II: Mycobacteria Flashcards

1
Q

____ acetylators may have poorer therapeutic response and are more likely to suffer from hepatotoxicity

A

Fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ acetylators require less frequent dosing and are more likely to suffer from neurotoxicity

A

Slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

______: spread of mycobacterium tuberculosis to all organs

A

Miliary tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____: inhibits phagosomal maturation

A

ManLAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____: prevents PI3P pathway of lysosome-phagosome fusion

A

SapM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____: stimulates fusion between phagosomes and early endosomes to ensure continual nutrient supply to phagosome compartment

A

PIM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is Non-TB mycobacteria transmitted?

A

Environmental Sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is TB transmitted?

A

Droplet nuclei from actively infected person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mycobacteria are gram-_____ and have a cell wall whose dry weight is composed predominantly of _____

A

Positive; lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mycobacteria are identified by the _______ stain which measures _______.

A

Ziehl-Neelson; acid fastness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name 3 modes of identifying TB.

A

Acid-fast organisms stained in sputum, liquid culture, solid culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the most common presentation of MAC in children.

A

Cervical lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the types of infections seen in MAC. (3)

A

Pulmonary disease, disseminated disease, cervical lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name two physical exam signs of M. leprae.

A

Hypopigmented anesthetic skin patch, thickened peripheral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tuberculin test is positive _____ weeks after infection

A

2/10/2016

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the definitive treatment for a Buruli ulcer?

A

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most sensitive screening test for TB?

A

Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the rate of person to person transmission for M. leprae?

A

1-2%

19
Q

What virulence factor is responsible for a Buruli ulcer?

A

Mycolactone toxin (induces tissue necrosis)

20
Q

Which antimycobacterial? 2nd line agent

A

cycloserine, aminosalicylic acid (PAS)

21
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Bactericidal, MOA incompletely understood

A

Pyrazinamide

22
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Good intracellular activity

A

Isoniazid, Rifampin

23
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Hyperuricemia, Hepatotoxicity

A

Pyrazinamide

24
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Inhibits 30S ribosome activity, ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A

Streptomycin

25
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

A

Rifampin

26
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Inhibits mycobacterial cell wall synthesis by inhibiting arabinosyltransferase

A

Ethambutol

27
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids by binding a protein reductase

A

Isoniazid

28
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Necessitates supplementations with pyridoxine

A

Isoniazid

29
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity, induces P450

A

Isoniazid

30
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Optic neuritis, hyperuricemia

A

Ethambutol

31
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Rare hepatotoxicity, red-orange coloring of body fluids, induces P450

A

Rifampin

32
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Requires KatG for the conversion of the prodrug to the active form

A

Isoniazid

33
Q

Which antimycobacterial? Used for treatment of leprosy

A

Rifampin, Dapsone, Clofazimine

34
Q

Which form of leprosy? Active cell-mediated immunity response with few bacteria

A

Tuberculoid

35
Q

Which form of leprosy? Bacterial growth on nerve sheaths can cause sensory damage

A

Tuberculoid

36
Q

Which form of leprosy? Better prognosis

A

Tuberculoid

37
Q

Which form of leprosy? Blotchy red lesions on face, trunk, and extremities with loss of local sensation

A

Tuberculoid

38
Q

Which form of leprosy? Loss of eyebrows, thickened/enlarged nares/ears/cheeks

A

Lepromatous

39
Q

Which form of leprosy? Loss of local sensation

A

Lepromatous

40
Q

Which form of leprosy? Loss of nasal bone and septa

A

Lepromatous

41
Q

Which form of leprosy? Malignant form in which bacteria are present in high numbers

A

Lepromatous

42
Q

Which form of leprosy? Strong antibody response with defective cell-mediated immunity

A

Lepromatous

43
Q

Which pathogen is responsible for a Buruli ulcer?

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans