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Infectious Disease > II: Miscellaneous > Flashcards

II: Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

In determining the type of nucleic acid in a virus, BrDU-containing media inhibits replication of ____-containing viruses.

A

DNA

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2
Q

_____ assay: an agglutinating virus is mixed with an anti-virus antibody

A

Hemagglutination Inhibition

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3
Q

_____ assay: when mixed with RBCs, viruses can link cells to agglutinate

A

Hemagglutination

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4
Q

_____ may be used to solubilize the envelope of viruses; non-enveloped viruses will not be affected.

A

Chloroform, ether

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5
Q

_____ should be initiated within one hour of sepsis.

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

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6
Q

______ toxin: inhibits protein synthesis via binding of Elongation Factor 2

A

Diphtheria

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7
Q

_______ toxin: activates PLC to cleave lipids in cell membranes and result in cell lysis

A

Clostridium perfringens

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8
Q

Bordetella pertussis is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.

A

negative; coccobacillus

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9
Q

Capture ELISA: used to identify _____ in patient serum

A

viral antigens

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10
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.

A

positive; pleomorphic

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11
Q

Diphtheria vaccines contain _______.

A

Diphtheria toxoid

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12
Q

Direct immunofluorescence: addition of _____ to test for virus presence

A

monoclonal antibody against virus

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13
Q

ELISA: used to identify _____ that are commonly targeted by antibody response

A

Patient antibodies to viral proteins

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14
Q

Hemophilus influenzae is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.

A

negative; bacillus/coccobacillus

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15
Q

How do lentivirus vectors direct nuclear uptake of cDNA?

A

tsDNA

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16
Q

How is Clostridium difficile diagnosed?

A

Stool cytotoxicity assay or ELISA

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17
Q

How often should an individual receive a Tdap booster?

A

10 years

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18
Q

In Diphtheria toxin, _____ is required to deliver ______ to the cell receptor to enter the cytoplasm

A

Fragment B; Fragment A

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19
Q

In diphtheria toxin, Fragment A transfers _______ to _______ to inhibit _______.

A

ADP-ribose; EF-2; protein synthesis

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20
Q

Increased amounts of ______ inhibit diphtheria toxin production, while decreasesd levels stimulate production

A

Iron

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21
Q

Iron has effects on the production of _____ toxin.

A

Diphtheria

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22
Q

Lab diagnosis of diphtheria requires demonstration of ______.

A

Diptheria Toxin production by isolate

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23
Q

Lab diagnosis of pertussis requires _______.

A

PCR (and culture)

