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UL PARAMEDICS > MCQ QUESTIONS > Flashcards

MCQ QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

The Trachea is protected by the:

A

epiglottis

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2
Q

What kind of shock is caused by Cardiac Tamponade?

A

cardiogenic shock

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3
Q

The study of drugs and medications is called:

A

pharmacology

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4
Q

The vitamin essential for blood clotting is

A

vitamin K

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5
Q

The respiratory centre in the brain usually reacts to variations in the amount of:

A

carbon dioxide

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6
Q

How far should a BP cuff be inflated after the Pulse is no longer Palpable?

A

30mmHg

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7
Q

How high should ST elevation be in a patients ECG if STEMI is present?

A

> 2mm in V2/V3 and >1mm in all other leads

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8
Q

What is the function of the pleurae?

A

To compartmentalise, protect, and lubricate the lungs

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9
Q

Valsalva is used to treat?

A

Narrow and Regular Tachyarrythmias

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10
Q

A paramedic must seek medical oversight before administration of which drug?

A

Ticagrelor

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11
Q

R sided AMI is suspected in patients with?

A

ST elevation > 1mm in leads V3R and V4R

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12
Q

Which of the following may cause Hypotension (as per PHECC CPG’s)

A

Glucagon

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13
Q

A reported side effect of Clopidogrel is:

A

dyspepsia

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14
Q

Which sound is commonly heard in a patient with Croup?

A

Stridor

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15
Q

During the primary survey of a trauma patient, you note that the patient is agitated and confused, and has multiple injuries from an altercation. Which of the following choices is the most appropriate first treatment priority?

A

correction of possible hypoxia

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16
Q

The amount of medication necessary to take effect
is called

A

Therapeutic effect

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17
Q

What is the correct dose of Ipratropium Bromide for adult patients?

A

500mcg NEB

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18
Q

The minimum systolic pressure required for the administration of Glycerltrinitrate (GTN) is:

A

90mmHg

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19
Q

posterior MI is suspected in patients with ST elevation in?

A

V7, V8, V9 > 0.5mm

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20
Q

What is classified as ““symptomatic”” in a
patient who is bradycardic?

A

acute altered mental state

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21
Q

Isolated Anterior ST depression can be a sign of?

A

posterior STEMI

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22
Q

A STEMI is present on an ECG if ST
elevation is present in?

A

≥2 contiguous leads or presumed new
LBBB with AMI symptoms

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23
Q

At what rate should oxygen be delivered to a patient
experiencing Sickle Cell Crisis?

A

15 L/Min via non rebreather mask

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes Angina?

A

It occurs because there is not enough oxygen to meet the demands of the body

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25
Q

The term affinity, as it applies to pharmacology, is MOST accurately defined as the

A

Attraction between a medication and its receptor

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26
Q

A patient with status asthmaticus commonly presents with:

A

Physical exhaustion and inaudible breath sounds.

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27
Q

In cardiac patients, O2 should be withheld unless the
02 sats drop below 94% T/F?

A

TRUE

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28
Q

In the upper airway, the cricoid cartilage is unique because of

A

its complete ring shape

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29
Q

You have a patient suffering from stabbing chest pain (associated with breathing), they have a temp of 38.7, you hear a wheeze and rales on auscultation. What is the most likely reason for this complaint?

A

Pleurisy

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30
Q

What type of chest injury is characterised by air accumulation in the pleural space when a perforation in the lung parenchyma acts as a one-way valve?

A

Pneumothorax

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31
Q

The spleen is located on what side of the body?

A

LEFT

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32
Q

Which of the following routes of drug administration has the fastest absorption rate?

A

IV

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33
Q

The fluid which is contained within the body the cell is called?

A

intracellular fluid

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34
Q

Touching a responsive patient without first obtaining consent is:

A

Battery

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35
Q

The letter ‘I’ in MOI stands for:

A

Injury

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36
Q

How do you calculate minute Volume ?

A

Tidal volume X RR = Minute volume

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37
Q

What tissue lines the trachea?

A

Epithelial tissue

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38
Q

What is the correct line of treatment for an unconscious patient (30yo) with an BGL of 3.1mmols/l?

A

Glucagon 1mg

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39
Q

In an Inferior AMI: what ECG is indicated?

A

Right sided

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40
Q

How is an NPA measured

A

Nasal passage to tragus

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41
Q

The right atrium, right ventricle and part of the left ventricle are supplied by the:

A

Right Coronary Artery

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42
Q

During life threatening conditions Oxygen is titrated to…

A

94-98%

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43
Q

The maximum dose of GTN you administer to a 9 year old experiencing chest pain is

A

Not indicated for paediatrics

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44
Q

If a patient is gasping, which is the appropriate O2 administration device?

