcium and phosphorus and increases the mineralization of the skeleton?
Calcitonin
55
What is the most common metabolic bone disease?
Osteoporosis
56
When does serous atrophy of fat occur in bone and what does it look like?
After a chronic negative protein and energy deficiency (ex. starvation). As the fat in the bone marrow is used, it becomes watery and gelatinous often with a yellow or red tinge. ## Footnote It doesn't have to be starvation, maybe a malabsorptive disorder is preventing them from getting any nutrients from their food.
57
How do rickets and osteomalacia differ?
In the age of the animal they affect (basically the same disease otherwise)
58
Which animals are commonly affected by rickets? What part of the bone is affected by this disease?
Young, growing animals. It affects the growth plate (physis)
59
Which animals are affected by osteomalacia? Where does osteomalacia occur?
Adult animals. It occurs in areas of bone remodelling
60
What are the two most common causes of rickets/osteomalacia?
1. Vitamin D deficiency 2. Phosphorous deficiency
61
What is fibrous osteodystrophy (FOD)?
It is characterized by extensive bone resorption with replacement by proliferative fibrous tissue and poorly mineralized immature (woven) bone, This makes bone prone to fractures.
62
What is fibrous osteodystrophy (FOD) caused by?
Persistently elevated plasma parathyroid hormone levels
63
Primary hyperparathyroidism is due to what?
A functional parathyroid gland tumor
64
What two things cause secondary hyperparathyroidism?
1. Nutritional imbalances (causing an imbalance in the calcium:phosphorus ratio) 2. Renal disease
65
What species often get nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism and what diets can cause it?
Horses. Diets high in phosphorus can cause it
66
What is an obvious clinical sign of a horse with nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?
A bilateral enlargement of the bones of the skull, particularly the maxillae and mandibles. It is called 'big head disease'
67
What happens to the bones in nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Due to low calcium in diet, PTH will stimulate bone resorption leading to the replacement of normal bone with fibrous tissue and poorly formed immature (woven) bone
68
Why is vitamin C so important to have in certain animal diets?
Some animals (primates, guinea pigs, bats, and whales) lack the enzyme needed to convert glucose to vitamin C. So if they don't get it in their diet they will be deficient.
69
What gross lesions will we see in the bones of a vitamin C deficient animal?
Bleeding/hemorrhage/bruising

Systemic Path (35 decks)

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