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24
Q

Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS): ______

A

Sepsis + organ dysfunction in 2+ organs

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25
Name 3 encapsulated pathogens.
H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis
26
Name 6 virulence factors of B. fragilis
Fimbriae, collagenase, Phospholipase A, heparinase, superoxide dismutase, polysaccharide capsule
27
Name 7 non-bacterial causes of sepsis
MI, PE, Pancreatitis, GI bleed, drug reactions, trauma, burns
28
Name a vaccine currently in use that prevents strep pneumoniae infection in children
Meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MCV4)
29
Name a vaccine that is recommended for prevention of S. pneumoniae infection in both infants/toddlers and adults over age 50
Prevnar (13-valent) pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine
30
Name a vaccine that prevents bacteremia caused by S. pneumoniae in adults over age 50.
Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccines (Pneumovax)
31
Name an encapsulated pathogen that currently has no available vaccine.
N. meningitidis
32
Name the genetic material and capsid symmetry for adenoviruses
dsDNA; icosahedral
33
Name the known reservoirs for adenovirus
Human (only)
34
Name the three stages of pertussis infection
Catarrhal, paroxysmal, convalescent
35
Name three additional toxins associated with pertussis.
Tracheal cytotoxin, adenyl cyclase toxin, Filamentous hemagglutinin
36
Neisseria meningitidis is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.
negative; diplococci
37
Pertussis toxin transfers _____ to ______.
ADP-ribose; adenylate cyclase
38
Pertussis vaccines contain ______.
Acellular Bordetella pertussis
39
Sepsis criteria: ______
SIRS + infection
40
SIRS requires __ of the following 4 criteria: _______.
2; Temp less than 36 or >38, HR>90, RR>20, PaCO2 less than 32 mmHg
41
Strep pneumoniae is __-hemolytic.
alpha
42
Strep pneumoniae is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.
positive; diplococci
43
The most common pathogens in sepsis are gram-____.
Negative
44
What bacterium causes diphtheria?
Corynebacterium diphteriae
45
What controls the production and release of pertussis toxin?
Vir gene locus
46
What is the appropriate treatment for H. influenzae?
Cephalosporins (3rd)
47
What is the appropriate treatment for N. meningitidis?
Cephalosporins (3rd/4th) or Ampicillin
48
What is the downstream effect of pertussis toxin?
Increase cAMP
49
What is the leading bacterial cause of otitis media in children?
S. pneumoniae
50
What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults?
S. pneumoniae
51
What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in children ages 6 months to 6 years?
N. meningitidis
52
What is the rationale for conjugating polysaccharides to proteins for use in vaccines?
Convert them to T-cell-dependent antigen
53
What is the treatment for Clostridium difficile?
Metronidazole
54
What is the treatment for diphtheria?
Equine antitoxin and erythromycin
55
Which bacteria? Requires V factor (___) and X factor (___).
H. influenzae; NAD; Heme
56
Which component of DTaP/TDaP vaccines has previously been controversial? Why?
Pertussis due to side effects associated with whole cell vaccine
57
Which individuals should receive DTaP vaccine?
Children under 6
58
Which individuals should receive Tdap vaccine?
Pregnant women and close contacts, teens, adults
59
Which infection? Complications: secondary infection, seizures and neurologic signs secondary to hypoxia, invasive infection
Pertussis
60
Which infection? Membranous nasopharyngitis with possible obstructive laryngotracheitis
Diphtheria
61
Which infection? Mucus membrane inflammation with discharge, cough, mimics minor respiratory illness in early stages; intensification of symptoms leads to spasms, seizures, and whoop
Pertussis
62
Which infection? Myocarditis, renal problems, neurologic problems
Diphtheria
63
Which infection? Presents with catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages
Pertussis
64
Which pathogen? "Tennis-raquet" shaped cells
Clostridium
65
Which pathogen? Absence of PMNs in wound exudates due to cytotoxic effects of alpha toxin
Clostridium perfringens
66
Which pathogen? Aerotolerant gram negative rods, pleomorphic, catalase positive
B. fragilis
67
Which pathogen? Associated with consumption of unpasteurized honey and some corn syrups
Clostridium botulinum
68
Which pathogen? Associated with home canning
Clostridium botulinum
69
Which pathogen? Causes spastic paralysis
Clostridium tetani
70
Which pathogen? Found in feces of humans and animals, spores in soil/environment
Clostridium tetani
71
Which pathogen? Gram-positive spore-forming rods
Clostridium
72
Which pathogen? Its toxin blocks release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction
Clostridium botulinum
73
Which pathogen? Its toxin results in block of inhibitory neurotransmitters
Clostridium tetani
74
Which pathogen? Minor component of GI flora, associated with 80% of intra-abdominal infections
B. fragilis
75
Which pathogen? Spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizer
Clostridium difficile
76
Which serotype of H. influenzae most commonly causes disease?
b
77
Which toxin seen in Bordetella pertussis? Adverse effects on macrophage trafficking
Adenyl cyclase toxin
78
Which toxin seen in Bordetella pertussis? Destroys ciliated epithelial cells in the upper respiratory tract
Tracheal cytotoxin
79
Which toxin seen in Bordetella pertussis? Involved in attachment to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells
Filamentous Hemagglutinin
80
Which viral vector? Can design site-specific integration into DNA
Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAV)
81
Which viral vector? Can integrate up to 30 kb of DNA
Adenovirus
82
Which viral vector? Can only integrate up to 5kb of DNA
Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAV)
83
Which viral vector? Elicits strong inflammatory response making repeated use problematic
Adenovirus
84
Which viral vector? Integration occurs in non-mitotic cells
Adenovirus
85
Which viral vector? May be designed to replicate in and kill tumor cells
Adenovirus
86
Which viral vector? Naked capsid and dsDNA
Adenovirus
87
Which viral vector? Parvovirus with naked capsid and ssDNA
Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAV)
88
Which viral vector? Requires helper virus for integration
Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAV)
89
Which viral vector? Virions are unstable
Retroviruses

Infectious Disease (21 decks)

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