A

BVM

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45
Q

The peritoneum is made of which type of membrane?

A

SEROUS

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46
Q

Medication used by trauma patients for pre-existing conditions may cause which of the following?

A

Beta-blockers may prevent tachycardia with blood loss

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47
Q

The term automaticity refers to the ability of a cell to:

A

initiate an impulse on its own.

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48
Q

Hyperglycaemia results in skin that is

A

Warm and dry

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49
Q

The coronary arteries fill with blood during:

A

ventricular diastole.

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50
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes septic shock?

A

Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection

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51
Q

The trade name:

A

is the unique name given by a manufacturer

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52
Q

During the resuscitation of an elderly patient always:

A

Check for a DNR

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53
Q

The generic name for aspirin is

A

Acetylsalicylic acid

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54
Q

When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, the bevelled edge should face ________

A

Medially

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55
Q

Chemical control of respiration is triggered by the

A

rise of pCO2 in the body

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56
Q

Which ONE of the following best describes the region from which the coronary arteries originate?

A

Ascending aorta

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57
Q
A
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58
Q

The term abduction refers to movement of a body part…..?

A

Away from the midline

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59
Q

Increased cell production in a normal tissue/organ is known as?

A

Hyperplasia

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60
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin in a suspected MI?

A

Inhibits platelet aggregation

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61
Q

Passive stretching exerted by blood on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole is referred to as…?

A

Preload

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62
Q

The term automaticity refers to the ability of a cell to

A

Initiate an impulse on its own

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63
Q

Two valves called the semilunar valves are the?

A

Pulmonary valve/ Aortic valve

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64
Q

What is the typical tidal volume of a male patient?

A

500ml

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65
Q

What tissue lines the trachea?

A

Epithelial

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66
Q

For resting potential in a cardiac cell to exist, there must be an….?

A

Adequate number of potassium ions inside the cell and sodium ions outside the cell

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67
Q

Under normal conditions, the strength of cardiac contraction is regulated by

A

The frank-sterling mechanism

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68
Q

What is the frank sterling mechanism?
not an MCQ question but you should probably learn it you dumb bitch

A

Force of contraction of the heart muscle is directly proportional to the initial length of the muscle fibres.

KP: the more the heart muscle stretches during filling (diastole) the more forcefully it contracts during pumping (systole)

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69
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax?

A

Air accumulates in the pleural space and becomes trapped, creating a one way valve effect

Causes: trauma/perforation in the lung parenchyma

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70
Q

What is a simple pneumothorax?

A

AKA: collapsed lung
Occurs when air leaks into the pleural space. This air causes the lung to partially/fully collapse

Difference to tension:
There is no one way valve effect->air can escape the pleural space preventing a buildup of pressure

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71
Q

What is spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

A collapsed lung that happens without an injury

TYPES
Primary spontaneous pneumothorax: no underlying health condition/disease. Can happen if abnormal air pockets in the lung (blebs) break apart and release air

Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax: caused by certain lung diseases. Lung becomes blocked, causing bulging areas (bullae) that can burst

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72
Q

What is affinity (as it applies to pharmacology)

A

Attraction between a medication and its receptor

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73
Q

How long is a pulse check on a hypothermic patient

A

30-45s

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74
Q

CPAP should be started at which pressure?

A

5cm H2O

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75
Q

What year was PHECC established

A

2000

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76
Q

What is diffusion?

A

A substance moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the use of energy

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77
Q

The PR interval on an ECG starts where?

A

Start of the P wave

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78
Q

What are the two laws relevant to respiration?

A

Henry’s Law: how partial pressure causes oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide release
LUNGS->BLOOD (O2)
TISSUE->BLOOD (CO2)

Boyles law: pressure and volume are inversely proportional. As one increases, the other decreases.
The difference in pressure between the atmosphere and the lungs drives the flow of air

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79
Q

What are barbiturates?

A

CNS depressants

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80
Q

What process is used when glucose enters a body cell?

A

Facilitated diffusion

WTF is that?
It’s a type of passive transport that allows molecules to move across a cell membrane with the help of specialised proteins

What does that actually mean?
Imagine ur wanna go to the club but the bouncer says no cuz ur a loser (in this scenario ur glucose)
Then ur mate (who’s a regular and a bestie with the bouncer pulls up- ur mates the protein)
The bouncer (the membrane) will let you in only if you’re with your super cool protein mate, so you tag on and into the club you gooooo💃🕺🏼💃

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81
Q

The partial pressure of oxygen is….in atmospheric air?

A

159mmHg

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82
Q

Integumentary also refers to what?

A

THE SKIN

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83
Q

When stimulated, baroreceptors cause the heart rate to …..

A

DECREASE

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84
Q

What are organelles?

A

Found within the cells cytoplasm and operate in a cooperative and organised fashion to maintain life of the cell

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85
Q

GTN does what to the heart?

A

Reduces preload

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86
Q

The normal duration of the QRS complex is?

A

0.04-0.12s

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87
Q

The pressure in the left ventricle at the end of diastole is the….

A

Preload

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88
Q

Administration of what drug may cause dizziness?

A

Glucagon

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89
Q

What airway is contraindicated when there is peri orbital bruising and bruising behind the ears?

A

NPA

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90
Q

What is an effector neuron?

A

Motor neuron - sends signal from CNS to Effector organs

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91
Q

What is an afferent neuron?

A

Sensory neuron- signal from body to CNS

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92
Q

What is an effector organ?

A

Structures that respond to nerve impulses from CNS

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93
Q

The epithelial cells of the choroid plexus secrete what?

A

CSF

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94
Q

Metabolism of medication occurs primarily in the….

A

Liver

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95
Q

The largest muscle of respiration is…

A

The diaphragm

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96
Q

Oxygen is transported by?

A

Erythrocytes

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97
Q

Tidal volume is?

A

The total amount of air forced out

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98
Q

During depolarisation of the heart muscle, what enters the cardiac cell?

A

Sodium

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99
Q

A Full CD cylinder being given at 15L-min will last how long?

A

30 mins

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100
Q

What bone is the base of the tongue connected to?

A

Hyoid bone

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101
Q

If a lead comes off a patients chest, what will happen to the waveform?

A

It won’t be seen on the monitor

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102
Q

Nebulised oxygen is administered at what flow rate?

A

6-8LPM

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103
Q

What muscle is associated with the assistance of forced respiration?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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104
Q

Hypothermia is considered a reversible cause of cardiac arrest T/F?

A

True

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105
Q

Eye to eye contact with the patient communicates what?

A

Honesty

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106
Q

What term is used to describe difficulty when breathing in a supine position?

A

Orthoponoea

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107
Q

How many litres in a CD cylinder?

A

460

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108
Q

Mental health emergencies in the pre hospital environment are dealt with under which of the following:

A

2001

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109
Q

The practitioner’s responsibility to maintain quality records is important:

A

For future legal purposes

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110
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding PCRs?

  • you can share the information with neighbours after the incident
  • They can be used in a court of law
  • You may use the contents for personal research

-The can be disposed of once patient is handed over in the ED

A

they can be used in the court of law

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111
Q

Which medical condition is characterised by significant systemic symptoms, which have resulted from the sudden release of a build-up of toxins, and could result in sudden death?

A

Toxic shock syndrome

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112
Q

Where is the caecum located?

A

The intestine

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113
Q

Where do you park at an accident where there is a chemical hazard sign ?

A

Uphill and upwind

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114
Q

Which medication is listed as a carbohydrate?
Question 24 options:

Glucagon

Glucose gel

Glucose 10%

NACL 0.9%

A

Glucose 10%

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115
Q

At what age is the occurrence of Sudden Infant Death most common?

A

0-6 months

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116
Q

Who is responsible for the dead at a major emergency?
Question 29 options:

Gardaí

Fire

Ambulance control

Medical authority

A

gardai

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117
Q

At the scene of a major incident, which agency transports the casualties?
Question 51 options:

-Local authority

-Police

-HSE

-Incident command

A

HSE

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118
Q

What are the bones of the fingers called?

A

Phalanges

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5
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119
Q

What are gloves, mask, eye protection and gown called?
Question 54 options:

-Disease protection

-Airborne protection

-Standard precautions

-Personal issue

A

standard precautions

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120
Q

Spinal injury may cause:
Question 60 options:

-Distributive shock

-Obstructive shock

-Hypovolemic shock

-Cardiogenic shock

A

distributive

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121
Q

What position do you transport a patient with appendicitis
Question 61 options:

-Trendelenburg

-Prone

-Lithotomy

-Fowlers

A

fowlers

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122
Q

A trauma patient presents with abdominal guarding. This is a sign of:
Question 63 options:

-Pain

-Internal bleeding

-Gastritis

-Appendicitis

A

internal bleeding

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123
Q

Where is the calcaneus?
Question 65 options:

-Shoulder

-Foot

-Spine

-Elbow

A

foot

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124
Q

What is an example of the parental route
Question 66 options:

-IM

-Inhalational

-Rectal

-Oral

A

IM

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125
Q

Which type of a wound has flaps?
Question 70 options:

-Avulsion

-Laceration

-Contusion

-Abrasion

A

Avulsions

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126
Q

Which is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism?
Question 72 options:

-Oral contraceptive

-Asthma

-Being a tall male

-COPD

A

oral contraceptives

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127
Q

How many stages in clinical audit?
Question 82 options:

