NAS MCQ PT.3 Flashcards
1
Q
an injury in which flaps of the skin and tissue are torn loose or pulled off completely is called
A
avulsion
2
Q
a soft tissue injury involving a gunshot will characteristically have an
A
entry and exit wound
3
Q
the swelling that occurs in conjunction with a contusion is caused by
A
a rupture of blood vessels in the dermis
4
Q
a pathological fracture occurs when
A
a medical condition causes abnormal bone weakness
5
Q
scalp injuries tend to bleed more because
A
there is rich blood supply to the area
6
Q
a bruise behind the ear in relation to a head injury is called
A
battle sign
7
Q
decorticate posturing is characterised by
A
flexion of arms and extension of feet
8
Q
decerebrate posturing
A
is a more severe finding than decorticate posturing, as it indicates damage in or near the brain stem
9
Q
in relation to a head injury, increased ICP the pupil will
A
dilate on the same side as the injury
10
Q
when caring for a patient involved in a RTC, you may release manual stabilisation of your patients head and neck after the patient
A
is secured to a long spine board
11
Q
hypoperfusion of the brain may cause
A
anxiety, restlessness, and agitation
12
Q
when performing a standing takedown technique to immobilise a patients spine, the patient is secured to the long board
A
after they are lowered to the ground
13
Q
what is considered effective management technique for a patient in shock
A
raising the lower legs to help maintain a blood pressure within normal limits
14
Q
the most effective methods of controlling an external bleed are
A
direct pressure, indirect pressure and tourniquet
15
Q
shock caused by failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels is called ____ shock
A
neurogenic shock
16
Q
while treating for shock, IV therapy is used to combat….
A
hypovolaemia
17
Q
what sign would you likely observe in compensated shock
A
anxiety/agitation
18
Q
what type of shock is a hypoglycaemic patient in
A
metabolic
19
Q
shock describes a state of collapse and failure in what system
A
cardiovascular
20
Q
thermal burns occur when the skin is exposed to temperatures greater than
A
44 degrees celsius
21
Q
in relation to burns what is the total body surface area of an infants leg
A
13.5%
22
Q
what is true regarding electrical burns
A
respiratory paralysis may occur from an electrical shock
23
Q
a superficial burn is
A
characterised by reddened skin with varying degrees of pain
24
Q
a partial thickness burn is considered to be critical if
A
involves more than 30% of the body surface area
25
how many hours does it take for a burn to set in
6-8hrs
26
what rhythms are shockable by AED
ventricular fibrillation
ventricular tachycardia
27
when the AED advises a shock the paramedic should
ensure no one is touching the patient then press the shock button
28
the PR interval should be no shorter than
0.12
29
normally the ST segment should be
at the level of the isoelectric line
30
what medication has a blood thinning effect
warfarin
31
myocardial ischaemia occurs when the heart muscle
is deprived of oxygen because of a blocked coronary artery
32
stable angina
occurs after a predictable amount of exertion
33
in contrast to stable angina, unstable angina
may be brought on in the absence of exertion
34
the pain associated with an acute MI
is not influenced by deep breathing or body movements
35
where the heart is no longer able to carry its normal load causing reduced circulation which causes fluid build up in certain parts of the body. this condition is called
congestive heart failure CHF
36
what is the normal duration of the QRS
0.04-0.12
37
multifocal PVCs arise from
different sources in the ventricles
38
unifocal PVCs arise from
one specific area in the ventricles
39
the purpose of a defibrillatory shock is to
stop all electrical activity in the heart to enable the SA node to resume control
40
from the time of arrival at a patients side of an unwitnessed cardiac arrest in v fib, the first shock is given
immediately
41
how long after death does rigor mortis occur
3-4hrs
42
you get a ROSC on a patient who required defib. what is your target temperature for therapeutic hypothermia
32-34 degrees
43
sensations of an abnormally fast or irregular heartbeat by a patient who has not been under any physical exertion are called
palpitations
44
an abnormal pulse finding where there is an excessive SBP drop with each inspired breath causing a weakening of the palpated pulse is called
pulsus paradoxus
45
the pathological condition in which the arterial walls become thickened and inelastic is
arteriosclerosis
46
pulse pressure can be used to clinically diagnose
cardiac tamponade
47
the period from one cardiac contraction to the next is called
cardiac cycle
48
what does depolarisation of the heart do
causes the heart to contract
49
the abnormal dilation or weakening of a blood vessel is called
aneurysm
50
for a patient to be diagnosed as having hypertension the patient has a SBP above
140
51
hypoglycaemic diabetic coma may develop as a result of
too much insulin
52
a patient in insulin shock or diabetic coma may appear to be
intoxicated
53
the onset of hypoglycaemia can occur within
minutes
54
signs and symptoms associated with hypoglycaemia include
anxious or combative behaviour
55
if a patient has drank a corrosive substance you should
give milk or water
56
patients from an immersion incident should be removed from the water in what position
horizontal
57
in order for a paramedic to consider whether the patients present symptoms could caused by diving, the patient must have been diving within the previous__hrs
48hrs
58
markers for multi-system trauma
GCS: <13
HR: >120
SBP: <90
RR: <10 or >29
Revised trauma score: <12
mechanism of injury
59
In what year was the third edition V2 CPGs published
2011
60
for a paediatric patient who has bradycardia, what additional test should a paramedic carry out
blood glucose
61
what is the recommended maximum on scene time when dealing with a paediatric patient in asystole
10 minutes
62
what is the maximum or optimum number of ventilations per minute that should be delivered to an adult in cardiac arrest
