II: Mycobacteria Flashcards
____ acetylators may have poorer therapeutic response and are more likely to suffer from hepatotoxicity
Fast
____ acetylators require less frequent dosing and are more likely to suffer from neurotoxicity
Slow
______: spread of mycobacterium tuberculosis to all organs
Miliary tuberculosis
_____: inhibits phagosomal maturation
ManLAM
_____: prevents PI3P pathway of lysosome-phagosome fusion
SapM
_____: stimulates fusion between phagosomes and early endosomes to ensure continual nutrient supply to phagosome compartment
PIM
How is Non-TB mycobacteria transmitted?
Environmental Sources
How is TB transmitted?
Droplet nuclei from actively infected person
Mycobacteria are gram-_____ and have a cell wall whose dry weight is composed predominantly of _____
Positive; lipids
Mycobacteria are identified by the _______ stain which measures _______.
Ziehl-Neelson; acid fastness
Name 3 modes of identifying TB.
Acid-fast organisms stained in sputum, liquid culture, solid culture
Name the most common presentation of MAC in children.
Cervical lymphadenitis
Name the types of infections seen in MAC. (3)
Pulmonary disease, disseminated disease, cervical lymphadenitis
Name two physical exam signs of M. leprae.
Hypopigmented anesthetic skin patch, thickened peripheral nerve
Tuberculin test is positive _____ weeks after infection
2/10/2016
What is the definitive treatment for a Buruli ulcer?
Surgery
What is the most sensitive screening test for TB?
Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA)
What is the rate of person to person transmission for M. leprae?
1-2%
What virulence factor is responsible for a Buruli ulcer?
Mycolactone toxin (induces tissue necrosis)
Which antimycobacterial? 2nd line agent
cycloserine, aminosalicylic acid (PAS)
Which antimycobacterial? Bactericidal, MOA incompletely understood
Pyrazinamide
Which antimycobacterial? Good intracellular activity
Isoniazid, Rifampin
Which antimycobacterial? Hyperuricemia, Hepatotoxicity
Pyrazinamide
Which antimycobacterial? Inhibits 30S ribosome activity, ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
Streptomycin
Which antimycobacterial? Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Rifampin
Which antimycobacterial? Inhibits mycobacterial cell wall synthesis by inhibiting arabinosyltransferase
Ethambutol
Which antimycobacterial? Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids by binding a protein reductase
Isoniazid
Which antimycobacterial? Necessitates supplementations with pyridoxine
Isoniazid
Which antimycobacterial? Neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity, induces P450
Isoniazid
Which antimycobacterial? Optic neuritis, hyperuricemia
Ethambutol
Which antimycobacterial? Rare hepatotoxicity, red-orange coloring of body fluids, induces P450
Rifampin
Which antimycobacterial? Requires KatG for the conversion of the prodrug to the active form
Isoniazid
Which antimycobacterial? Used for treatment of leprosy
Rifampin, Dapsone, Clofazimine
Which form of leprosy? Active cell-mediated immunity response with few bacteria
Tuberculoid
Which form of leprosy? Bacterial growth on nerve sheaths can cause sensory damage
Tuberculoid
Which form of leprosy? Better prognosis
Tuberculoid
Which form of leprosy? Blotchy red lesions on face, trunk, and extremities with loss of local sensation
Tuberculoid
Which form of leprosy? Loss of eyebrows, thickened/enlarged nares/ears/cheeks
Lepromatous
Which form of leprosy? Loss of local sensation
Lepromatous
Which form of leprosy? Loss of nasal bone and septa
Lepromatous
Which form of leprosy? Malignant form in which bacteria are present in high numbers
Lepromatous
Which form of leprosy? Strong antibody response with defective cell-mediated immunity
Lepromatous
Which pathogen is responsible for a Buruli ulcer?
Mycobacterium ulcerans