-3

-4

-5

-6

A

5

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128
Q

CPAP should be commenced at 5cm H2O and titrated to:

A

10cm

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129
Q
  1. Male patient, 72 years old, has been outside all night in cold temperatures. Hands feel cold and look waxy to the touch. He is likely suffering from:
    Question 96 options:

-Frosting

-Frost nip

-Severe frostbite

-Superficial frostbite

A

superficial frostbite

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130
Q

Dose of midazolam for a 2yo?
Question 97 options:

-2.5mg

-5mg

-7.5mg

-10mg

A

5mg

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131
Q

Semi-circular canals have a role to play in:
Question 98 options:

-Taste

-Smell

-Balance

-Sight

A

balance

132
Q

Mental health emergencies in the pre hospital environment are dealt with under which of the following:

A

2001

133
Q

In someone with subcutaneous emphysema what can be felt under the skin?

A

crackles

134
Q

The nerve controlling the diaphragm is called

  • The vagus nerve
  • The glossopharyngeal nerve
  • The phrenic nerve

-The intercostal nerve

A

phrenic nerve

135
Q

R sided AMI is suspected in patients with?

-ST elevation > 1mm in leads V3 and V4

-ST elevation > 1mm in leads V3R and V4R

-ST depression > 1mm in leads V3R and V4R

-ST elevation > 2mm in leads V3R and V4R

A

ST elevation > 1mm in leads V3R and V4R

136
Q

Kussmaul’s respirations are found in patients with:

-Hypoglycemia

-Head injury

  • DKA
  • Hyperglycemia
A

DKA

WTF is it?

Kussmaul breathing is a type of deep, labored breathing that is often associated with metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although it can occur in other conditions as well. It is characterized by:

Deep and Rapid Breathing: The person breathes more deeply and at a faster rate than normal. The depth and rate can be so pronounced that the breathing sounds forceful or gasping.

Compensation for Acidosis: Kussmaul breathing is the body’s attempt to compensate for a buildup of acid in the blood (acidosis). By increasing the rate and depth of respiration, the body tries to “blow off” excess carbon dioxide (CO₂), which is acidic when dissolved in the blood. This helps raise the pH back toward normal levels.

137
Q

When should you consider transporting a trauma patient to a major Trauma Centre (MTC)?

-Transport time < 30 mins to MTC

-Transport time < 45 minutes to MTC

-Transport time < 60 mins to MTC

-Transport time < 120mins to MTC

A

<45mins

138
Q

Glucagon is produced in the pancreas by which cells

-Delta

-Alpha

-Globlet

-Beta

A

ALPHA

139
Q

Blood is acidic or alkaline?

A

alkaline?

140
Q

What effect does the release of angiotensin 2 have on the body

-Vasodilation

-Bronchoconstriction

-Bronchodilation

-Vasoconstriction

A

vasoconstriction

141
Q

What condition will cause Renin to be released from the Kidneys?

-Hypotension

-Cardiac Tamponade

-Angina

-Hypertension

A

hypotension

142
Q

Your oesophagus is a muscular tube, which is approx._____cm long, made up of ______ muscle which lies______ to the trachea.

-25/voluntary/superior

-25/voluntary/posterior

-15/voluntary/posteriorly

-25/involuntary/anterior

A

25/voluntary/posterior

143
Q

Following a head injury, csf and blood is draining from a patient’s ear-how should this be managed?

-Pack tightly with gauze

-Tilt head to opposite side

-Gently cover with gauze to prevent infection

-Place patient in Trendelenburg position

A

Gently cover with gauze to prevent infection

144
Q

How is Sodium Chloride 0.9% classified?

-Isotonic crystalloid

-Hypotonic

-Hypertonic

-Colloid

A

Isotonic crystalloid

145
Q

Widespread dilation of the arterioles can cause which type of shock?

-Cardiogenic

-Obstructive

-Distributive

-Hypovolaemic

A

Distributive

146
Q

Spinal injury may cause:

-Neurogenic shock

-Obstructive shock

-Hypovolemic shock

-Cardiogenic shock

A

Neurogenic

147
Q

What is the white of the eye called?

A

sclera

148
Q

When managing a patient with Harness induced suspension trauma, it is advisable to treat the patient in which position as soon as is practically possible?

-Recumbent

-Fowlers

-Vertical

-Horizontal

A

Horizontal

149
Q

Where is yellow bone marrow found?

-Long bones

-Flat bones

-Irregular bones

-Sigmoid bones

A

Long bones

150
Q

An appropriate response following triage by the clinical support desk for calls categorised as Blue determinants is:

-Protocol 37

-Paramedic transporting vehicle on scene < 19 mins.

-GP referral

-Ensure 3-4 practitioners mobilised to scene.