10
63
CPGs state that the paramedic should use burn gel dressings with caution when the total body surface area injured is
>10%
64
How many times can you repeat glucagon
0
65
what is the maximum number of shocks that can be delivered on scene
No maximum
66
a patient with a head injury and a GCS <8 should be transported with an upward head tilt of
10º
67
what percentage oxygen should a paramedic start with, when titrating the oxygen requirements on a COPD patient
28%
68
normal RR for a preschool child
22-34
69
at what point on an analogue pain scale should a paramedic call ALS for backup
>7
70
what does RPN stand for
registered psychiatric nurse
71
at what point on the analogue pain scale is ENTONOX recommended
4-6
72
what position should a pregnant patient adopt if she has a prolapsed cord
knees to chest
73
what is the max dose of glucose paste a paramedic can administer to a child
no max dose
74
what does the letter A stand for in METHANE
access
75
severe hypothermia is defined as what temp
<30º
76
dose of adrenaline for a 7yr old
300mcg
77
if you assess a child's pain and find it to be between __ and ___ you should administer paracetamol
1 and 3
78
what pneumonic is associated with haemorrhage control
PEEP
79
what is not a sign of poor perfusion in a paediatric
dyspnoea
80
ratio of compressions to breath when doing neonatal CPR
3:1
81
normal HR for an infant
100-160
82
for a neonate requiring CPR, compressions should be carried out for ____ seconds before reassessing the pulse
30 seconds
83
role of practitioner 1 at a major emergency
carry out the communication officer role until relieved
84
following defib of a patient in cardiac arrest, what is the next action carried out
commence CPR
85
role of practitioner 2 at a major emergency
carry out scene survey
86
how long should a burns patient be cooled
10 mins
87
RR of a toddler
24-40
88
practitioners are authorised to administer medications appropriate to their clinical level under what legislation
SI 512 of 2008
89
CPR for a child aged 4wks-1yr with two practitioners present
15:2
90
at a major emergency, who controls access to silver area/outer cordon
senior garda officer
91
seizures which involve both sides of the brain are known as
generalised
92
ECG paper is printed at what speed
25mm/sec
93
when transporting a hypothermic patient in a helicopter the head should be placed
to the front of the helicopter to keep the head down
94
the danger of roughly handling a hypothermic patient is
the patient may go into VF
95
what are the four mechanisms that affect core body temperature
conduction
convection
radiation
evaporation
96
moderate hypothermia is considered between which temp ranges
30-33.9
97
when a patient drowns in a submersion incident and the laryngeal muscles go into spasm this is known as
dry drowning
98
in the care of a drowning patient in terms of resuscitation, one of the primary complications will be to prevent ____ to avoid aspiration
vomiting
99
full failure of the bodys heat regulating mechanisms, which results in ALOC, delirium and/or convulsions with dry skin and hot to touch is called
heat stroke
100
secondary drowning can occur up to how many hours later
72hrs
101
how many shocks can a patient in cardiac arrest receive, if they are also suffering from severe hypothermia
3
102
a patient who has a slight temperature and has a normal or slight ALOC, is pale cool and moist to the touch is suffering from
heat exhaustion
103
the cause of motor neurone disease is?
idiopathic (no known cause)
104
signs and symptoms of motor neurone disease are
spasticity and muscle atrophy
105
MS is a disease affecting
the myelin sheet of the nerve
106
the period where symptoms of MS are mild/disappear is known as
remission
107
parkinsons disease is caused by insufficient formation of the neuro-transmitter
dopamine
108
a sign of parkinson's disease is
tremors
109
a symptom of MS where swallowing is affected is called
dysphagia
110
a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that is characterised by shuffling movements
Parkinsons disease
111
what is an example of a metabolic cause of a seizure
withdrawal from drug dependency
112
the human female gestation period is
40wks
113
the compression of what during pregnancy causes supine hypotensive syndrome
vena cava
114
a premature baby is one that weighs less than ___ kg or is born before the ____ week of pregnancy
2.5kg
37th week
115
do not attempt to move a woman in labour to the hospital when
the perineum is bulging with each contraction
116
the dome-shaped top of the uterus is called the
FUNDUS
117
an immature egg is called
Oocyte
118
by the end of week _____ a womans diastolic blood pressure should have returned to its pre pregnancy level
week 36
119
febrile convulsions are common between what ages
6 months - 5 years
120
a small rash on a patients skin resulting from exposure to an antigen is an example of
local reaction
121
aggression driven by psychosis is an example of
disturbed aggression
122
if stridor is heard when auscultating it would most likely be a sign of
upper airway obstruction
123
when you open an infants airway you should
move the head to a neutral position
124
a paediatric patient presents with:
increased work of breathing, sitting upright in the sniffing position, chin thrust forward and drooling
what is the likely diagnosis
epiglottitis
125
the presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates
the baby's airway may be obstructed
126
the third stage of labour begins when the
the baby is expelled from the vagina
127
a paediatric patient presents with lethargy or irritable behaviour, pyrexia, nausea vomiting, photosensitivity and a purpuric rash may be suffering from
meningitis
128
dose of midazolam for a 3yr old
5mg
129
what is the broselow tape for
estimate a child's weight and identify correct size paediatric equipment to use
130
during resus of a neonate you find the pulse rate is 90. what is your next step
provide positive pressure ventilations for 30 seconds
131
poor muscle tone indicates what in a neonate
hypoxia
