GI 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What causes coccidiosis in herbivores?

A

Eimeria

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2
Q

What causes coccidiosis in carnivores?

A

Isospora

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3
Q

What is coccidiosis?

A

A protozoal parasite infection that is host, organ and tissue specific

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4
Q

What age calves are usually affected by coccidiosis?

A

2 weeks to 6 months

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5
Q

What are the gross lesions of coccidiosis?

A

Hemorrhagic or fibrinohemorrhagic typhlocolitis (mostly large intestine, but can extend into ileum)

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6
Q

What is Attaching and Effacing E. coli (AEEC)?

A

A type of enteropathic E. coli that targets the large intestine including the rectum

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7
Q

What age of calves does AEEC usually affect?

A

5 days to 6 months

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8
Q

What are the gross lesions of AEEC?

A

-Hemorrhage
-Colon necrosis

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9
Q

What are characteristics of Clostridium perfringens?

A

-Type C
-Important cause of neonatal diarrhea
-Produces beta toxin

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10
Q

What age is typically affected by C. perfringens?

A

5-10 days old, rare up to 2 months

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11
Q

What is the most important clinical sign of C. perfringens?

A

Bloody diarrhea

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12
Q

Rhodococcus equi causes enterocolitis in ______

A

Foals

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13
Q

What age are foals typically affected by R. equi?

A

2 weeks - 6 months

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14
Q

What are the gross lesions of R. equi?

A

-Small and large intestine affected by large crateriform ulcers
-Lymphadenopathy

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15
Q

What histologic lesions are seen with R. equi?

A

-Pyogranulomatous enterotyphlocolitis and lymphadenitis
-gram positive bacteria within macrophages

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16
Q

What did canine parvovirus evolve from?

A

Feline panleukopenia

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17
Q

Which tissues does parvovirus target?

A

Rapidly dividing tissues (enteric epithelium, hematopoietic tissue, lymphoid tissue)

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18
Q

What are the gross lesions of parvovirus in the small intestine?

A

-Hemorrhage
-Ground glass appearance of serosa

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19
Q

What is the most common histologic lesion seen with parvovirus?

A

Crypt necrosis

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20
Q

What species causes Johne’s disease?

A

Mycobacterium avium spp. Paratuberculosis (MAP)

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21
Q

How is Johne’s spread?

A

-Fecal-oral
-Milk/colostrum
-Water

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22
Q

What are clinical signs of Johne’s?

A

-Chronic diarrhea
-Emaciation
-Hypoproteinemia

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23
Q

Gross lesions of Johne’s?

A

-Cerebelliform thickening of the intestine (ileum mostly)
-Enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes and lymphatic vessels

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24
Q

Histologic lesions of Johne’s

A

-Infiltration of the lamina propria by large numbers of macrophages
-Macrophages contain acid fast bacilli

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25
Q

Porcine proliferative enteropathy is caused by

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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26
Q

Which tissue does L. intracellularis target?

A

Distal small intestine (ileum) and large intestine

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27
Q

What is the characteristic gross lesion of L. intracellularis?

A

Cerebelliform thickening of the intestine

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28
Q

What pathogen is swine dysentery caused by?

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

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29
Q

Which tissue is B. hyodysenteriae restricted to?

A

Large intestine

30
Q

What is another name for potomac horse fever and what pathogen causes it?

A

Equine neorickettsiosis. Caused by Neorickettsia risticii

31
Q

What is the main clinical sign of potomac horse fever?

A

Laminitis

32
Q

When does potomac horse fever typically occur and why?

A

In the summer because its transmitted by trematodes that infect snails (always check standing water in paddock)

33
Q

What are the gross lesions of potomac horse fever?

A

-Fluid filled large bowel with foul odour
-Marked edema in distal limbs

34
Q

What two species does Clostridium difficile commonly occur in?

A

Horses and pigs

35
Q

What is a predisposing factor for C. difficile infection?

A

Antibiotics (creates dysbiosis)

36
Q

What are the gross lesions of C. difficile?

A

Intense hyperemia and hemorrhage in intestines

37
Q

Is C. difficile zoonotic?