A

GP referral

151
Q

Air trapped between the visceral and parietal pleura is indicative of:

-Pleurisy

-Pneumothorax

-Flail chest

-Pleural effusion

A

Pneumothorax

152
Q

What is the optimum position for a mother delivering a breech baby?

-All fours

-McRoberts

-Fowlers

-Position of comfort

A

Position of comfort

153
Q

Which of the following is a role of the first crew on scene at a major emergency?

-Maintain communication with command & Control.

-Initiate patient care.

-Transport patients

-Triage SORT

A

Maintain communication with command and control

154
Q

How would you preserve an amputated finger on route to hospital?

-Wrap the part loosely in saline-moistened sterile gauze.

-Wrap in gauze and transport on ice

-Place in warm water

-Soak in Milk and transport in clear plastic bag

A

Wrap the part loosely in saline-moistened sterile gauze

155
Q

Which rhythm is represented by a wide QRS complex with no P wave.

-VT

-VF

-Afib

-SVT

A

VT

156
Q

What is parasuicide?

A

Non-fatal event with intention

157
Q

Following successful advanced airway insertion on a paediatric patient, how many ventilations per minute should be given?

A

12-20

158
Q

Which drug is a 5HT3 receptor antagonist?

-Cyclizine

-Chlorphenamine

-Ticagrelor

-Ondansetron

A

Ondansetron

159
Q

Regarding frostbitten fingers, which is the most appropriate first action?

-Remove jewellery.

-Gradual rewarming

-Active rewarming with the car heater.

-Vigorous rubbing to rewarm.

A

Gradual rewarming

160
Q

What is the max paediatric dose of Dexamethasone?

A

12mg

161
Q

What is the correct dose of chlorphenamine for a 5-month-old patient?

A

0.25 mg/kg IM

162
Q

What does the first E in METHANE represent?

A

Exact location of the emergency.

163
Q

Anaerobic cell metabolism resulting in the release of a toxin and the death of tissue is the result of:

A

Compartment syndrome

164
Q

Ventricular systole lasts approximately?

A

0.3

165
Q

The correct dosage of Midazolam Solution for a three year old ?

A

5mg Buccal

166
Q

The normal ph of the blood is?

A

7.35 to 7.45

167
Q

One symptom of significant internal blood loss is:

-hunger

-excessively warm

-thirst

-disinhibition

A

Thirst

168
Q

Filtration of the products of digestion takes place in the:

A

Liver

169
Q

Prolonged use of can cause myeloneuropathy

-paracetamol

-methoxyflurane

-nitrous oxide and oxygen

-ibuprofen

A

nitrous oxide and oxygen

170
Q

Peripheral neuropathy can occur as a result of

-epilepsy

-heart failure

-opiate overdose

-diabetes

A

Diabetes

171
Q

the umbilical cord, when wrapped around the baby’s neck, is known as

A

nuchal cord

172
Q

IM Naloxone can be administered to a maximum dose of:

A

2mg

173
Q

The main principles of ethics that underlie all health care Workers are Non-Maleficence, Autonomy, Justice and:

A

Beneficence

174
Q

Which medical condition is characterised by significant systemic symptoms, which have resulted from the sudden release of a build-up of toxins, and could result in sudden death?

A

Toxic shock syndrome

175
Q

In carrying out Triage Sort during a Major Incident, the parameters measured are:

A

Respiratory Rate, Systolic Blood Pressure and GCS

176
Q

With Paraquat poisoning, administration of oxygen is contraindicated T/F

A

False

177
Q

What does hypoxemia mean?

Low oxygen in blood

Low iron in body tissue

Low iron in blood

Low oxygen in body tissue

A

low oxygen in blood

178
Q

Platelets…

have a life span of about 120 days

have multiple nuclei

stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel to help form a clot

are the precursors of leukocytes

A

stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel to help form a clot

179
Q

Thrombocytes are also called?

A

platelets

180
Q

Erythrocytes are also called?

A

red blood cells

181
Q

life span of erythrocytes (red blood cells)?

A

120 days

182
Q

life span of thrombocytes?

A

7-10 days

183
Q

lifespan of white blood cells?

A

8hrs - 3 days

184
Q

When stimulated, baroreceptors cause the heart rate to:

Increase.

Decrease.

Become irregular.

Stay the same.

A

decrease

185
Q

Incomplete glucose breakdown leads to an accumulation of:

lactic acid

pyruvic acid

bicarbonate

carbonic acid

A

lactic acid

186
Q

How many pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum?

A

10

187
Q

Paradoxical breathings results from a:

3 more rib fractures

Flail segment

Hemopneumothorax

Pneumothorax

A

flail segment

188
Q

The Pancreas

has an exocrine function only

has neither an endocrine or exocrine function

has an exocrine and endocrine function

has an endocrine function only

A

has an exocrine and endocrine function

189
Q

Partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air?

