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Infectious Disease > II: Miscellaneous > Flashcards

II: Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

In determining the type of nucleic acid in a virus, BrDU-containing media inhibits replication of ____-containing viruses.

A

DNA

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2
Q

_____ assay: an agglutinating virus is mixed with an anti-virus antibody

A

Hemagglutination Inhibition

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3
Q

_____ assay: when mixed with RBCs, viruses can link cells to agglutinate

A

Hemagglutination

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4
Q

_____ may be used to solubilize the envelope of viruses; non-enveloped viruses will not be affected.

A

Chloroform, ether

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5
Q

_____ should be initiated within one hour of sepsis.

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

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6
Q

______ toxin: inhibits protein synthesis via binding of Elongation Factor 2

A

Diphtheria

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7
Q

_______ toxin: activates PLC to cleave lipids in cell membranes and result in cell lysis

A

Clostridium perfringens

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8
Q

Bordetella pertussis is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.

A

negative; coccobacillus

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9
Q

Capture ELISA: used to identify _____ in patient serum

A

viral antigens

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10
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.

A

positive; pleomorphic

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11
Q

Diphtheria vaccines contain _______.

A

Diphtheria toxoid

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12
Q

Direct immunofluorescence: addition of _____ to test for virus presence

A

monoclonal antibody against virus

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13
Q

ELISA: used to identify _____ that are commonly targeted by antibody response

A

Patient antibodies to viral proteins

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14
Q

Hemophilus influenzae is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.

A

negative; bacillus/coccobacillus

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15
Q

How do lentivirus vectors direct nuclear uptake of cDNA?

A

tsDNA

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16
Q

How is Clostridium difficile diagnosed?

A

Stool cytotoxicity assay or ELISA

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17
Q

How often should an individual receive a Tdap booster?

A

10 years

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18
Q

In Diphtheria toxin, _____ is required to deliver ______ to the cell receptor to enter the cytoplasm

A

Fragment B; Fragment A

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19
Q

In diphtheria toxin, Fragment A transfers _______ to _______ to inhibit _______.

A

ADP-ribose; EF-2; protein synthesis

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20
Q

Increased amounts of ______ inhibit diphtheria toxin production, while decreasesd levels stimulate production

A

Iron

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21
Q

Iron has effects on the production of _____ toxin.

A

Diphtheria

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22
Q

Lab diagnosis of diphtheria requires demonstration of ______.

A

Diptheria Toxin production by isolate

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23
Q

Lab diagnosis of pertussis requires _______.

A

PCR (and culture)

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24
Q

Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS): ______

A

Sepsis + organ dysfunction in 2+ organs

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25
Q

Name 3 encapsulated pathogens.

A

H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis

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26
Q

Name 6 virulence factors of B. fragilis

A

Fimbriae, collagenase, Phospholipase A, heparinase, superoxide dismutase, polysaccharide capsule

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27
Q

Name 7 non-bacterial causes of sepsis

A

MI, PE, Pancreatitis, GI bleed, drug reactions, trauma, burns

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28
Q

Name a vaccine currently in use that prevents strep pneumoniae infection in children

A

Meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MCV4)

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29
Q

Name a vaccine that is recommended for prevention of S. pneumoniae infection in both infants/toddlers and adults over age 50

A

Prevnar (13-valent) pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine

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30
Q

Name a vaccine that prevents bacteremia caused by S. pneumoniae in adults over age 50.

A

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccines (Pneumovax)

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31
Q

Name an encapsulated pathogen that currently has no available vaccine.

A

N. meningitidis

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32
Q

Name the genetic material and capsid symmetry for adenoviruses

A

dsDNA; icosahedral

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33
Q

Name the known reservoirs for adenovirus

A

Human (only)

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34
Q

Name the three stages of pertussis infection

A

Catarrhal, paroxysmal, convalescent

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35
Q

Name three additional toxins associated with pertussis.

A

Tracheal cytotoxin, adenyl cyclase toxin, Filamentous hemagglutinin

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36
Q

Neisseria meningitidis is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.

A

negative; diplococci

37
Q

Pertussis toxin transfers _____ to ______.

A

ADP-ribose; adenylate cyclase

38
Q

Pertussis vaccines contain ______.

A

Acellular Bordetella pertussis

39
Q

Sepsis criteria: ______

A

SIRS + infection

40
Q

SIRS requires __ of the following 4 criteria: _______.

A

2; Temp less than 36 or >38, HR>90, RR>20, PaCO2 less than 32 mmHg

41
Q

Strep pneumoniae is __-hemolytic.

42
Q

Strep pneumoniae is a gram-______ organisms with the following morphology: ______.

