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2024 Pharmacology > Module 1: Lecture > Flashcards

Module 1: Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following describes a single compartment model in pharmacokinetics?

a) Drug enters a central compartment and immediately reaches all tissues.
b) Drug enters a central compartment and passes to the site of action or elimination.
c) Drug is distributed equally to all compartments simultaneously.
d) Drug remains in the bloodstream without passing into other tissues.

A

B

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2
Q

What is the significance of a drug’s volume of distribution (Vd)?

a) It indicates the dose required to reach the bloodstream.
b) It reflects how widely a drug is distributed throughout the body.
c) It determines the rate at which the drug is metabolized.
d) It shows how quickly the drug reaches the site of action.

A

B

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3
Q

Which route of drug administration is associated with 100% bioavailability?

a) Intramuscular
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Subcutaneous

A

C

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4
Q

What is the definition of bioavailability?

a) The percentage of the drug that is excreted from the body.
b) The extent of a drug’s absorption following administration via a route other than IV.
c) The amount of drug bound to plasma proteins.
d) The speed at which a drug is distributed to target tissues.

A

B

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5
Q

Which of the following is true regarding first-order efflux kinetics?

a) The drug concentration decreases at a constant rate over time.
b) The mass efflux rate is proportional to the mass remaining in the compartment.
c) Drug elimination follows a linear decrease in concentration.
d) The rate of drug elimination does not depend on the drug’s concentration.

A

B

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6
Q

Which statement best describes the concept of half-life (T1/2)?

a) It is the time required for the drug to be fully metabolized.
b) It is the time required for the plasma drug concentration to decrease by 50%.
c) It is the time required for the drug to reach equilibrium between compartments.
d) It is the time required for the drug to be completely excreted from the body.

A

B

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7
Q

What is the primary factor that affects a drug’s ability to pass through membranes?

a) Solubility in water
b) Ionization state of the drug
c) Lipid solubility of the drug
d) The molecular weight of the drug

A

C

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8
Q

Which model describes the interaction between interconnected drug compartments?

a) Catenary model
b) Single compartment model
c) Mammillary model
d) Deterministic model

A

B

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9
Q

What is the role of protein binding in drug distribution?

a) It helps drugs to cross the blood-brain barrier.
b) It reduces the amount of drug available to produce therapeutic effects.
c) It increases the rate at which the drug is excreted from the body.
d) It enhances the drug’s bioavailability in the bloodstream.

A

C

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10
Q

Which of the following is an example of zero-order kinetics in drug elimination?

a) The drug is eliminated at a constant rate regardless of concentration.
b) The rate of elimination is proportional to the drug’s concentration.
c) Drug concentration decreases exponentially over time.
d) The drug is metabolized only after reaching the target site.

A

B

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11
Q

In pharmacokinetics, what is the definition of clearance (Cl)?

a) The volume of plasma from which the drug is completely removed per unit of time.
b) The amount of drug that reaches the target tissue.
c) The volume of distribution of a drug in the body.
d) The time taken for the drug to reach its maximum concentration.

A

A

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12
Q

Which of the following best describes first-pass metabolism?

a) The conversion of a drug into its active form.
b) The metabolism of a drug that occurs after it reaches systemic circulation.
c) The metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.
d) The elimination of a drug through the kidneys.

A

C

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13
Q

What is the formula to calculate loading dose?

a) Loading dose = Cp × Vd / Cl
b) Loading dose = Cp × Vd / F
c) Loading dose = Vd × Cl / T1/2
d) Loading dose = Cp / T1/2 × F

A

B

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14
Q

A high volume of distribution (Vd) indicates that:

a) The drug is primarily distributed in the plasma.
b) The drug is mostly stored in fat tissues.
c) The drug is poorly absorbed.
d) The drug remains mostly in the central compartment.

A

B

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15
Q

Which of the following influences a drug’s bioavailability?

a) Route of administration
b) Drug’s molecular weight
c) Plasma protein binding
d) Drug’s solubility in water

A

A

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16
Q

In zero-order kinetics, the rate of drug elimination is:

a) Dependent on the plasma concentration.
b) Proportional to the remaining drug concentration.
c) Constant regardless of drug concentration.
d) Affected by the half-life of the drug.

A

C

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17
Q

Which of the following describes the role of pKa in drug absorption?

a) It determines the rate at which the drug is metabolized.
b) It influences how well the drug dissolves in plasma.
c) It affects the ionization state of a drug based on the pH of the medium.
d) It affects the lipid solubility of the drug.

A

C

18
Q

What type of drug particles can most easily cross cell membranes?

a) Large ionized molecules
b) Hydrophobic non-ionized molecules
c) Hydrophilic ionized molecules
d) Large polar molecules

A

B

19
Q

What is the role of enterohepatic circulation in drug metabolism?

a) It increases drug elimination through the kidneys.
b) It allows the drug to be reabsorbed into the bloodstream from the intestines.
c) It reduces the bioavailability of orally administered drugs.
d) It decreases the half-life of the drug.

A

B

20
Q

Which route of drug administration bypasses the absorption phase?

a) Oral
b) Subcutaneous
c) Intravenous
d) Transdermal

A

C

21
Q

The Area Under the Curve (AUC) in pharmacokinetics is used to estimate:

a) The rate of drug absorption.
b) The total drug exposure over time.
c) The drug’s distribution to peripheral tissues.
d) The time required to reach peak plasma concentration.