A

Yes

38
Q

What are characteristics of salmonella?

A

-Zoonotic
-Localized enterocolitis or septicemia
-Can cause diarrhea in any age

39
Q

What are gross lesions of salmonella infection

A

-Fibronecrotizing or catarrhal enteritis and typhlocolitis
-Multifocal button ulcers
-Yellow, green or hemorrhagic feces with foul odour

40
Q

Salmonella typhimurium causes _______ ________ __________ in pigs

A

Chronic rectal strictures

41
Q

Salmonella typhimurium in horses is associated with hospitalization and ___________ treatment

A

Antibiotic

42
Q

Salmonella dublin causes __________ ____________ in cattle

A

Fibrinous cholecystitis

43
Q

What 2 types of BVDV can occur?

A

-Classical BVD
-Severe acute BVD

44
Q

What are gross lesions of BVDV?

A

-Linear esophageal ulcers
-Necrosis and hemorrhage over Peyer’s patches

45
Q

Which dog species are predisposed to lymphangiectasia?

A

Yorkshire terriers and Norwegian Lundehunds

46
Q

What are the gross lesions of lymphangiectasia?

A

-Dilated lacteals on the mucosa as white spots
-Mucosa segmentally thickened
-Dilated lymphatic vessels along serosa and mesentery

47
Q

What is a common histologic lesion of lymphangiectasia?

A

Dilated lymphatic vessels at the center of the villi

48
Q

What is another name for histiocytic ulcerative colitis of boxers?

A

Granulomatous colitis of boxers

49
Q

What other breed besides boxers is affected by histiocytic ulcerative colitis?

A

French bulldogs

50
Q

Gross lesion of histiocytic ulcerative colitis

A

Thickened ulcerated colon

51
Q

Histologic lesion of histiocytic ulcerative colitis

A

Mucosal ulceration with loss of goblet cells and infiltration of the submucosa by granulocytes and macrophages

52
Q

What is a histiologic change seen with IBD?

A

Chronic lymphoplasmacytic inflammation

53
Q

IBD may progress to intestinal lymphoma in which species?

A

Cats and Basenji dogs

54
Q

NSAID induced right dorsal colitis occurs commonly in which species?

A

Horses

55
Q

NSAID induced right dorsal colitis is ulceration of the _______ and _________

A

Colon; stomach

56
Q

NSAID induced right dorsal colitis is the result of _______ ________

A

Ischemic damage

57
Q

What is a common benign neoplasia of the GI system that’s epithelial in origin?

A

Anal hepatoid gland adenomas (perianal adenoma)

58
Q

What is a malignant neoplasia of the anal gland called?

A

Anal gland adenocarcinoma

59
Q

What is the number one intestinal tumor in dogs, cats and horses?

A

Lymphoma

60
Q

_______ cell lymphomas generally have a better prognosis than _______ cell lymphomas

A

Small; large

61
Q

Cats primarily get ______ cell (T cell) lymphomas

A

Small

62
Q

What is triaditis?

A

Inflammation of the liver, pancreas and small intestine at the same time

63
Q

Which species does triaditis occur more often in?

A

Cats

64
Q

What are some causes of pancreatitis?

A

-Idiopathic
-Breed (mini schnauzers)
-Dietary indiscretion*
-Blunt trauma (surgery)

65
Q

What are gross features of pancreatitis?

A

-Hemorrhage and congestion
-Edema
-Saponification of fat*

66
Q

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) is more common in which species

A

Dogs

67
Q

What are the 2 forms of EPI?

A

Congenital
Acquired

68
Q

What condition is congenital EPI?

A

Juvenile pancreatic insufficiency

69
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to juvenile pancreatic insufficiency?

A

-German shepherds*
-Rough-coated collies
-Chows
-English setters

70
Q

Toxic injury from _____ can cause acquired EPI

A

Zinc

71
Q

What is exocrine pancreatic nodular hyperplasia?

A

An incidental finding in older cats

72
Q

What is pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

An aggressive form of neoplasia from the epithelial cells of the exocrine pancreas. Metastasis and carcinomatosis is common