A

positive; diplococci

43
Q

The most common pathogens in sepsis are gram-____.

44
Q

What bacterium causes diphtheria?

A

Corynebacterium diphteriae

45
Q

What controls the production and release of pertussis toxin?

A

Vir gene locus

46
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for H. influenzae?

A

Cephalosporins (3rd)

47
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for N. meningitidis?

A

Cephalosporins (3rd/4th) or Ampicillin

48
Q

What is the downstream effect of pertussis toxin?

A

Increase cAMP

49
Q

What is the leading bacterial cause of otitis media in children?

A

S. pneumoniae

50
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults?

A

S. pneumoniae

51
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in children ages 6 months to 6 years?

A

N. meningitidis

52
Q

What is the rationale for conjugating polysaccharides to proteins for use in vaccines?

A

Convert them to T-cell-dependent antigen

53
Q

What is the treatment for Clostridium difficile?

A

Metronidazole

54
Q

What is the treatment for diphtheria?

A

Equine antitoxin and erythromycin

55
Q

Which bacteria? Requires V factor (___) and X factor (___).

A

H. influenzae; NAD; Heme

56
Q

Which component of DTaP/TDaP vaccines has previously been controversial? Why?

A

Pertussis due to side effects associated with whole cell vaccine

57
Q

Which individuals should receive DTaP vaccine?

A

Children under 6

58
Q

Which individuals should receive Tdap vaccine?

A

Pregnant women and close contacts, teens, adults

59
Q

Which infection? Complications: secondary infection, seizures and neurologic signs secondary to hypoxia, invasive infection

60
Q

Which infection? Membranous nasopharyngitis with possible obstructive laryngotracheitis

A

Diphtheria

61
Q

Which infection? Mucus membrane inflammation with discharge, cough, mimics minor respiratory illness in early stages; intensification of symptoms leads to spasms, seizures, and whoop

62
Q

Which infection? Myocarditis, renal problems, neurologic problems

A

Diphtheria

63
Q

Which infection? Presents with catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages

64
Q

Which pathogen? “Tennis-raquet” shaped cells

A

Clostridium

65
Q

Which pathogen? Absence of PMNs in wound exudates due to cytotoxic effects of alpha toxin

A

Clostridium perfringens

66
Q

Which pathogen? Aerotolerant gram negative rods, pleomorphic, catalase positive

A

B. fragilis

67
Q

Which pathogen? Associated with consumption of unpasteurized honey and some corn syrups

A

Clostridium botulinum

68
Q

Which pathogen? Associated with home canning

A

Clostridium botulinum

69
Q

Which pathogen? Causes spastic paralysis

A

Clostridium tetani

70
Q

Which pathogen? Found in feces of humans and animals, spores in soil/environment

A

Clostridium tetani

71
Q

Which pathogen? Gram-positive spore-forming rods

A

Clostridium

72
Q

Which pathogen? Its toxin blocks release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction

A

Clostridium botulinum

73
Q

Which pathogen? Its toxin results in block of inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

Clostridium tetani

74
Q

Which pathogen? Minor component of GI flora, associated with 80% of intra-abdominal infections

A

B. fragilis

75
Q

Which pathogen? Spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizer

A

Clostridium difficile

76
Q

Which serotype of H. influenzae most commonly causes disease?

77
Q

Which toxin seen in Bordetella pertussis? Adverse effects on macrophage trafficking

A

Adenyl cyclase toxin

78
Q

Which toxin seen in Bordetella pertussis? Destroys ciliated epithelial cells in the upper respiratory tract

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

79
Q

Which toxin seen in Bordetella pertussis? Involved in attachment to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells

A

Filamentous Hemagglutinin

80
Q

Which viral vector? Can design site-specific integration into DNA

A

Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAV)

81
Q

Which viral vector? Can integrate up to 30 kb of DNA

A

Adenovirus

82
Q

Which viral vector? Can only integrate up to 5kb of DNA

A

Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAV)

83
Q

Which viral vector? Elicits strong inflammatory response making repeated use problematic

A

Adenovirus

84
Q

Which viral vector? Integration occurs in non-mitotic cells

A

Adenovirus

85
Q

Which viral vector? May be designed to replicate in and kill tumor cells

A

Adenovirus

86
Q

Which viral vector? Naked capsid and dsDNA

A

Adenovirus

87
Q

Which viral vector? Parvovirus with naked capsid and ssDNA

A

Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAV)

88
Q

Which viral vector? Requires helper virus for integration

A

Adeno-Associated Viruses (AAV)

89
Q

Which viral vector? Virions are unstable

A

Retroviruses

Infectious Disease (21 decks)

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