A

B

22
Q

When a drug has a low bioavailability, it means that:

a) A high percentage of the drug reaches the bloodstream.
b) The drug is poorly absorbed into systemic circulation.
c) The drug is excreted faster by the liver.
d) The drug binds strongly to plasma proteins.

A

B

23
Q

What is a key difference between catenary and mammillary models of drug distribution?

a) The mammillary model does not include a central compartment.
b) The catenary model includes multiple compartments that communicate directly.
c) The catenary model describes only single compartment distribution. d) The mammillary model describes compartments that do not communicate.

A

B

24
Q

What type of kinetics describes the elimination of most drugs at therapeutic doses?

a) Zero-order kinetics
b) Non-linear kinetics
c) First-order kinetics
d) Diffusion-limited kinetics

A

C

25
Q

In terms of drug formulations, which factor primarily influences drug stability?

a) Ionization state
b) Crystallinity and polymorphism
c) Volume of distribution
d) Route of administration

A

B

26
Q

What is the significance of the time to maximum concentration (Tmax) in pharmacokinetics?

a) It represents the duration of drug effect.
b) It indicates the time at which the drug’s absorption rate is the fastest.
c) It marks the point at which drug elimination begins.
d) It signifies the time when drug absorption equals drug elimination.

A

B

27
Q

What happens when the pH of a solution equals the pKa of a drug?

a) The drug is fully ionized.
b) The drug is fully non-ionized.
c) The drug exists in a 50:50 ionized to non-ionized ratio.
d) The drug cannot cross cell membranes.

A

C

28
Q

Which of the following best describes the difference between an agonist and an antagonist?

a) An agonist prevents receptor activation, while an antagonist stimulates it.
b) An agonist binds to a receptor to initiate a response, while an antagonist blocks receptor activation.
c) An agonist produces a maximal response, while an antagonist produces a partial response.
d) An agonist works only in ionized form, while an antagonist works in non-ionized form.

A

B

29
Q

Why is protein binding important for drug distribution?

a) It allows the drug to be stored in fat tissues.
b) It limits the amount of drug that is free to interact with receptors.
c) It increases the rate of drug elimination.
d) It prevents drugs from crossing the blood-brain barrier.

A

B

30
Q

What effect does a drug with high lipid solubility have on its volume of distribution (Vd)?

a) It has a low volume of distribution.
b) It is confined mainly to the central compartment.
c) It has a high volume of distribution due to tissue uptake.
d) It is rapidly eliminated from the body

A

C

31
Q

How is the half-life (T1/2) of a drug related to its volume of distribution (Vd) and clearance (Cl)?

a) T1/2 is proportional to Cl and inversely proportional to Vd.
b) T1/2 is proportional to Vd and inversely proportional to Cl.
c) T1/2 is inversely proportional to both Vd and Cl.
d) T1/2 is independent of both Vd and Cl.

A

B

32
Q

Which factor is most likely to decrease the bioavailability of an orally administered drug?

a) Low lipid solubility
b) High plasma protein binding
c) Extensive first-pass metabolism
d) Low volume of distribution

A

C

33
Q

What is the primary advantage of using transdermal drug delivery systems?

a) Rapid absorption into systemic circulation
b) Avoidance of first-pass metabolism
c) Lower risk of drug interactions
d) Enhanced bioavailability compared to oral administration

A

B

34
Q

In which compartment is a drug most likely to have a low volume of distribution (Vd)?

a) Adipose tissue
b) Intracellular fluid
c) Plasma
d) Muscle tissue

A

C

35
Q

The steady-state concentration of a drug is reached when:

a) The drug’s absorption equals its elimination.
b) The drug’s half-life is completed.
c) The drug is no longer metabolized.
d) The drug binds maximally to its receptors.

A

A

36
Q

What effect does protein binding have on the half-life (T1/2) of a drug?

a) It shortens the half-life by increasing the drug’s elimination rate.
b) It extends the half-life by reducing the free drug available for metabolism.
c) It has no effect on the half-life.
d) It reduces the drug’s absorption from the GI tract.

A

B

37
Q

What determines the extent of ionization of a weak acid drug?

a) The drug’s solubility in plasma.
b) The pH of the solution relative to the drug’s pKa.
c) The amount of drug bound to plasma proteins.
d) The drug’s lipid solubility.

A

B

38
Q

How does an increase in renal clearance affect a drug’s half-life?

a) It increases the half-life by reducing elimination.
b) It decreases the half-life by enhancing elimination.
c) It does not affect the half-life.
d) It increases the drug’s plasma concentration.

A

B

39
Q

Which pharmacokinetic parameter is used to determine the maintenance dose rate?

a) Tmax
b) Clearance (Cl)
c) Volume of distribution (Vd)
d) Bioavailability (F)

A

B

40
Q

The pKa of a drug determines:

a) Its distribution among compartments.
b) The proportion of ionized to non-ionized forms at a given pH.
c) Its lipid solubility.
d) Its half-life in plasma.

A

B

2024 Pharmacology (23 decks)

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