A

159mmHg

190
Q

The slowest route for absorption of a medication is

A

IM

191
Q

If the pleural space becomes filled with air or blood:

the lung expands and fills the thoracic space.

increased surface tension ruptures the lung.

surface tension is lost and the lung collapses.

surface tension forces the pleurae together.

A

surface tension is lost and the lung collapses.

192
Q

Which of the following is the most secure airway?

SGA

NPA

ETT

OPA

A

ETT

193
Q

Which of the following is correct in relation to the Asystole decision tree CPG

Record two 15 second rhythm strips

Record two 10 second rhythm strips

Record two 20 second rhythm strips

Record two 30 second rhythm strips

A

10 SECOND

194
Q

The components of each cell are surrounded by a_________ membrane.

A

Plasma

195
Q

That part of the pharynx above the level of the soft palate is called the:

Palatopharynx

Nasopharynx

Laryngopharynx

Oropharynx

A

Nasopharynx

196
Q

Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system causes:

Increased heart rate

Decreased heart rate

Vasoconstriction

Vasodilation

A

Decreased heart rate

197
Q

The term Abduction refers to movement of a body part….

A

Away from the midline

198
Q

The structures that are located in the ventricles and are attached to the heart valve flaps are called

iliopsoas tendons

obturator internus tendons

chordae tendineae

papillary muscles

A

chordae tendineae

199
Q

Standard ECG paper travels at a rate of?

A

25mm per second

200
Q

The layers of the wall of the heart, beginning with the outermost layer, are:

A

epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

201
Q

The three phases of respiration are

Inspiration, expiration, pause

Expiration, inspiration, pause

Pause, expiration, inspiration

Expiration, pause, inspiration

A

Inspiration, expiration, pause

202
Q

Movement of water molecules occurs by?

A

Osmosis

203
Q

The anatomical structure where the trachea splits into two bronchi is called the __________

A

carina

204
Q

How long should an irregular pulse be checked for?

A

60 seconds

205
Q

Ventricular systole lasts approximately

A

0.3 sec

206
Q

The muscular layer of the heart is known as what?

A

myocardium

207
Q

The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called?

A

Ventilation

208
Q

Stimulation of Beta 1 receptors causes:

A

Increased heart rate

209
Q

A condition, in which air fills the stomach, as a result of high volume and pressure during artificial ventilation is called:

A

Gastric Distension

210
Q

The study of metabolism and action of medications within the body, with particular emphasis on absorption, duration of action and method of excretion is:

A

Pharmacokinetics

211
Q

Where should vitals be obtained?

A

Focused exam

212
Q

Which of the following groups of vessels supplies blood to the myocardium?

Pulmonary

Coronary

Cerebral

Mesenteric

A

Coronary

213
Q

What is the cause of an ischaemic stroke?

Thrombus occluding major blood vessel resulting
in cerebral ischemia

Thrombus occluding major blood vessel resulting in
myocardial ischemia

Rupture of major blood vessel of the brain resulting in
cerebal ischemia

Thrombus occluding carotid artery resulting in
myocardial ischemia

A

Thrombus occluding major blood vessel resulting
in cerebral ischemia

214
Q

What oxygen would you give a pre-term neonate?

FI02 21%

FI02 20%

FI02 100%

FI02 30%

A

FI02 30%

215
Q

If paedal oedema is present, which side of the heart is failing?

Anterior

Posterior

Left

Right

A

right

216
Q

Obstructive shock is?

There is an obstruction in the patient’s airway

There is a obstruction in major blood vessels of the brain
causing the vagus nerve to be stimulated

a widespread catastrophic vasodilation of the bodies
major blood vessels

an obstruction is causing blood flow reduction
going into and out of your heart or great vessels

A

an obstruction is causing blood flow reduction
going into and out of your heart or great vessels

217
Q

The golden hour is?

Time of injury to treatment of first aid

Time of injury to Emergency department admission

Time of injury to surgical intervention

Time of injury to medical assistance

A

Time of injury to surgical intervention

218
Q

The illium is located where?

A

upper pelvis

219
Q

The acetabulum is which part of the pelvis?

A

The socket

220
Q

in relation to the pelvis, the Pubis is located?

A

medially

221
Q

Where do you Park at a civil disturbance

A

at a designated ambulance parking area

222
Q

what is the prefered site for an IM injection on a paediatric patient

A

Mid lateral thigh

223
Q

A clinical near miss is defined as?

A

an error that has the potential to cause an adverse event (patient harm) but fails to do so because it was intercepted

224
Q

Define “hypoventilation”

A

when a patient is breathing at such a low rate that gas exchange becomes reduced and C02 builds up in the blood

225
Q

An aortic aneurysm is?

A

A balloon like bulge in the aorta caused by blood leaking between the layers of the vessel

226
Q

What are the indications for CPAP?

A

Clinical signs of APO, RR > 25, Sp02 < 95%

227
Q

The maximum number of times to shock a severely hypothermia patient in cardiac arrest

A

3

228
Q

You are dealing with a patient who you think will self harm, you should

A

call the Gardai

229
Q

what area of the throat is suctioned?

A

oropharynx

230
Q

What part of the heart does v3r and v4R show?

A

Right Ventricle

231
Q

what is the superior part of the lung called?

A

apex

232
Q

what is the average length of the spinal cord?

A

45 cm

233
Q

what is the difference between ligaments and tendons?

A

ligaments attach bone to bone, tendons attach muscle to bone

234
Q

the osophagous is located in which cavity

A

Thoracic

235
Q

what should be considered prior to salbutamol administeration?

A

peek flow

236
Q

The spleen is found in which abdominal region?

Left hypochondrium

Left lumbar

Right iliac

Epigastrium

A

Left hypochondrium

237
Q

How many pairs of false ribs does an adult have?

A

3

238
Q

he pulse that can be palpated near the top of the foot is the:

A

dorsalis pedis

239
Q

Which of the following fractures would most likely be associated with the presence of surgical emphysema

Clavical

Femur

Humerous

Mandible

A

Clavical

240
Q

Epistaxis should initially be treated by applying digital pressure for

A

15mins

241
Q

The bone on the thumb side of the forearm is

A

Radius

242
Q

The production of mucus is the primary function of

A

Goblet

243
Q

What type of joint is located at the hip?

A

Ball and socket

244
Q

Increased Sympathetic Nerve stimulation of blood vessels will have what effect?

Vasoconstriction

Vasoldilation

No affect

There is no sympathetic nerve stimulus to blood vessels

A

Vasoconstriction

245
Q

How many items need to be present to highlight Sepsis red flag?

A

> 1

246
Q

The prefix phlebo means?

A

vein

247
Q

The cephalic vein is located in the ___________

A

arm

248
Q

what is known as the “Master Gland”?

A

piturity

249
Q

The mediastinum is located in which cavity

A

Thoracic

250
Q

What condition involves the destruction of alveolar sacs?

A

Emphysema

251
Q

The most immediate life threatening condition resulting from injury to solid abdominal organs is which of the following?

Multiple organ failure

Catastrophic Heamorrhage

Acute respiratory failure

Peritonitis

A

Catastrophic Heamorrhage

252
Q

Gluconeogenesis refers to

A

The creation of glucose

253
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating muscle movements and maintaining balance?

A

Cerebellum

254
Q

How many bones in your hand

A

27

255
Q

What is the specific consideration for the treatment of Paraquat poisioning?

Do not administer 02
unless Sp02 < 92%

Administer 100% high
flow 02

Only give 02 if patient is hypoxic

Never administer 02 when treating Paraquat poisoning

A

Do not administer 02
unless Sp02 < 92%

256
Q

What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

A

patella

257
Q

Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely present with an acute onset of respiratory distress

Anaphylaxis

Pneumonia

Asthma

Pulmonary embolism

A

Pneumonia

258
Q

Between which layers would you find an epidural bleed?

A

Dura and Skull

259
Q

Which layer of the blood vessel is made up of elastic fibres and muscle and provides for strength and contractility?

A

Tunica media

260
Q

The innermost meningeal layer that rests directly on the spinal cord is the

A

Pia mater

261
Q

The appendix is located in the?

A

RLQ

262
Q

What does parenteral drug administration mean?

A

any route of administration other than the digestive tract (PO)

263
Q

Flattened, closed sacs of synovial fluid found where a tendon rubs against a bone, ligament, or other tendon are called

A

Bursae

264
Q

The transverse plane:

A

Divides superior from inferior

265
Q

The liver, which is rather fragile and is easily injured in accidents

A

Takes up most of the area
beneath the diaphragm on the
right

266
Q

Accumulation of fluid within abdominal cavity is called

A

Acities

267
Q

Osteoporosis tends to progress more rapidly in:

bones in the arms

post menopause

bones in the lower legs

males over 60

A

post menopause

268
Q

What is the normal resp rste of a 4-6 month old?

A

30 - 60 min

269
Q

When the pH that is greater than 7.45, it is:

A

Alkalosis

270
Q

Which area of the brain contains nerve fibres that form a bridge between the two sides of the cerebrum?

Pons

Corpus callosum

Midbrain

Medulla

A

Corpus callosum

271
Q

What causes decreased BP in neurogenic shock?

Polyuria

Movement of fluid into the cells

Disrupted SNS communication

Movement of fluid into the vasculature

A

Disrupted SNS communication

272
Q

Cor pulmonale is MOST accurately defined as:

A

Right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease

273
Q

In the phonetic alphabet, the number ‘9’ is represented by the word:

A

Nine-er

274
Q

The type of pain felt in hollow organs is termed

A

Visceral

275
Q

What is the Hydrocortisone dose for COPD?

A

200mg

276
Q

Which of the following signs would you MOST likely expect to see as you assess a patient with a slow lower gastrointestinal bleed?

A

melena

277
Q

Normal HR expected for a newborn infant?

A

90-180

278
Q

First set of vital signs that you obtain is known as the…

A

Baseline

279
Q

A systemic head to toe examination looking for non life threatening injuries in a patient is part of….

A

Secondary survey

280
Q

Capillary refill is the most reliable indicator of cardiovascular status in which patient group….

A

Children

281
Q

What two sections of the spinal cord are most susceptible to injury?

A

Cervical and lumbar

282
Q

What are the three main parts of the brain?

A

Cerebrum, cerebellum and brain stem

283
Q

What are the blood vessels that return blood from the head

A

Jugular

284
Q

The shoulder girdle consists of?

A

Clavicles and the scapulae

285
Q

Bands of tough, flexible connective tissue which join the articular surfaces of bones are called?

A

Ligaments

286
Q

What part of the brain is regarded as the control centre for respiration?

A

Medulla oblongata

287
Q

Electrical impulses that are produced in the spinal cord and transmitted along the ….nerve to the muscle and cause it to contract

A

Motor

288
Q

The outer most layer of the skin is the…

A

Epidermis

289
Q

….. blood pressure reflects relaxation of the heart

A

Diastolic

290
Q

What is another term for lower jaw?

A

Mandible

291
Q

What is the sequence of layers of the meninges?

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pía mater

292
Q

What is the largest artery in the body?

A

Aorta

293
Q

What organs are commonly found in the URQ?

A

Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas

294
Q

How many bones are in the spine?

A

33

295
Q

Name three types of muscular tissue?

A

Skeletal, smooth, cardiac

296
Q

The amount of air that passes into and out of the lungs in one breath is called the….

A

Tidal volume

297
Q

What are the four characteristics of skeletal muscle?

A

Excitability/ contractility/ extensibility/ elasticity

298
Q

Where does external respiration take place in the lungs?

A

Alveoli

299
Q

Pathology is the study of

A

Disease

300
Q

How many additional responders are mobilised for a cardiac arrest?

A

3-4

301
Q

The term anoxia refers to…

A

Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue

302
Q

When you open an infants airway you should….

A

Maintain the head in a neutral inline position

303
Q

What percentage of oxygen is contained in expired air?

A

16%

304
Q

A simple face mask at a flow of 6-8LPM can deliver a maximum oxygen concentration of….

A

60%

305
Q

The inability to speak or write due to a brain injury is called?

A

Aphasia

306
Q

Parkinson’s disease is associated with a deficiency in what hormone?

A

Dopamine

307
Q

The mechanical process of removing waste materials or poisons from the blood is called…

A

Haemodialysis

308
Q

IM injection should be delivered at what angle?

A

90° angle

309
Q

In compensatory shock what happens to SBP?

A

Remains steady

310
Q

A conscious patient with a sucking chest wound should be transported in what position?

A

Lying on the injured side

311
Q

How long should pressure be applied for epistaxis

A

15 min

312
Q

What are agonal respirations

A

Occasional gasping breaths unable to maintain life

313
Q

In the continuum of pre-hospital emergency care , covering Responders and Practitioners, how many levels are there?

A

6

314
Q

What type of civil disorder involves several sites of disturbance

A

running disorder

315
Q

The ethical principle meaning equal and fair distribution of care to all patients is?

A

justice

316
Q

The ethical principle meaning doing no harm to a patient is known as

A

nonmaleficience

317
Q

The ethical principle meaning the right of the patient to make their own choices is

A

autonomy

318
Q

The statutory instrument establishing the ability of paramedics to administer medications is?

A

SI 300 of 2014

319
Q

A function of the Pre-Hospital Emergency Care Council (PHECC) is to?

A

Develop training and educational standards

320
Q

The PHECC code of professional conduct and ethic’s is ?

A

A document that a Paramedic signs a declaration to comply with

321
Q

What do the initials CPC stand for?

A

Continual Professional Competency

322
Q

The statutory instrument that established the Pre-hospital Emergency Care Council is

A

SI 109 of 2000

323
Q

The 18 care principles that underpin clinical practice guidelines are?

A

goals of care that apply to all patients

324
Q

The ethical principle meaning acting in the best interest of the patient is

A

beneficience

325
Q
A

UL PARAMEDICS (33 decks)

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